宁德市2020—2021学年度第二学期期末高一质量检测
英
语
试
题
（考试时间：120分钟
满分150分）
温馨提示：请将全部答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分
听力（共两节，共30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.
What
does
the
man
like
collecting?
A.
Stamps.
B.
CDs.
C.
Rocks.
2.
How
did
the
woman
get
home
yesterday?
A.
By
bike.
B.
By
subway.
C.
By
bus.
3.
What
will
the
woman
drink?
A.
Tea.
B.
Coffee.
C.
Water.
4.
What
is
the
probable
relationship
between
the
speakers?
A.
Host
and
guest.
B.
Doctor
and
patient.
C.
Waiter
and
customer.
5.
What
is
the
man
doing?
A.
Buying
a
camera.
B.
Taking
a
picture.
C.
Trying
on
a
hat.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，共22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7小题。
6.
What
is
the
weather
like
today?
A.
Sunny.
B.
Windy.
C.
Rainy.
7.
What
will
the
woman
do
first?
A.
Go
biking.
B.
Repair
the
bike.
C.
Change
her
clothes.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9小题。
8.
Why
is
the
man
going
to
Mexico?
A.
To
study.
B.
To
travel.
C.
To
work.
9.
How
long
will
the
woman
stay
in
Pairs?
A.
One
week.
B.
Two
weeks.
C.
Three
weeks.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.
What
does
the
woman
ask
the
man
about?
A.
His
family.
B.
His
meals.
C.
His
work.
11.
What
does
the
man
eat
for
lunch
now?
A.
Rice
and
vegetables.
B.
Fried
chicken
and
chips.
C.
Pizza.
12.
What
do
we
know
about
the
man’s
wife?
A.
She
seldom
cooks.
B.
She
works
in
a
restaurant.
C.
She
cooks
very
well.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.
What
is
the
man
doing?
A.
Watching
TV.
B.
Surfing
the
Internet.
C.
Chatting
with
his
mother.
14.
Where
will
the
concert
be
held?
A.
In
a
park.
B.
In
a
school.
C.
In
a
building.
15.
Why
is
the
concert
held?
A.
To
collect
money.
B.
To
advertise
the
city.
C.
To
celebrate
the
opening
of
a
mall.
16.
When
will
the
concert
end?
A.
At
2:30
pm.
B.
At
3:00
pm.
C.
At
5:30
pm.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.
What
is
the
first
book
about?
A.
A
family
get-together.
B.
A
holiday
abroad.
C.
A
loving
father.
18.
How
do
readers
probably
find
Gaia
Cornwall’s
book?
A.
Sad.
B.
Difficult.
C.
Encouraging.
19.
Which
book
costs
the
most?
A.
The
Relatives
Came.
B.
Jabari
Jumps.
C.
Three
Little
Words.
20.
What
is
the
speaker
doing?
A.
Telling
the
stories.
B.
Advertising
the
books.
C.
Introducing
the
writers.
第二部分
阅读理解
（共两节，共40分）
第一节（共11小题；每小题2.5分，共27.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
If
you
are
looking
to
keep
your
kids
busy—without
spending
any
money—then
you
should
consider
signing
them
up
for
an
in-store
class
near
you.
The
classes
are
free
and
held
at
locations
all
across
the
country.
Smaller
local
businesses
likely
offer
some
too,
so
be
free
to
check
local
listings.
Home
Depot
Home
Depot’s
Kids
Workshops?happen
every
Saturday.
Past
projects
have
included
model
race
cars,
mail
organizers,
picture
frames,
and
planters.
Classes
are
free
and
also
include
an
orange
apron
and
an
achievement
pin.
These
sometimes
fill
up
quickly,
so
be
sure
to
sign
up
as
soon
as
you
can.
Lego
Stores
Each
month,?Lego
Stores?have
free
events
for
kids
between
the
ages
of
6
to
14
where
they
can
come
in
and
build
a
mini
model,
which
they
get
to
take
home
for
free.
There
is
a
limit
of
four
children
per
household
per
event.
Lakeshore
Learning
Center
The?Lakeshore
Learning
Center?offers
free
arts
and
crafts
classes
for
children?ages
3?and
older.
