河北省邢台市第一重点中学2021-2022学年高一上学期第二次月考英语试卷（Word版含答案，无听力音频无文字材料）
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| 名称 | 河北省邢台市第一重点中学2021-2022学年高一上学期第二次月考英语试卷（Word版含答案，无听力音频无文字材料） |  | |
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| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2021-11-26 10:29:42 | ||
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河北省邢台市第一中学2021-2022学年高一上学期第二次月考英语试卷
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man plan to do tonight
A. Relax at home. B. Go to the movies. C. Buy a smartphone.
2. What is the woman going to attend
A. A school dance. B. A rock concert. C. A fancy dress party.
3. How will the woman go for her trip
A. By ship. B. By air. C. By train.
4. Where did the man get the news
A. From the headmaster. B. From his classmate. C. From the notice.
5. What’s the relationship between Linda and John
A. A couple. B. Neighbors. C. Mother and son.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What’s the date today
A. July 6th. B. July 7th. C. July 8th.
7. What did the man buy for the trip
A. A tent. B. Some food. C. Two tickets.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What is the conversation about
A. Environment pollution. B. Garbage sorting. C. Green lifestyles.
9. What change has the woman made
A. Starting cycling to work.
B. Stopping using plastic bags.
C. Shopping in the supermarket instead.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. What is the woman preparing for now
A. A birthday party. B. A trip. C. A wedding.
11. What did Pierre do yesterday
A. He bought a suit. B. He ordered a cake. C. He got a dress for Anna.
12. Where will the man go this afternoon
A. A bakery. B. A hotel. C. A flower shop.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. Who is the man probably
A. A host. B. A teacher. C. A writer.
14. How many countries celebrate Teachers’ Day on October 5
A. Around 50. B. About 80. C. Over 100.
15. What does Amanda say about Teachers’ Day in India
A. It is celebrated on October 14th.
B. It was started to recognize teachers’ hard work.
C. It marks the birthday of India’s second president.
16. Which countries observe Teachers’ Day as a national holiday
A. America and Mexico. B. Mexico and Singapore. C. Singapore and Australia.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. When did Amy’s first class start
A. At 8:00. B. At 8:20. C. At 8:40.
18. What made Amy embarrassed
A. Falling down in the classroom. B. Forgetting the time for the class. C. Getting into the wrong classroom.
19. How did Mary feel on the first day
A. Excited. B. Confident. C. Nervous.
20. What did Cathy do on the first day
A. She had a volleyball class.
B. She joined the school music band.
C. She got advice from the older students.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Longing for a trip that will show you all of Nashville’s most famous and historic sites The Redneck Comedy Tour is for you. This 1.5—2 hours’ tour is filled with plenty of humor. You will be guided through the heart of Nashville with the help of an experienced guide and host from the comfort of a climate-controlled bus. Guests are welcome to bring their own drinks aboard the bus. Some of the alarming city sights that you’ll see include the Ryman, Music Row, and the famous Country Music Hall of Fame.
The Redneck Comedy Bus Tour is an extremely amusing way to see what Nashville has to offer. You will definitely enjoy some terrific entertainment and music and drink as you travel along the Music City. For a journey with one of the unique tours in the country, be sure to get onto the big camo (迷彩) bus with bull horns and don’t miss your chance to take on this fun activity. Departures are located at Frugal MacDoogal and Nashville Palace.
The tour is suggested for kids at heart who are more than 14 years old, although old fellows of all ages are welcome to join in on the fun! Nashville bus tours are a funny way to explore the Music City and its great attractions and activities. Bring your pals, bring your family, and have a great time. Get your ticket today and enjoy a fun-filled to Nashville.
21. What does the Redneck Comedy Tour offer
A. Free drinks. B. A citywide tour.
C. Humorous stories. D. Music-related sightseeing.
22. What would you do to take the tour
A. Join certain groups. B. Book a ticket in advance.
C. Take the arranged bus ride. D. Bring enough food and drink.
23. Which of the following is the main attraction of the tour
A. Joy-filled. B. Age-limited. C. Money-saving. D. Activity-packed.
B
My kid’s new school is a construction area now. Even though the new building is very exciting, in the meantime there is no real playground for all the kids to use. They just run around the front of the school during the lunch break.
This gets me thinking about starting a book club for the upper elementary kids to meet in during lunch. This idea has the added benefit of giving my very shy daughter a chance to make some connections with other kids who like books as much as she does.
