2025-2026学年陕西省安康市高二上学期11月期中英语试题
本试题卷共8页。全卷满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2. 选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3. 非选择题的作答：用签字笔直接写在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the man plan to do on Mother’s Day
A. Do some housework.
B Buy his mother a present.
C. Go to the cinema with his mother.
2. What will the man do next
A. Get soda from the machine.
B. Buy some apple juice.
C. Drink some water.
3. What is Ted’s job in the performance
A. Acting the dragon body.
B Holding the dragon ball.
C. Waving the dragon head.
4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Traffic policeman and driver.
B. Ticket seller and customer.
C. Police officer and criminal.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a bookstore. B. In a museum. C. In a library.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the weather like now
A. Windy. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy.
7. What is the man doing now
A. Doing some shopping. B. Playing online games. C. Looking for his raincoat.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What kind of position is offered
A. An operator. B. A programmer. C. A teacher.
9. What do the speakers think of Anderson
A. He is dependable. B. He is devoted. C. He is skillful.
10. How many applicants do the speakers mention
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What is Kendal’s major now
A. Product design. B. Art and design. C. Mechanical engineering.
12. Why did Kendal change his major
A. He needed to make more money.
B. He wanted a more creative career.
C. He wasn’t good at the previous major.
13. What did Kendal do in Sydney
A. He helped organize shows.
B. He visited lots of museums.
C. He introduced his ideas.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14 Why did Riverton start its quiet-town project
A. To beat the desert’s silence record.
B. To encourage people to buy electric cars.
C. To improve residents’ health and help wildlife.
15. What percentage of European heart attacks is related to noise according to the WHO
A. 20%. B. 30%. C. 40%.
16. What has happened since Riverton won the title
A. Tourist visits have increased sharply.
B. Several factories have moved away.
C. Cars have returned to the town center.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What can we know about the speaker’s first performance as a dancer
A. It was surprising. B. It was successful. C. It was disappointing.
18. Which dancing group did the speaker direct
A. Swingtime. B. Campus Life. C. Social Dance 1.
19. In which field will the speaker get a master’s degree
A. Modern art. B. Computer science. C. Community development.
20. What is the speaker mainly talking about
A. Her love for school life. B. Her plan to start her career. C. Her experiences of dancing.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Whether you are travelling alone, with your special one, in a group, or as a family, theme parks are always a great opportunity to experience a pleasant adventure in the most fun and harmless way. Here are four best theme parks in Europe to visit.
Gardaland — Lake Garda, Italy
Gardaland is Italy’s biggest amusement park and is located on the shores of Lake Garda. The park offers an impressive 32 rides, including seven roller coasters and three water rides. It is conveniently divided into three groups: Fantasy, Adventure, and Thrill.
Parc Asterix — Plailly, France
Parc Asterix is a popular amusement park located in Plailly, France. It is based on the comic series Asterix and Obelix. The park has seventeen attractions themed around the comics and is a perfect playground for fans of Asterix and Obelix. It also includes roller coaster rides and many other shows such as dolphin shows or performances from Roman soldiers.
Legoland Windsor Resort — Windsor, United Kingdom
The Legoland Windsor Resort is a theme park in Windsor, United Kingdom, designed for families with children aged 3 to 12. The park features a variety of attractions based on Lego building blocks. There is also a themed amusement park area called Miniland, which is made up of smaller-scale replicas of famous European landmarks.
Movie Park Germany — Bottrop, Germany
Movie Park Germany is a great place to go if you love films, consisting of 7 areas based on movies and TV series. There are various shows and attractions centered around the big movie business, which will keep you entertained for hours on end!
1. What is special about Parc Asterix
A. It offers roller coaster rides.
B. It features comic-themed scenic spots.
C. It owns replicas of famous landmarks.
D. It entertains tourists through films and shows.
2. What is Legoland Windsor Resort designed for
A. Film goers. B. Fans of Asterix.
C. Families with kids. D. Adventurous travelers.
3. Which theme park is related to films and TV shows
A. Gardaland. B. Parc Asterix.
C. Movie Park Germany. D. Legoland Windsor Resort.
B
Marion Sheppard felt sorry for herself when she began to lose her sight in her 40s. Since childhood, Sheppard have always been a keen dancer. But now she rarely left her Bronx apartment. She was afraid that, unable to see a stranger approaching, she would be knocked down on the streets. In fact, mostly, she worried about the way she would appear to the world. She wondered constantly, “What if people look at me differently, and treat me differently ”
After several months of sadness and fear, Sheppard decided to keep moving. Hard as it was, Sheppard forced herself to go out. She attended a social event for people with visual problems, and was shocked to find that not only did no one dance, but they barely moved. “Oh, no!” she told herself. “That is not the way I want to live!” She bought a walking stick and named it Tyreek, which she had always planned on giving a son if she had one. Sheppard continued to work at her library job at The New York Times until her vision worsened in her 50s.
