2024-2025学年度第二学期期末七年级学业水平抽样评估
七年级英语试卷
2025.7
注意事项:
1.本试卷共8页,总分100分,考试时间90分钟。
2.答题前,考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3.所有答案均在答题卡上作答,在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。
4.答选择题时,用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选题时,请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分25分)
第一节 听句子,选择最佳答语(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. I’d like to. B. Make paper-cuts. C. I’m busy.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Thank you. B. Yes, they are. C. That’s all right.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. No, I don’t. B. They are strong. C. I’m drawing a tiger.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Some bread. B. That’s great. C. Three yuan.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. No, thank you. B. Yes, please. C. You’re welcome.
第二节 听对话,选择正确答案(共8题;每题1分,满分8分)
6. What is Mr. Hu 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
7. What DIY project will they make 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. Why doesn’t Alice watch TV every day
A. Because she wants to keep healthy.
B. Because it’s not interesting.
C. Because she doesn’t have time.
9. What does Alice do every day
A. She plays sports. B. She reads books. C. She goes for a walk.
【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
10. What does the girl think of her new neighbourhood
A. Quiet. B. Clean. C. Big.
11. What can people enjoy every Saturday night
A. A free movie. B. Nice food. C. Excellent games.
12. When will the boy visit the neighbourhood
A. This Saturday. B. This Sunday. C. Next Saturday.
【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
13 How old is the dog
A. Three weeks old. B. Three months old. C. Three years old.
14. Who will the dog help
A. People with hand problems.
B. People with eye problems.
C. People with leg problems.
15. What place does the boy often take the dog to
A. Post offices. B. Bus stops. C. Parks.
第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7题;每题1分,满分7分)
【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
16. How will Tom go to Beijing
A. By train. B. By air. C. By bus.
17. When will Tom visit the Great Wall
A. On April 1. B. On April 2. C. On April 3.
【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. What did the speaker make last week
A. A paper chair. B. A wooden box. C. A clay cup.
19. Where did the speaker find the wood
A. In the store. B. In the field. C. In the garden.
20. How long did it take the speaker to finish the work
A. One day. B. Two days. C. Three days.
第四节 听短文填空(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Information Sheet
Class and grade Class ____21____, Grade 7
Neighbourhood ____22____ and beautiful
Square next to a ____23____
How to go to school ____24____
Reason (原因) for staying at home have a ____25____
第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 完形填空(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Most people think that only fat and unhealthy people need exercise. That’s wrong. In fact, it is ____26____ for each one of us to exercise every day. Exercise can help us have a ____27____ body. It also helps us do ____28____ in our life.
Different people can do sports in different time. Many people like to do some sports in the morning, ____29____ they think it is the best time to do sports. That’s true. In the morning, the ____30____ is fresh and it’s not very cold or hot. You can walk, run or do other exercises. If you think it’s boring to do ____31____ by yourself, you can ask someone to do it with you. It will be very nice.
Some people ____32____ to do sports in the evening. After dinner, they have enough time. It’s also OK as long as (只要) they don’t exercise too much.
However, you should know that exercising too much and exercising in the morning without eating anything are ____33____ for your health. So the best way is to ____34____ early, have a small meal and go out to exercise. You should never give the heavy burden (负担) to your ____35____ when you do sports.
26. A. dangerous B. difficult C. important D. funny
27. A. beautiful B. healthy C. special D. straight
28. A. quickly B. happily C. well D. hard
29. A. if B. but C. so D. because
30. A. air B. flower C. park D. breakfast
31. A. housework B. exercise C. homework D. work
32. A. like B. forget C. seem D. agree
33. A. helpful B. bad C. good D. hungry
34. A. get up B. stay up C. give up D. look up
35. A. leg B. arm C. foot D. stomach
第二节 短文填空(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
My family like to spend our holidays making our home beautiful, such as painting the walls or fixing (修理) something. We do the jobs ____36____ (we). We also talk about DIY experience ____37____ our friends.
DIY is also a good way ____38____ (save) money. However, DIY can also be ____39____ (danger) if people don’t read the instructions (说明) carefully. My friend Tom is such a person. He hurt himself when he ____40____ (do) his DIY last week.
DIY ____41____ (bring) us fun and helps us save money, but it is not always ____42____ easy job.
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 阅读理解(共10题;每题2分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
What’s your dream neighbourhood like What kind of neighbourhood do you want your children to live in with you Now paint your dream neighbourhood. Take part in the painting competition (竞赛) and you’ll have a chance to win $1,000! Notice:① The idea of your painting must be your own. ②Write down the idea behind your painting in 100 words. Size: All the paintings must be 60 cm wide and 80 cm long or smaller. Where: Send your painting to A Picture of My Own Neighbourhood, 9F, No.168, Swan Road, Swan City. When: Send your painting before October 25. Prize: 1st Prize: $1,000 (3 winners) 2nd Prize: $800 (5 winners) 3rd Prize: $600 (10 winners) 4th Prize: $400 (20 winners) To learn more, please visit http:// picturemyownneighbourhood.swancity.gov.