This is how I’m starting our book club. After getting permission from the principal and finding a space in the school to hold our meetings, I’ll send out a flier (传单) in our Friday school notes with my contact information. At our first meeting we’ll think of a name for our book club and decide together on the first two books we will read.
I absolutely love the idea of a mother daughter book club. The reason is that my friend, mother of a teenager daughter, told me she always tried to befriend all the mothers of her daughter’s friends. As a group they’re better able to know what the girls are doing.
Now that my daughter is in the fourth grade and we’re at a new school, I’m feeling especially drawn to start forming relationships with the mothers of her friends. A book club seems like a good way to do that with the added benefit of getting to open up communication between daughters and mothers, because in a few years a lot of our daughters won’t really want to talk to us.
24. What is the original reason why the author wants to start a book club
A. Her daughter is too shy.
B. There are no books for children to read.
C. There is no playground for children to play on.
D. The children fail to communicate with each other.
25. What is the added benefit of starting a book club for the author
A. Improving her daughter’s grades. B. Making her daughter love reading.
C. Keeping her daughter busy at home. D. Helping her daughter communicate with others.
26. Why does the author’s friend befriend all the mothers of her daughter’s friends
A. To learn from those mothers. B. To better keep watch on her daughter.
C. To choose proper friends for her daughter. D. To build a close relationship with her daughter.
27. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text
A. To share a valuable plan. B. To apply for joining a book club.
C. To give the school a piece of advice. D. To ask people to befriend by reading.
C
One night, Pilar was in a deep sleep when she was woken by her cat Inti. Inti was meowing wildly outside Pilar’s bedroom and throwing himself against the closed bedroom door. When Pilar opened her eyes, she saw that her bedrooms was filled with smoke. As she escaped her house with Inti in her arms, she saw that a fire was burning in her kitchen. Pilar could easily have lost her life, but Inti would not let that happen. Even though Inti could have escaped the house through a cat door, he wouldn’t leave Pilar.
The story of Charlotte Lee and her horse, Thunder is as amazing as this one. One summer night, the whole family was asleep with the windows open. Suddenly, there was a loud noise. Charlotte woke up from her sweet dream, and the noise continued. Then she heard a horse running fast towards the house. The next thing she saw was Thunder standing outside her window, neighing (撕叫) and shaking his head. She knew something was wrong. Charlotte quickly got everyone out of the house before the earthquake hit. Thunder has saved her life.
There are also stories of wild animals coming to the rescue of humans. One animal known to be a friend of humans is the dolphin. Once, Todd Endris was surfing with his friends when he was attacked (袭击) by a 13-foot shark. In the middle of the attack, a group of dolphins came to rescue him by forming a protective ring around Endris until be could get safely to shore. Without the help of the dolphins, there is little chance that Todd could have escaped.
No one is sure why animals have so often come to our rescue. However, it is clear that humans and animals enjoy a close relationship. It is important that we care for them as much as we can.
28. Why did Inti throw himself against the door
A. He felt bored by himself. B. He wanted to get out of the room.
C. He was trying to wake up his owner. D. He found no way out because of smoke.
29. What did Charlotte do before the earthquake
A. She closed the windows. B. She was sleeping deeply.
C. She ran to warn her neighbors. D. She got her horse out of the stable.
30. What does the underlined word “rescue” in paragraph 3 mean
A. Save B. Hold C. Close D. Frighten
31. What might Todd say to those dolphins
A. Leave me alone. B. A good companion. C. Never say goodbye. D. You are real heroes.
D
Badminton was known in ancient times; an early form of the sport was played in ancient Greece. In India, the game was called “Poona” during the 18th century, and British Army officers stationed there took a competitive Indian version back to England in the 1860s, where it was played at country houses as an upper class game. Isaac Spratt, a London toy dealer, published a booklet, “Badminton Battledore — a new game” in 1860, but unfortunately no copy has survived.
The new sport was launched in 1873 at the Badminton House, Gloucestershire, owned by the Duke of Beaufort. During that time, the game’s official name became “Badminton”.
Until 1887 the sport was played in England under the rules popular in India. The Bath Badminton Club standardized the rules and made the game applicable to English ideas. The basic regulations (规则) were draw up in 1887. In 1893, the Badminton Association of England published the first set of rules according to these regulations, similar to today’s rules. They also started the All England Open Badminton Championships, the first badminton competition in the world, in 1899.
Badminton World Federation (BWF) was founded in 1934 with Canada, Denmark, England, France, the Netherlands, Ireland, New Zealand, Scotland, and Wales as its founding members. India joined as a member in 1936. The BWF now governs international badminton and works in cooperation with regional governing bodies to improve the sport of badminton around the world.