These
classes
happen
on
the
first
Saturday
of
every
month,
and
a
parent
or
guardian
must
be
present
to
look
after
the
children
and
help
as
needed.
No
reservations
are
required.
Williams-Sonoma
William-Sonoma?offers
a
range
of
cooking
classes
that
take
place
a
few
times
a
month,
and
while
a
lot
of
them
are
aimed
at
adults,
they
also
have
classes
for
kids
between
the
ages
of
8
to
13.
Most
of
the
classes
are
free,
though
some
do
have
a
fee.
And
those
fees
are
donated
to
a
nonprofit.
21.
Which
offers
in-store
classes
every
week?
A.
Home
Depot.
B.
Lego
Stores.
C.
Lakeshore
Learning
Center.
D.
Williams-Sonoma.
22.
What
is
special
about
Williams-Sonoma?
A.
It
is
aimed
at
adults.
B.
It
charges
for
some
classes.
C.
It
offers
a
range
of
art
classes.
D.
It
requires
a
parent
to
be
present.
23.
What
is
the
purpose
of
this
text?
A.
To
promote
some
local
businesses.
B.
To
attract
more
projects.
To
compare
different
stores.
D.
To
introduce
some
free
classes.
B
Dwayne
Johnson
was
born
Dwayne
Douglas
Johnson
on
May
2,
1972,
in
Hayward,
California,
United
States.
His
father,
Rocky
Johnson,
was
a
professional
wrestler
while
his
mother,
Ata
Maivia,
was
the
daughter
of
a
wrestler.
His
father
is
of
Black
Nova
Scotian
origin,
while
his
mother
is
of
Samoan
heritage,
which
explains
his
exotic
(异国的)
looks.
Dwayne
Johnson,
previously
employed
as
a
professional
wrestler,
is
an
actor
known
for
his
appearance
in
the
fantasy
adventure
film,
‘The
Mummy
Returns’.
A
highly
successful
professional
wrestler
before
making
his
first
attempt
into
films,
Johnson
is
also
famous
for
his
ring
name,
‘The
Rock’.
Born
into
a
family
of
wrestlers,
it
comes
as
no
surprise
that
he
too
made
a
name
for
himself
in
the
sport.
Athletic
and
fond
of
sports
from
a
young
age,
he
used
to
join
in
many
sporting
activities
as
a
school
student.
He
played
football
for
his
high
school
and
was
also
a
member
of
the
school’s
track
and
field
and
wrestling
teams.
He
was
a
promising
footballer
and
received
a
full
scholarship
from
the
University
of
Miami
to
play
defensive
tackle
(后卫).
He
was
hopeful
of
making
it
big
as
a
professional
footballer
when
an
injury
put
a
full-stop
to
his
football
ambitions.
Though
disappointed,
he
did
not
let
this
incident
demotivate
him
and
instead
decided
to
become
a
wrestler.
His
father,
a
professional
wrestler
himself,
began
training
the
young
man.
Eventually
Johnson
made
his
WWF
debut
(首秀)
and
established
himself
as
a
successful
wrestler.
Due
to
his
popularity
coupled
with
his
attractively
strong
looks
he
started
receiving
offers
from
Hollywood
studios
and
he
began
his
acting
career
with
the
movie,
‘The
Mummy
Returns’.
24.
What
made
Dwayne
Johnson
famous?
A.
His
appearance
and
ring
name.
B.
His
family
background.
C.
His
professional
performance.
D.
His
blood
relationship.
25.
What
do
we
know
about
Dwayne
Johnson’s
father?
A.
He
is
a
famous
film
actor.
B.
He
often
joined
in
many
sporting
activities.
C.
He
was
a
football
member
on
the
school
team.
D.
He
actually
coached
Dwayne
Johnson.
26.
Which
can
best
explain
the
underlined
word
“demotivate”
in
paragraph
2?
A.
Inspire.
B.
Satisfy.
C.
Anger.
D.
Upset.
27.
What
can
be
a
suitable
title
for
the
text?
A.
Johnson’s
Film
B.
Johnson’s
Acting
Career
C.
A
Born
Actor
D.
A
Wrestler-Turned
Actor
C
It
might
sound
unbelievable,
but
mind
control
television
could
soon
become
a
reality.