43. What does the text (文章) ask people to do
A. Write a 100-word story. B. Take photos of your neighbourhood.
C. Join in a painting competition. D. Raise money for your neighbourhood.
44. Which size of the picture won’t be OK
A. 40 cm wide and 60 cm long. B. 50 cm wide and 70 cm long.
C. 60 cm wide and 80 cm long. D. 80 cm wide and 100 cm long.
45. How much will you get if you win third prize
A. $1,000. B. $800. C. $600. D. $400.
B
Peter really liked eating hamburgers. He asked his mother to buy hamburgers for him every day. “Hamburgers are so delicious that I can eat ten at one time,” he said. “Hamburgers are fast food. They’re not healthy. You should eat more vegetables,” said his mother.
“I don’t think so. A hamburger includes bread, beef and vegetables. I like it best. And potato chips are good too,” said Peter.
Peter’s mother worried about him a lot, but she couldn’t talk Peter out of eating hamburgers. Day by day, Peter got fatter and fatter. He got tired easily when he tried to do sports.
One day, the lift of his school was out of service (暂停服务). Peter had to walk upstairs. His classroom was on the sixth floor. He felt terrible just after climbing to the second floor. His classmate Roy called the doctor right away.
The doctor said that Peter was too fat and he was in poor health. Finally, Peter decided to have hamburgers once a month and have healthy meals the rest of the time.
46. What was Peter’s mother worried about
A. Peter’s study. B. Peter’s dream. C. Peter’s health. D. Peter’s work.
47. What did Peter finally decide to do
A. Do more exercise. B. Stop eating hamburgers.
C. Talk with his mother. D. Have more healthy food.
48. What can we learn from the story
A. We are what we eat.
B. Old habits die hard.
C. Where there is a will, there is a way.
D. An apple a day keeps the doctor away.
C
Some people say dolphins (海豚) are smart like humans. They can think, understand and learn things quickly. Scientists say dolphins are like humans in some ways. How
Like humans, every dolphin has its own “name”. The name is a special sound. Each dolphin chooses a special sound for itself at birth (出生时). Dolphins are like people in other ways, too. They “talk” to each other about a lot of things—such as their ages and finding food. They also use sounds and body language to talk. Knowing dolphin words is not easy for humans. No one speaks dolphin words, but some scientists are trying to learn.
Dolphins are also social animals. They live in groups, and often join others from different groups to play games and have fun—just like people. Scientists believe (相信) playing together is something that only smart animals do.
Both humans and dolphins make plans for getting things they want. For example, when there are fish near a boat, dolphins jump high to ask the fishermen to put their nets, and then the men can catch a lot of fish. Why do dolphins help the men Because they can get some fish that run away from the net.
49. From this passage, in which ways are dolphins and humans like each other
①They have names. ②They can talk to other kinds of animals.
③They play in groups. ④They can make plans to get things they want.
A. ①③④ B. ①②④ C. ①②③ D. ②③④
50. What does the underlined word “others” in Paragraph 3 mean
A. Other fish. B. Other dolphins. C. Other people. D. Other fishermen.
51. Why do dolphins sometimes help fishermen
A. Dolphins are kind animals.
B The dolphins are afraid of humans.
C. The dolphins can get food that way.
D. The fishermen ask the dolphins for help.
52. What is the best title of the passage
A. Smart Dolphins Can Talk. B. Dolphins Help Humans.
C. Dolphins Are Humans’ Friends. D. Dolphins Are like Humans.
第二节 阅读表达(共5题;每题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,简略回答问题。
Chinese paper-cutting or jianzhi is a kind of folk (民间的) art. People usually use scissors or knives to cut paper. It has a history of over 1,500 years. Let’s learn something about paper-cutting.
Wonderful meanings
Paper-cutting has some wonderful meanings. Some paper-cuttings mean happiness and good luck. At the Spring Festival, people put the paper-cutting of “福” on doors or windows. At a wedding, people put up the paper-cutting of “囍”.
Why is red used
In China, most people love red. In our mind, red is hope and life, so red is our favourite. We can see red everywhere in China. The walls of old palaces are red. Lanterns are red. Weddings are always full of red things, too.
Black paper-cuttings in Shanzhou
Most of the paper-cuttings are red, but paper-cuttings in Shanzhou, Henan Province are black. Black is the best colour there. Shanzhou is a dry place. People make black paper-cuttings and wish for rain.