While originated in England, international badminton has traditionally been controlled by a few Asian countries, plus Denmark from Europe. China, Indonesia, South Korea and Malaysia are among the nations that have consistently produced world-class players in the past few decades and influenced competitions on the international level.
32. What can we learn from the first paragraph
A. Issac Spratt was a writer fond of playing badminton.
B. Badminton was invented by people in ancient Greece.
C. Badminton was favored by wealthy people in England at first.
D. British Army officers often played badminton with the Indians.
33. Why were some basic regulations written out
A. To make preparations for today’s rules.
B. To suit the game to the players in England.
C. To help start the first badminton competition.
D. To differ from the rules that prevailed in India.
34. What does BWF mainly do
A. It works for regional governing bodies.
B. It supports the development of badminton.
C. It helps its founding members to win the games.
D. It persuades more countries to become its members.
35. What does the last paragraph tell us
A. British players are better at badminton.
B. Chinese players are the best in the competitions.
C. Asia has a stronger influence on international badminton.
D. All world championships have been won by Asian players.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The city of Lviv in Ukraine as I have seen in winter, greatly reminded me of several famous cities of Central and Eastern Europe that I have been to, such as Prague. 36 So you cannot make a single step without running into the next attraction.
The first thing that caught my eye was the architecture. I was astonished, though I am a beat-up traveler. The reason for my surprise is that Lviv’s houses breathe with history. While walking in the streets, you will repeatedly catch yourself imagining getting into the 17th century somehow. 37 I got one of my first bright impressions about Lviv almost immediately after my arrival, walking around the city center early in the morning, searching for a hostel to check into.
38 They are the number of themed cafes and restaurants, and extremely polite and friendly people. As for the cafes, they can be safely considered a hallmark of the city; looking back, I can tell you that you can hardly find two cafes in Lviv that would be at least remotely similar to each other.
People in Lviv are friendly. 39 The people I was talking to knew English quite well-knowledgeable enough to explain to me where I could go and what to see. Even individuals who didn’t speak a word in English still tried to give me a hand, using gestures and laughter, which was funny both for me and for them. 40 So maybe this was the reason for the people’s uplifted mood.
A. You can always count on help.
B. People living there like to chat with tourists.
C. Many locals smiled without any obvious reason.
D. It also has many strengths that make this city unique.
E. Many regular buildings are at least 2-3 centuries old.
F. I must recommend two other eye-catching places to you.
G. There were lots of tourists dropping in to take a picture.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。
I almost died when I feel into the boiling water at the age of three. The 41 left me with serious burns and scars (伤疤) all over my body. I spent many years in hospital having hundreds of 42 , which meant years and years of skin grafts (移植).
In my teens, I realized that I was 43 to my friends. They were all beautiful young ladies and I had these terrible scars under my clothes which made me feel ugly. 44 , swimming helped me a lot. I can’t 45 that I was burned in the water and yet it also helped to 46 me. In the water I was at my happiest.
I was a competitive swimmer for many years and then was 47 to be a swimming teacher for the local swim club. Even though 48 in a gym is difficult for me, swimming is much 49 as I can sweat in the pool.
This year I swam from Asia to Europe alongside the talented physical sports expert Professor Greg. I swam close to Greg asking for his 50 in a swim challenge and he agreed to help me out. When I climbed out, I broke down and wept and just couldn’t control my 51 . I was told afterwards that I 52 in one hour and 28 minutes. I couldn’t believe it as I kept stopping wanting to 53 but Greg really inspired me all the way to the finish.
I was doing this for all those people who had 54 years of self body hating, severe depression, low self-confidence and of course my wonderful families. 55 women are survivors of life.
41. A. opportunity B. failure C. trouble D. accident
42. A. operations B. solutions C. experiments D. movements
43. A. close B. different C. equal D. suitable
44. A. Obviously B. Immediately C. Luckily D. Suddenly
45. A. prove B. believe C. ensure D. accept
46. A. persuade B. educate C. save D. beat
47. A. trained B. forced C. requested D. refused
48. A. researching B. exercising C. attending D. surviving
49. A. cooler B. easier C. quicker D. harder
50. A. preference B. recognition C. comment D. support
51. A. feelings B. ideas C. words D. dreams
52. A. gathered B. failed C. returned D. finished
53. A. stay up B. watch out C. give up D. show off
54. A. suffered B. forgotten C. learnt D. competed
55. A. Talented B. Graceful C. Energetic D. Strong
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chinese teenager Quan Hongchan won the gold medal for the women’s 10-meter platform diving at the Tokyo Olympic Games on Thursday.