And she kept moving and dancing. Sheppard was 61 when she attended a summer camp for the blind in 2008, where she taught her first line dancing class.
After that, she asked a Manhattan community center run by Visions if she could teach her class there, but she was told no and that it would be too dangerous for the students. Still, she persisted, and soon convinced the administrators to let her teach line dancing on a volunteer basis. Her classes proved to be so popular that in 2012, Visions hired her as one of their staff. Sheppard was excited.
She was teaching over a dozen students dance steps. But Sheppard instructed her beloved students on far more than that. With constant encouragement, she also managed to make dignity (尊严) and independence take root in them. In her classes, the students could truly be themselves.
4. What was Sheppard most anxious about when she began to lose her sight
A. The loss of her library job.
B. The inability to dance anymore.
C. The risk of being knocked down on streets.
D. The image she would project to others.
5. How did Sheppard feel about her walking stick
A. She was often greatly embarrassed by it.
B. She regarded it as a temporary necessity.
C. She treated it simply as an ordinary tool.
D. She considered it special and meaningful.
6. What does the underlined word “persisted” in paragraph 3 probably mean
A. Gave up easily. B. Waited patiently.
C. Continued trying. D. Felt disappointed
7. Which of the following can best describe Sheppard
A. Shy and quiet. B. Determined and brave.
C. Humorous and patient. D. Intelligent and creative.
C
What can the world’s most walkable cities teach other places Researchers at the Sony Computer Science Laboratories in Rome have shown how more urban areas could become “15-minute cities”, where residents can access key facilities like schools, hospitals, and shops within a 15-minute walk. Their study, published in Nature Cities, analyzed the walkability of over 10,000 cities globally.
European cities dominated (主导) the rankings, with 45 of the top 50 spots. Milan topped the list, with an average walking time of just seven minutes to key facilities and 98% of its population living in 15-minute neighborhoods. Asian cities like Kyoto and Taipei also performed well. In contrast, North American cities, often designed around cars, were largely absent from the top 50. Vancouver ranked highest in the region at 53rd, while Manhattan was highly walkable but dragged down by other New York City districts.
The researchers also explored how urban planning could improve walkability. For example, Paris, which already has an average walking time of eight minutes to key facilities, could reduce this further with strategic relocation of services. By moving some facilities, Paris could cut the average walking time by two minutes and increase the population living in 15-minute neighborhoods to 97%. Similar analyses were conducted for 53 cities, showing that 34 were already 15-minute cities, while another ten had the potential to become so. In Rio de Janeiro, moving services inland could reduce average walking time from 25 to 15 minutes. Melbourne could increase its 15-minute neighborhood population from 50% to 90% with better facility distribution (分布).
However, cities like Atlanta, which have a lot of suburban (郊区) areas, may never be as easy to walk around in as crowded cities like Berlin unless they add many more facilities. Yet, even small improvements can have benefits. Research shows that more walkable cities have healthier residents, cleaner air, and stronger local businesses.
8. Which city has the shortest average walking time to key facilities according to the text
A. Milan. B. Paris. C. Kyoto. D. Vancouver.
9. What can we infer about North American cities
A. They have less green space.
B. They have fewer key facilities.
C. They are famous for urban planning.
D. They are mainly structured for cars.
10. What is the main purpose of the text
A. To explain the concept of “15-minute cities”.
B To suggest ways to improve urban walkability.
C. To compare the city sizes around the world.
D. To criticize the urban planning of North American cities.
11. What is the author’s attitude towards making cities more walkable
A. Doubtful. B. Negative. C. Positive. D. Worried.
D
Unlike traditional stiff (僵硬的) robots, soft robotics are built from flexible materials that copy the natural movements of living creatures. This design enables them to move through narrow spaces like disaster ruins or complex paths inside the human body. However, adding sensors has been difficult. “The key was making them smart, explains researcher Larry Cheng from Penn State University.” We needed robots that sense and act independently.