This
technology
could
one
day
replace
the
remote
control.
When
testing
the
prototype(样机),
the
users
were
able
to
operate
a
headset
that
allowed
them
to
operate
it
and
choose
what
they
wanted
to
watch
by
concentrating.
The
device
(装置)
can
know
what
you
want
to
watch
by
reading
the
changes
in
brain
activity.
Cyrus
Saihan,
head
of
Business
Development
at
BBC
Digital,
said
the
technology
was
still
at
an
experimental
stage.
Writing
in
a
BBC
blog,
he
said
an
experiment
with
ten
members
found
they
could
all
use
the
headset
to
start
watching
a
program.
He
continued,
“You
can
imagine
a
world
where
instead
of
having
to
get
up
from
your
sofa
or
reach
for
your
remote
control,
you
just
think
‘put
BBC
1
on’
when
you
want
to
watch
TV.
Imagine
sitting
in
your
car
and
thinking
‘I
want
to
listen
to
Radio
4’
and
hearing
the
radio
station
come
on.
Perhaps
you
would
be
able
to
just
think
‘give
me
the
latest
news’,
and
then
get
served
with
a
set
of
news.”
But
Mr.
Saihan
added,
“It’s
important
to
know
that
it’s
very
early
days,
and
while
the
devices
are
still
improving,
what
they
can
do
is
still
quite
basic.
Hopefully,
it
gives
an
idea
of
how
audiences
of
the
future
might
be
able
to
control
devices
such
as
TVs
just
using
their
brain.”
It
is
hoped
that
the
system
could
be
used
to
help
those
with
disabilities
in
the
future.
What
do
we
know
about
mind
control
television
from
the
text?
A.
It
is
still
at
the
test
stage.
B.
It
is
just
in
people’s
mind.
C.
It
has
become
a
reality
already.
D.
It
has
been
well
received
by
customers.
29.
What
was
a
headset
intended
to
do
in
the
test?
A.
To
read
the
users’
minds.
B.
To
change
the
channels
by
itself.
C.
To
cause
changes
in
people’s
brains.
D.
To
remind
the
users
of
the
programs.
30.
What
does
Cyrus
Saihan
mainly
talk
about
in
Paragraph
3?
A.
The
users
of
the
new
technology.
B.
The
market
for
the
new
technology.
C.
The
new
technology
used
in
the
cars.
D.
The
convenience
of
the
new
technology.
31.
What
can
we
infer
from
the
last
paragraph?
A.
Mr.
Saihan
shows
less
interest
in
the
technology.
B.
The
technology
can
only
be
applied
in
TVs.
C.
The
disabled
may
benefit
from
the
technology
in
the
future.
D.
The
technology
will
improve
the
development
of
brains.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，共12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两项为多余选项。
Should
You
Hide
Vegetables
in
Your
Child’s
Food?
Some
kids
are
probably
born
naturally
loving
vegetables—but
most
kids
don’t
exactly
like
vegetables.
And
for
many
parents,
getting
kids
to
eat
vegetables
can
be
a
struggle.
There
may
be
a
place
for
hidden
vegetables,?but
in
general,
it’s
best
to
help
kids
learn
to
enjoy
vegetables.
32
First,
remember
that
it
can
take
time.
33
Some
kids
require
eight
to
ten
experiences
with
a
vegetable
before
deciding
it
deserves
a
spot
on
their
plate.
As
you?offer
vegetables
many
times,
try
preparing
them
in
different
ways,
such
as
steamed,
or
roasted,
and
with
different
flavor
additions.
Offering
choice
also
invites
your
child
to
be
active
in
their
own
food
decision-making.
34
When
mealtime
comes,
ask
your
kid:
“Would
you
like
asparagus
or
broccoli?”
or
“On
your
vegetables,
would
you
like
Ranch
or
hummus?”
35
“Cooking
is
my
favorite
way
to
help
kids
develop
a
love
of
various
types
of
food,”
says
Lvova.
“By
taking
the
action
into
the
kitchen,
kids
can
feel
more
important
in
the
cooking
process.
This
leads
to
confidence,
and
that
confidence
often
leads
to
adventure—like
taking
a
bite
of
something
new,
or
even
just
smelling
it.”