Not only is Quan the youngest 56 (compete) in the women’s diving field, but also she’s the youngest of 431 athletes 57 China sent to Tokyo for the Olympics. If the Games had gone on as 58 (schedule) last summer, she would have been too young to meet the minimum age (14) 59 (take) part in the diving competition. Now, she’s made Olympic history.
Each of Quan’s dives was the highest of the five rounds of competition at the 10-meter platform. Two scored perfect 10s from all seven 60 (judge). Only one judge found a flaw (瑕疵) with her final dive, 61 (give) her a 9.5 next to six 10s. But it didn’t count, thanks to diving’s scoring system. The two highest and two 62 (low) scores are thrown out and multiplied (乘) by the dive’s degree of difficulty. That means only the three middle 10s counted 63 her final dive and added up 96 when multiplied by the 3.2 degree of difficulty.
At such 64 young age, Quan was a totally unknown until winning the 2020 Chinese national Championship at 13 years old. She 65 (be) a 17-year-old veteran (老手) when the Paris Olympics start in 2024.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 单据语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
66. We were ________ (narrow) beaten in the soccer competition with the final score 93:91.
67. I have made several ________ (detail) study plans for my monthly exam.
68. The host families make ________ (accommodate) for the coming visitors.
69. China is making great efforts for its ________ (economy) development in the 21st century.
70. Recently, the three ________ (admire) Chinese astronauts of ShenZhou13 have entered the core module of China’s space station.
71. Don’t weaken your worth by ________ (compare) yourself with others. It’s because we are different that each of us are special.
72. He ________ (stress) that it was the culture, rather than the language, that made it hard for him to adapt to the life abroad.
73. What do you think is the best way ________ (improve) our oral English
74. I feel ________ (honour) to be invited to give a speech at the opening ceremony.
75. We followed the thief, ________ (track) him in the dark evening.
第二节 应用文写作（满分25分）
假如你是李华，你的新西兰笔友Noah来信向你咨询你校体育运动的情况。请你给他回信介绍。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Noah,I am delighted to have heard from you. You show great interest in sports activities of our school. Now I’d love to share with you some relevant details.Best wishesYours,Li Hua
邢台一中2021-2022学年上 高一英语试题月考二答案
1-5 BABCB 6-10 ABCBC 11-15 ACACC 16-20 BAACB
21-23 DCA 24-27 CDBA 28-31 CBAD 32-35 CBBC 36-40 DEFAC
41-45 DABCB 46-50 CABBD 51-55 ADCAD
petitor 57. that/who/whom 58. scheduled 59. to take 60. judges
61. giving 62. lowest 63. on 64. a 65. will be
单句语法填空
66. narrowly 67. detailed 68. accommodations 69. economic 70. admirable
71. comparing 72. stressed 73. to improve 74. honored 75. tracking
71. 翻译：不要因为和他人比较而使自己的价值逐渐削弱。因为我们是不同的，所以我们每个人都是特别的。
应用文 One possible version
Dear Noah
I am delighted to have heard from you. You show great interest in sports activities of our school. Now I’d love to share with you some relevant details.
Various sports courses are offered in our school and we can choose our favorite sports games in our P.E. class. Rich extra-curricular activities are available for us to develop our physical quality. To inspire the spirits of sports, our school also hold spring and autumn sports events where students can experience all types of competitions.
All these sports activities help us strengthen our body and build up a sense of team work. Besides, they encourage us to join in physical exercise actively, which in turn benefits our study. (91w)
Best wishes
Yours,
Li Hua
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man plan to do tonight
A. Relax at home. B. Go to the movies. C. Buy a smartphone.
2. What is the woman going to attend
A. A school dance. B. A rock concert. C. A fancy dress party.
3. How will the woman go for her trip
A. By ship. B. By air. C. By train.
4. Where did the man get the news
A. From the headmaster. B. From his classmate. C. From the notice.
5. What’s the relationship between Linda and John
A. A couple. B. Neighbors. C. Mother and son.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What’s the date today
A. July 6th. B. July 7th. C. July 8th.
7. What did the man buy for the trip
A. A tent. B. Some food. C. Two tickets.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What is the conversation about