The solution lies in electronic parts designed to bend. Traditional hard electronics limit robot movement, but Cheng’s team used bendable electronics spread across the body. They added magnetic (磁) materials inside. By adjusting magnetic fields, robots crawl, roll and twist wirelessly and battery-free.
Developing this technology faced two main problems. First, even bendable electronics are much stiffer than the robot’s soft material. “We arranged electronics like puzzle pieces to fit flexibly,” Cheng explained. Second, magnetic fields used for control can disturb electronic signals. The team redesigned circuits (电路) to prevent this interference, keeping sensors accurate near strong magnets.
These improvements allow robots to work with less human guidance. In rescue missions they could find trapped people by detecting body heat. Medical versions might sense chemical changes to deliver drugs exactly where needed. Researchers are developing a pill-sized robot that patients could take in. “It could examine the digestive system, collect samples, or treat diseases without surgery,” said Korean scientist Suk-Won Hwang, Cheng’s partner.
Future plans include creating tiny robots for blood pipe treatments. “When put into blood pipes, they could repair heart problems or target cancer cells, Cheng described. Though unnamed yet, these robots might get public-suggested names.” That’s a fun idea, “Cheng laughed when asked about naming possibilities.
12. What makes soft robotics different from traditional robots
A. Their ability to work without human guidance.
B. Their capability to move through narrow spaces.
C. Their addition of sensors for independent action.
D. Their use of flexible materials to copy natural movements.
13. Why did Cheng’s team redesign the circuits
A. To make the robot look attractive.
B. To reduce the robot’s weight.
C. To stop magnetic fields ruining signals.
D. To increase magnetic attraction.
14. How did Cheng feel about letting the public name the robots
A. Lightly amused. B. Deeply moved.
C. Slightly doubtful. D. Completely uninterested.
15. Which of the following can be the best title for the text
A. Soft Robotics: The Magic of New Materials
B. Soft Robotics: From Challenges to Bright Future
C. Soft Robotics: A New Type of Traditional Robots
D. Soft Robotics: Applications in Rescue and Medicine
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Learning new skills keeps your mind sharp, your confidence high, and your career on an upward trajectory (轨道). Here are five simple steps to take if you want to learn a new skill.
● Recognize the skill you want to learn.
Clearly defining your learning objectives and motivations is the first step. ____16____ This keeps you focused. Determine what you want to learn — web development, machine learning, or digital marketing. So, identification works.
● Break it down into manageable parts.
Divide complex skills into smaller, easier-to-manage parts. ____17____ For example, when learning web development, begin by learning the programming fundamentals and then work on writing codes (编码). This will make learning less scary and easier to handle.
● ____18____
Search for the most appropriate resources for the skill you’re learning, including books, videos, and online courses. Putting together high-quality resources guarantees you learn the correct methods and saves you time.
● Track your progress.
Maintain a journal or track your progress to help you stay inspired and spot patterns in learning patterns. ____19____ This habit lets you identify areas for improvement and those where you may need to concentrate more.
● Review and adjust (调整) your strategy.
After some time of practice, consider what has and has not worked. Adjust your strategy to increase your learning effectiveness. ____20____
A. Research and gather resources.
B. Stay curious and open to change.
C. Is it for fun, a new job, or personal development
D. This is because complicated skills can be challenging.
E. Can you learn more quickly if you have someone to encourage you
F. Use an app to record milestones or write down your daily achievements.
G. To continue learning at your own pace, be adaptable and make changes as needed.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Our science teacher, Mr. Clark, announced a team experiment competition. I was paired with Emma, the quietest girl in class. To be honest, I felt slightly disappointed because she ____21____ spoke in discussions.
We chose a chemistry project about plant growth. Emma suggested using ____22____ music as a variable (变量), which surprised me. “Plants can’t hear!” I ____23____, but she showed me research articles. I ____24____ my doubts and agreed to try. The first week was upsetting for me. While I rushed through measurements, Emma carefully ____25____ every detail in her notebook. When our first seedlings ____26____, I wanted to quit, but she calmly said, “Mistakes are data too.”
One afternoon, I found Emma alone in the lab, ____27____ with different light settings. Seeing her patience, I finally understood her ____28____. From then on, we ____29____ our skills — my speed and her exactness. On ____30____ day, our organized graphs (图表) showed something amazing: Plants exposed to classical music grew 15% taller! As classmates crowded around, Emma confidently ____31____ the science. I added our ____32____ story, presenting a whole picture of our success.