If?gardening?is
an
option,
36
As
children
watch
plants
grow,
they
may
take
pride
in
the
role
they
played
in
the
process
and
want
to
taste
the
vegetables
and
fruits
of
their
labor.
Here’s
why.
This
feeds
kids’
desires
for
independence.
this
can
also
lead
to
interest
in
healthy
produce.
So
how
do
you?make
your
kid
a
vegetable
lover?
Similarly,
getting
kids
into
the
kitchen
can
harvest
other
benefits.
growing
kids
require
the
vitamins
and
minerals
that
vegetables
provide.
Research?shows
that
repeated
experiences
increase
food
acceptance,
especially
in
kids.
第三部分
语言知识运用
（共三节，共45分）
第一节
完形填空
(共15小题；每小题1分，共15分)
阅读下面短文，从A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My
interest
in
wildlife
and
rainforests
began
at
an
early
age,
when
my
parents
introduced
me
to
nature
books
and
magazines.
I
was
37
by
the
pictures
of
strange
animals
living
in
distant
lands.
As
I
got
older,
my
mother
and
father
38
my
learning
by
taking
me
on
trips
to
other
countries.
Therefore,
I
could
see
wildlife
firsthand.
I
grew
to
39
appreciate
places
of
natural
beauty
and
40
the
environment
around
me.
Over
the
years
I
have
seen
many
beautiful
41
and
met
many
wonderful
people.
I
have
swum
with
sea
lions
in
the
Galapagos
Islands,
42
lemurs
(狐猴)
sing
and
dance
in
Madagascar,
and
had
many
other
amazing
43
.
I
have
also
become
increasingly
aware
of
the
changes
44
by
human
activities.
Some
of
the
special
places
I
so
45
are
no
longer
around
today.
My
inspiration
to
protect
rainforests
comes
from
a
particular
46
in
the
rainforest
of
Borneo
when
an
area
of
47
was
destroyed
by
loggers
(伐木工).
Today
I
48
a
great
deal
of
time
reading,
writing,
traveling
to
rainforests,
and
talking
with
scientists
doing
research
on
them.
My
49
is
to
raise
awareness,
interest,
and
appreciation
of
wild-lands
like
rainforests.
It
is
not
too
50
to
save
these
special
places
and
I
hope
that
my
work
will
someday
inspire
people
to
make
a
51
in
the
world
around
them.
37.
A.
frightened
B.
comforted
C.
fascinated
D.
disturbed
38.
A.
chose
B.
encouraged
C.
decided
D.
explored
39.
A.
possibly
B.
only
C.
mostly
D.
greatly
40.
A.
respect
B.
destroy
C.
balance
D.
govern
41.
A.
figures
B.
gifts
C.
places
D.
tools
42.
A.
made
B.
watched
C.
heard
D.
helped
43.
A.
adventures
B.
dreams
C.
experiments
D.
questions
44.
A.
prevented
B.
needed
C.
shown
D.
caused
45.
A.
disliked
B.
forgot
C.
enjoyed
D.
climbed
46.
A.
experience
B.
solution
C.
challenge
D.
field
47.
A.
mountain
B.
rainforest
C.
desert
D.
plain
48.
A.
waste
B.
spend
C.
avoid
D.
miss
49.
A.
method
B.
major
C.
strength
D.
goal
50.
A.
fresh
B.
old
C.
late
D.
serious
51.
A.
promise
B.
decision
C.
plan
D.
difference
第二节
完成句子（共15个空；每空1分，共15分）
52.
________
________
(万一)
you
should
need
any
help,
here’s
my
phone
number.
53.
Two
rich
brothers
________
________
________(打赌)
on
the
result
of
the
game
last
night.
54.
Despite
the
huge
risks
though,
people
will
always
continue
to
explore
this
final
frontier
______
______
_______
(为了)
learn
its
secret.
55.
Lin
Qiaozhi
did
not
_______
________
(从……退休)
her
job
until
the
day
she
died.
56.
The
group
planned
to
_______
________
_________
(做贡献)
protecting
cultural
heritage.
57.
His
efforts
________
__________
(得到回报）and
he
was
admitted
to
a
key
university.