A. Environment pollution. B. Garbage sorting. C. Green lifestyles.
9. What change has the woman made
A. Starting cycling to work.
B. Stopping using plastic bags.
C. Shopping in the supermarket instead.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. What is the woman preparing for now
A. A birthday party. B. A trip. C. A wedding.
11. What did Pierre do yesterday
A. He bought a suit. B. He ordered a cake. C. He got a dress for Anna.
12. Where will the man go this afternoon
A. A bakery. B. A hotel. C. A flower shop.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. Who is the man probably
A. A host. B. A teacher. C. A writer.
14. How many countries celebrate Teachers’ Day on October 5
A. Around 50. B. About 80. C. Over 100.
15. What does Amanda say about Teachers’ Day in India
A. It is celebrated on October 14th.
B. It was started to recognize teachers’ hard work.
C. It marks the birthday of India’s second president.
16. Which countries observe Teachers’ Day as a national holiday
A. America and Mexico. B. Mexico and Singapore. C. Singapore and Australia.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. When did Amy’s first class start
A. At 8:00. B. At 8:20. C. At 8:40.
18. What made Amy embarrassed
A. Falling down in the classroom. B. Forgetting the time for the class. C. Getting into the wrong classroom.
19. How did Mary feel on the first day
A. Excited. B. Confident. C. Nervous.
20. What did Cathy do on the first day
A. She had a volleyball class.
B. She joined the school music band.
C. She got advice from the older students.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Longing for a trip that will show you all of Nashville’s most famous and historic sites The Redneck Comedy Tour is for you. This 1.5—2 hours’ tour is filled with plenty of humor. You will be guided through the heart of Nashville with the help of an experienced guide and host from the comfort of a climate-controlled bus. Guests are welcome to bring their own drinks aboard the bus. Some of the alarming city sights that you’ll see include the Ryman, Music Row, and the famous Country Music Hall of Fame.
The Redneck Comedy Bus Tour is an extremely amusing way to see what Nashville has to offer. You will definitely enjoy some terrific entertainment and music and drink as you travel along the Music City. For a journey with one of the unique tours in the country, be sure to get onto the big camo (迷彩) bus with bull horns and don’t miss your chance to take on this fun activity. Departures are located at Frugal MacDoogal and Nashville Palace.
The tour is suggested for kids at heart who are more than 14 years old, although old fellows of all ages are welcome to join in on the fun! Nashville bus tours are a funny way to explore the Music City and its great attractions and activities. Bring your pals, bring your family, and have a great time. Get your ticket today and enjoy a fun-filled to Nashville.
21. What does the Redneck Comedy Tour offer
A. Free drinks. B. A citywide tour.
C. Humorous stories. D. Music-related sightseeing.
22. What would you do to take the tour
A. Join certain groups. B. Book a ticket in advance.
C. Take the arranged bus ride. D. Bring enough food and drink.
23. Which of the following is the main attraction of the tour
A. Joy-filled. B. Age-limited. C. Money-saving. D. Activity-packed.
B
My kid’s new school is a construction area now. Even though the new building is very exciting, in the meantime there is no real playground for all the kids to use. They just run around the front of the school during the lunch break.
This gets me thinking about starting a book club for the upper elementary kids to meet in during lunch. This idea has the added benefit of giving my very shy daughter a chance to make some connections with other kids who like books as much as she does.
This is how I’m starting our book club. After getting permission from the principal and finding a space in the school to hold our meetings, I’ll send out a flier (传单) in our Friday school notes with my contact information. At our first meeting we’ll think of a name for our book club and decide together on the first two books we will read.
I absolutely love the idea of a mother daughter book club. The reason is that my friend, mother of a teenager daughter, told me she always tried to befriend all the mothers of her daughter’s friends. As a group they’re better able to know what the girls are doing.
Now that my daughter is in the fourth grade and we’re at a new school, I’m feeling especially drawn to start forming relationships with the mothers of her friends. A book club seems like a good way to do that with the added benefit of getting to open up communication between daughters and mothers, because in a few years a lot of our daughters won’t really want to talk to us.
24. What is the original reason why the author wants to start a book club
A. Her daughter is too shy.
B. There are no books for children to read.
C. There is no playground for children to play on.
D. The children fail to communicate with each other.
25. What is the added benefit of starting a book club for the author
A. Improving her daughter’s grades. B. Making her daughter love reading.
C. Keeping her daughter busy at home. D. Helping her daughter communicate with others.
26. Why does the author’s friend befriend all the mothers of her daughter’s friends
A. To learn from those mothers. B. To better keep watch on her daughter.
C. To choose proper friends for her daughter. D. To build a close relationship with her daughter.
27. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text
A. To share a valuable plan. B. To apply for joining a book club.
C. To give the school a piece of advice. D. To ask people to befriend by reading.
C
One night, Pilar was in a deep sleep when she was woken by her cat Inti. Inti was meowing wildly outside Pilar’s bedroom and throwing himself against the closed bedroom door. When Pilar opened her eyes, she saw that her bedrooms was filled with smoke. As she escaped her house with Inti in her arms, she saw that a fire was burning in her kitchen. Pilar could easily have lost her life, but Inti would not let that happen. Even though Inti could have escaped the house through a cat door, he wouldn’t leave Pilar.