Now, paper-cutting gets into many schools. Students can learn how to make paper-cuttings at school. Li Jie, a middle school student, says, “It’s really wonderful to change paper into different kinds of pictures, such as flowers and animals. We enjoy it.”
53. How long is the history of Chinese paper-cutting
___________________________________________________________
54. Where do people usually put paper-cuttings at the Spring Festival
___________________________________________________________
55. Why do Chinese people like red
___________________________________________________________
56. What do people make black paper-cuttings for
___________________________________________________________
57. What do you think of paper-cutting Do you know other traditional art forms Write one or two.
___________________________________________________________
第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
补全对话(共5题;每题2分,满分10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hello, John! You look weak today. _____________58_____________
B: I have a stomachache and can’t eat anything
A: I’m sorry to hear that. _____________59_____________
B: Yes, I went to see a doctor this morning.
A: _____________60_____________
B: The doctor said I ate too much ice-cream.
A: Oh. I see, you must have healthy eating habits to keep fit.
B: Yes, you’re right. _____________61_____________
A: Sure, you should eat less ice-cream, drink more water and do more sports.
B: All right. _____________62_____________.
A: You’re welcome.
第五部分 写作(满分18分)
第一节 语段抄写(满分3分)
63. 请按照书写格式和要求抄写以下内容。
Walking, running, bike riding, dancing, and any other forms of sports are all physical activities. Teenagers should do at least sixty minutes of physical activity every day.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 书面表达(满分15分)
64. 上周末,你所在的社区举办了“援助之手”活动(The helping hands meeting)。请你用英语写一篇短文记录这次活动,并向校刊《英语角》投稿。
The “helping hands” meeting Time: last Saturday morning Place: on the square Activities: 1. Magic Tai Chi—young people learn Tai Chi; 2. Delicious Kitchen—parents learn to cook delicious food; 3. Reading Club—children share books.
注意:
(1) 短文须包括所有提示要点,可以适当发挥;
(2)文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名:
(3) 词数60个左右。
The “helping hands” meeting
There was a “helping hands” meeting in
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
2024-2025学年度第二学期期末七年级学业水平抽样评估
七年级英语试卷
2025.7
注意事项:
1.本试卷共8页,总分100分,考试时间90分钟。
2.答题前,考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3.所有答案均在答题卡上作答,在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。
4.答选择题时,用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选题时,请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分25分)
第一节 听句子,选择最佳答语(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】A
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】C
第二节 听对话,选择正确答案(共8题;每题1分,满分8分)
【6题答案】
【答案】A
【7题答案】
【答案】B
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. A
【10~12题答案】
【答案】10. B 11. A 12. C
【13~15题答案】
【答案】13. C 14. B 15. C
第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7题;每题1分,满分7分)
【16~17题答案】
【答案】16. A 17. C
【18~20题答案】
【答案】18 B 19. C 20. B
第四节 听短文填空(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. 3##three
22. clean 23. mall
24. walk##on foot
25. cold
第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 完形填空(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
【26~35题答案】
【答案】26. C 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. D
第二节 短文填空(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
【36~42题答案】
【答案】36 ourselves
37. with 38. to save
39. dangerous
40. did ## was doing
41. brings 42. an
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 阅读理解(共10题;每题2分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【43~45题答案】
【答案】43. C 44. D 45. C
B
【46~48题答案】
【答案】46. C 47. D 48. A
C
【49~52题答案】
【答案】49. A 50. B 51. C 52. D
第二节 阅读表达(共5题;每题2分,满分10分)
【53~57题答案】
【答案】53. Over 1,500 years.
54. On doors or windows.
55. Because red is hope and life.
56. They wish for rain.
57. It is really wonderful/ beautiful… Lanterns and kites. (言之有理即可)
第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
补全对话(共5题;每题2分,满分10分)
【58~62题答案】
【答案】58. What’s wrong with you/What happened/What’s the matter with you
59. Did you see a doctor
60. What did the doctor say
61. Can you give some advice to me
62. Thank you
第五部分 写作(满分18分)
第一节 语段抄写(满分3分)
【63题答案】
【答案】
Walking, running, bike riding, dancing, and any other forms of sports are all physical activities. Teenagers should do at least sixty minutes of physical activity every day.
第二节 书面表达(满分15分)
【64题答案】
【答案】例文
The “helping hands” meeting
There was a “helping hands” meeting in our community last Saturday morning. It was held on the square. Many people came to the meeting. In the meeting, many volunteers shared their skills. Some of them taught young people to learn Tai Chi. It is good for our health. Some parents learned how to cook delicious food from other parents. They were very happy. Children shared their books with each other. They were very happy.
I think it was a successful meeting. People in our community learned new things. They enjoyed themselves at the meeting.