第三节
语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
There
are
many
kinds
of
festivals
and??
58
??(celebration)
throughout
the
world,
59
?
are
held
for
different
reasons.
Nowadays
festivals
have
many
origins,
some?
60
?(religion),
some
seasonal,
and
some
for
special
people
or
events.
Different
countries
have
different
festivals.
In
Japan,
people
clean
graves
and
light
incense（香）in
memory?
61
?their
ancestors
on
Obon.
In
the
west
on
Halloween,
children
62
?(usual)
dress
up
and
go
to
their
neighbor’s
homes?
63
??(ask)
for
sweets.
If
the
neighbors
don’t
give
them
any
sweets,
the
children
might
play
64
??trick
on
them.?
65
??most
children
in
China
look
forward
to
in
the
Spring
Festival
is
that
they
can
get
some
lucky
money.
Harvest
and
Thanksgiving
festivals
are
happy
events
because
the
food?
66
??(gather)
for
the
winter
and
a
season
of
agricultural?work
is
over.
Whatever
festival
it
is,
the
spirit
of
?
67
??(share)
joy,
gratitude,
love,
or
peace
is
common.
第四部分
写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节
应用文写作（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你的美国朋友Tom来信询问“天问一号”探测器（Tianwen-1
probe）名称的由来。请你给他回信，内容包括：
1．“天问一号”成功登陆火星；
2．名称由来：
屈原的诗歌《天问》；
3．意义：追求真理，探索太空，……。
注意：1．词数80左右；
2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear
Tom,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li
Hua
第二节
读后续写
(满分20分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
I?grew
up
in
a
large
family
of
twelve
siblings
(兄弟姐妹).
We
weren’t
poor
by
most
standards,
but
things
were
difficult
for
us.
My
parents
never
shared
their
financial
worries,
choosing
instead
to
let
us
have
a
carefree
childhood.
But
I
knew
that
there
were
times
they
went
without
and
that
certain
things
my
friends
had
wouldn’t
be
easy
for
me
to
get.
Back
in
those
days,
hot
lunch
was
a
luxury
(奢侈)
for
the
wealthier
kids,
and
hot-lunch
buyers
sat
separately
from
the
students
who
brought
cold
lunch.
My
siblings
and
I
brought
lunch
from
home
every
day:
homemade
bread,
three
cookies,
and
a
small
apple.
We
would
look
on
longingly
as
the
rich
kids
proudly
sat
down
with
their
steaming
plates
of
fried
chicken
or
fish
sticks
and
cold
milk,
sweet
peaches
and
delicious
cake.
I
never
said
anything,
but
my
first
grade
teacher,
Mrs.
Caruso,
must
have
seen
the
eagerness
in
my
eyes.
One
day
she
quietly
pressed
a
note
into
my
hand
and
whispered,
“Give
this
to
your
mother.”
I
arrived
home
and
gave
my
mom
the
note.
She
read
it
and
smiled.
“Well,
Mrs.
Caruso
said
because
of
all
your
hard
work,
she
wants
to
buy
your
lunch
tomorrow.”
The
next
day,
I
proudly
carried
my
tray
of
chicken
across
the
cafeteria
and
took
my
seat
at
the
hot-lunch
table.
Honestly,
the
food
wasn’t
as
great
as
I
had
imagined,
but
I
was
pleased
to
be
there
and
felt
honored
to
be
a
part
of
the
group.
One
rainy
day,
Mrs.
Caruso
asked
me
to
stay
after
school.
My
heart
instantly
sank.?Surely,
I
must
be
in
trouble!
Did
she
know
I
hadn’t
finished
my
math
homework?
Did
she
see
me
making
fun
of
Billy
on
the
playground?
注意：
1.
续写词数应为150左右；
2.
请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph
1：
After
the
other
students
had
left,
Mrs.
Caruso
said
she
was
going
to
drive
me
home.
_____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph
2：
Thinking
of
the
gifts
given
by
her
on
that
raining
day,
I
don’t
know
why
Mrs.
Caruso
took
so
much
care
of
me.