We won second prize, but the real ____33____ was the lessons I learned: Never judge someone by their ____34____ the best discoveries happen when ____35____ minds work together.
21. A. anxiously B. rarely C. loudly D. proudly
22. A. classical B. loud C. modern D. soft
23. A. complained B. whispered C. replied D. argued
24. A. dealt with B. found out C. came across D. put aside
25. A. listed B. designed C. recorded D. reviewed
26. A. died B. grew C. disappeared D. survived
27. A. competing B. struggling C. fixing D. experimenting
28. A. humor B. strength C. emotion D. reason
29. A. compared B. hid C. combined D. tested
30. A. presentation B. graduation C. discussion D. celebration
31. A. explained B. applied C. wrote D. documented
32. A. childhood B. legend C. failure D. adventure
33. A. challenge B. reward C. competition D. virtue
34. A. height B. grade C. speed D. quietness
35. A. familiar B. private C. different D. young
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The High Seas Treaty (条约) received its 60th acceptance by Morocco on Friday, meaning that it will now take effect from January. The deal, ____36____ has been two decades in the making, will pave the way for international waters to be placed into marine (海洋的) ____37____ (protect) areas. Environmentalists praised the milestone ____38____ a great achievement and evidence that countries can work together for environmental protection.
“Covering more than two-thirds of the ocean, the agreement sets ____39____ (rule) to protect and sustainably use marine biodiversity,” United Nations Secretary-General Antonio Guterres said. Decades of overfishing, ____40____ (pollute) from shipping and warming oceans from climate change have damaged life below the surface.
In the latest assessment (评估) of marine species, nearly 10% ____41____ (find) to be at risk of extinction. Three years ago, countries agreed that 30% of the world’s national and international waters — the high seas — must be protected by 2030 ____42____ (help) threatened marine life recover. But protecting the high seas is challenging. No one country controls these waters ____43____ all nations have a right to ship and fish there. So, in 2023, countries signed the High Seas Treaty, ____44____ (promise) to put 30% of these waters into protection. But it was only able to enter into force if more than 60 nations accepted it — meaning they agreed to be _____45_____ (legal) bound by it.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是李华，本周日学校摄影协会将举办一场名为“Capture Autumn, Share Nature”的户外摄影采风活动。请给你校国际部的留学生Tom写一封邮件，邀请他参加此次活动，内容包括：
1. 发出邀请；
2. 活动简介(时间、地点、内容)；
3. 期待回复。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
参考词汇：Photography Association 摄影协会
Dear Tom,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Tom walked into his high-school dormitory, his heart pounding with a mix of excitement and nervousness. The room was small yet well-lit, furnished with two single beds, two study tables, and a small wardrobe (衣橱). His roommate was already settled in, unpacking a suitcase filled with sports devices and a pile of comic books. “Hey, there! I’m Jack,” he greeted with an enthusiastic smile, putting out his hand. Tom returned the smile, a bit hesitantly, “I’m Tom.”
Initially, things seemed to be off to a good start. They talked about their middle schools, their favorite music, and their goals for college. But before long, Tom began to notice some differences. Jack was a night owl, often staying up until midnight. Tom, on the other hand, was an early-to-bed person and would get annoyed by the late-night noise. Jack also had a tendency to leave his dirty socks scattered (乱扔) around the room, with some on Tom’s bed, some under the table, and some near the door.
One afternoon, Tom returned to the dorm to find his brand-new headphones gone. He searched high and low but couldn’t locate them. “Have you seen my headphones, Jack ” he asked, trying to keep his tone even. “Oh, right,” Jack replied, “I borrowed them to listen to some music during my break. Is that cool ” Tom felt his face turn red with anger. “No, it’s not cool,” he shouted. “You should ask me before using my things.” Jack looked embarrassed. “I’m sorry. I didn’t mean to make you mad,” he said apologetically.
After that incident, the atmosphere in the room turned icy. They hardly spoke to each other, and when they did, their words were filled with coldness. Jack felt lonely and missed his old classmates. One night, as Tom lay in bed, he heard Jack crying softly. “Should I be more understanding and have a heart-to-heart talk with him ” Tom hesitated for a while and thought to himself.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The next day, Tom decided to apologize and make it up.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
From that day forward, the relationship between Tom and Jack took a positive turn.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