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
高一英语试题
第
10
页
共
10
页宁德市2020–2021学年度第二学期期末高一质量检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分听力（共20小题,
每小题1.5分,
满分30分）
1-5
CCCBB
6-10
ABCBB
11-15
ACBAC
16-20
CACCB
第二部分阅读理解
第一节（共11小题；每小题2.5分,
满分27.5分）
21-23
ABD
24-27
ADDD
28-31
AADC
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
32-36
DGBEC
第三部分英语知识运用
第一节完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分,
满分15分）
37-41
CBDAC
42-46
BADCA
47-51
BBDCD
第二节完成句子（共15个空；每空1分,
满分15分；与参考答案不符的不得分，大小写错误不得分,
没有将完整的单词写在答题卡上不得分。）
In
case
53.
made
a
bet
54.
in
order
to/so
as
to
55.
retire
from
56.
make
contributions
to
57.
paid
off
第三节语法填空（共10个空；每空1.5分,
满分15分；与参考答案不符的不得分。）
58.
celebrations
59.
which
60.
religious
61.
of
62.
usually
63.
to
ask
64.
a
65.
What
66.
is
gathered/has
been
gathered
67.
sharing
第四部分写作（共两节满分35分）
第一节、应用文写作
1.
本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2.
评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.
词数少于60从总分中减去2分，多写不扣分。
4.
评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.
拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
内容要点:
1．“天问一号”成功登陆火星；
2．名称由来:
屈原的诗歌《天问》；
3．意义：追求真理，探索太空……。
各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档
(13—15)分
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
根据文章需要应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力表达良好语用所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，完全达到了预期的写作目的。完全完成了试题规定的任务。
第四档
(10—12分)
完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试表达良好语用所致。
应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
(7—9分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
(4—6分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
1—3分
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；
写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
应用文写作评分细则
1、先按照5个档次的给分范围对号入座，依据要点、行文、词汇、语法、词数、书写等酌情确定分数。
2、书面表达共3个内容要点，每个内容要点4分，共12分，语言准确性（包括行文通顺、流畅、可读性强，语法结构，语句间的连接成分等）3分，合计15分。漏掉一个要点扣4分。
3、出现两三个小错误，根据文章需要使用了较高级词汇、较复杂结构，有效使用了语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑，可读性强，也可以评高分(13分),评卷教师要敢于评高分。
4、确定档次后，时态错误较多，在本档内扣2-3分，时态错误较少扣1分。
5、写出一个要点给4分。
6、要点齐全，错误相对较多，但不影响理解，可评（7—9分）。要点齐全，错误很多，但不影响理解，可评（4—6分）。
7、拼写错误、词汇错误只出现一个，不影响意思表达，不扣分。错2—3个扣1分，5个以上扣2分。
8、时态错误一个扣1分，多个时态错误扣分不超过3分。
9、要点认定：
考生须用比较完整的句子表达出要点。如只写出关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为表达出该要点。在表达要点的句子中，如果考生写出主谓结构及关键信息，但主谓结构有严重语言错误（如时态、语态，动词或只写出情态动词而无主语），酌情扣分（扣0.5或1分）。
10、在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定分值：1—2个错误，取该档次分值的高线；3—4个错误，取该档次分值的中线；5个错误，取该档次分值的低线；6个以上错误，可以降一档，取降档后该档分值的中高线。10个左右错误，取其降档后的低线。
Dear
Tom,
I’m
glad
you’re
interested
in
the
origin
of
the
name
of
Tianwen-1
probe,
which
has
successfully
landed
on
Mars.
Here
I’d
like
to
tell
you
something
about
it.
The
name
of
Tianwen
comes
from
the
long
poem
“Tianwen,”
meaning
Questions
to
Heaven,
written
by
Qu
Yuan,
one
of
the
greatest
poets
of
ancient
China.
It
also
shows
the
Chinese
nation’s
perseverance
in
pursuing
the
truth
and
spirits
of
exploring
space.That’s
why
the
probe
is
named
after
Tianwen.
Best
wishes.
Yours,
Li
Hua
第二节：读后续写(20分)
一、评分原则
1.
本题总分为20分,按5个档次给分。
2.
评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,
最后给分。
3.
词数少于120的,从总分中减去2分。
4.
评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)
与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)
内容的丰富性;
(3)
应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4)
上下文的连贯性。
5.
拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.
如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档
（17-20分）
1.
创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性,续写完整,与原文情境融洽度高；
2.
使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有个别小错,但完全不影响理解;
3.有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构清晰,意义连贯。
第四档
（13-16分）
1.
创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性,续写比较完整,与原文情境融洽度较高；
2.
使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,有个别错误,但不影响理解；
3.
比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。
第三档（9-12分）
1.
创造了基本完整的故事内容,但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强,与原文情境基本相关；
2.
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构,有部分语言错误和不恰当之处,个别部分影响理解；
3.
尚有语句衔接的意识,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
第二档（5-8分）
1.
内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题,续写不够完整,与原文有一定程度脱节；
2.
所用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多且比较低级,影响理解；
3.
未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义欠连贯。
第一档（1-4分）
1.
内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题,或有部分内容抄自原文,续写不完整,与原文情境基本脱节；
2.
所使用的词汇非常有限,语法结构单调,错误极多,严重影响理解；
3.
几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。
0
分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
补充细则
1.
关于词数：
(1)
两段词数分布相对均匀,否则从总分中减去1分；
(2)
若只写一段，总分不超过9分。
(3)
如情节过于离奇,不符合发展主线或核心价值观,则总分不超过9分；
2.
关于内容（以下仅供参考，只要续写合理，均可酌情给分！）：
(1)
文章发展主线：介绍了“我”的家境→我渴望hot-lunch→“Mrs.
Caruso”读懂了我的心思→老师的便条→老师的热午餐→满足了“我”的愿望→雨天，老师打算送“我”回家。
学生应把握文章发展主线，续写情节合理。
(2)
续写要点：
第一段：思路1：回家路上的描写（如我的心理活动）→老师叫我把东西给家人→开车离开；
思路2：回家路上的描写（如我的心理活动）→老师把东西送进我家→与家人交流。
第二段：思路1：描写“我”的心理活动→感恩老师无声的爱→表达怀念之情；
思路2：描写“我”的心理活动→感恩老师无声的爱→传递老师那种细腻无痕的善良和爱的行为。
(3)“续写要点”给分补充说明：
续写的两段之间情节连贯。学生在第一段中若无提及所送东西，第二段若无感谢老师的情节应酌情扣分；
要点齐全且逻辑合理，但语言不通顺，大量使用中式英语，则给分不高于11分；
若整段要点缺失则不及格（一般不高于10分）；
文中除主人公、老师、父母之外不应该再牵扯进更多的人物，若出现其他人物应酌情扣分；生搬硬套模板句（如刻意加入大段户外环境描写等）则酌情降档。
3.
如抄写本卷阅读或完形内容或大篇幅照搬读后续写前文则按0
分计。
4.
如书写较差将分数降低一个档次。
三、One
possible
version
Paragraph
1:
After
the
other
students
had
left,
Mrs.
Caruso
said
she
was
going
to
drive
me
home.It
was
raining,
and
she
knew
I
had
a
long
walk.
Sitting
quietly
in
her
car,
I
felt
that
I
got
butterflies
in
my
stomach.
Soon,
we
pulled
up
to
my
house
and
she
got
out,
laying
a
few
bags
on
the
porch.
“Tell
your
mom
I
had
a
few
extra
things
she
might
want,”
she
said.
Then
she
drove
away.
Inside
the
bags
were
clothes,
toys,
and
books.The
siblings,
eyes
dancing
with
joy
and
sweetness,
gathered
around
the
gifts.
Paragraph
2:
Thinking
of
the
gifts
given
by
her
on
that
raining
day,
I
don’t
know
why
Mrs.
Caruso
took
so
much
care
of
me.Maybe
she
knew
what
it
was
like
to
feel
just
a
little
less
than
everyone
else.
Somehow,
even
with
her
quiet
charity,
she
never
made
me
feel
ashamed.
She
just
made
me
feel
loved
and
important.
I’ve
never
lost
that
feeling
—
of
being
important
to
someone
and
being
protected
by
her.
After
all
these
years,
I’m
still
grateful
to
that
wonderful
teacher.
It
is
her
little,
nameless,
unremembered
acts
of
kindness
and
of
love
that
always
keep
me
moving
on.
1