The story of Charlotte Lee and her horse, Thunder is as amazing as this one. One summer night, the whole family was asleep with the windows open. Suddenly, there was a loud noise. Charlotte woke up from her sweet dream, and the noise continued. Then she heard a horse running fast towards the house. The next thing she saw was Thunder standing outside her window, neighing (撕叫) and shaking his head. She knew something was wrong. Charlotte quickly got everyone out of the house before the earthquake hit. Thunder has saved her life.
There are also stories of wild animals coming to the rescue of humans. One animal known to be a friend of humans is the dolphin. Once, Todd Endris was surfing with his friends when he was attacked (袭击) by a 13-foot shark. In the middle of the attack, a group of dolphins came to rescue him by forming a protective ring around Endris until be could get safely to shore. Without the help of the dolphins, there is little chance that Todd could have escaped.
No one is sure why animals have so often come to our rescue. However, it is clear that humans and animals enjoy a close relationship. It is important that we care for them as much as we can.
28. Why did Inti throw himself against the door
A. He felt bored by himself. B. He wanted to get out of the room.
C. He was trying to wake up his owner. D. He found no way out because of smoke.
29. What did Charlotte do before the earthquake
A. She closed the windows. B. She was sleeping deeply.
C. She ran to warn her neighbors. D. She got her horse out of the stable.
30. What does the underlined word “rescue” in paragraph 3 mean
A. Save B. Hold C. Close D. Frighten
31. What might Todd say to those dolphins
A. Leave me alone. B. A good companion. C. Never say goodbye. D. You are real heroes.
D
Badminton was known in ancient times; an early form of the sport was played in ancient Greece. In India, the game was called “Poona” during the 18th century, and British Army officers stationed there took a competitive Indian version back to England in the 1860s, where it was played at country houses as an upper class game. Isaac Spratt, a London toy dealer, published a booklet, “Badminton Battledore — a new game” in 1860, but unfortunately no copy has survived.
The new sport was launched in 1873 at the Badminton House, Gloucestershire, owned by the Duke of Beaufort. During that time, the game’s official name became “Badminton”.
Until 1887 the sport was played in England under the rules popular in India. The Bath Badminton Club standardized the rules and made the game applicable to English ideas. The basic regulations (规则) were draw up in 1887. In 1893, the Badminton Association of England published the first set of rules according to these regulations, similar to today’s rules. They also started the All England Open Badminton Championships, the first badminton competition in the world, in 1899.
Badminton World Federation (BWF) was founded in 1934 with Canada, Denmark, England, France, the Netherlands, Ireland, New Zealand, Scotland, and Wales as its founding members. India joined as a member in 1936. The BWF now governs international badminton and works in cooperation with regional governing bodies to improve the sport of badminton around the world.
While originated in England, international badminton has traditionally been controlled by a few Asian countries, plus Denmark from Europe. China, Indonesia, South Korea and Malaysia are among the nations that have consistently produced world-class players in the past few decades and influenced competitions on the international level.
32. What can we learn from the first paragraph
A. Issac Spratt was a writer fond of playing badminton.
B. Badminton was invented by people in ancient Greece.
C. Badminton was favored by wealthy people in England at first.
D. British Army officers often played badminton with the Indians.
33. Why were some basic regulations written out
A. To make preparations for today’s rules.
B. To suit the game to the players in England.
C. To help start the first badminton competition.
D. To differ from the rules that prevailed in India.
34. What does BWF mainly do
A. It works for regional governing bodies.
B. It supports the development of badminton.
C. It helps its founding members to win the games.
D. It persuades more countries to become its members.
35. What does the last paragraph tell us
A. British players are better at badminton.
B. Chinese players are the best in the competitions.
C. Asia has a stronger influence on international badminton.
D. All world championships have been won by Asian players.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The city of Lviv in Ukraine as I have seen in winter, greatly reminded me of several famous cities of Central and Eastern Europe that I have been to, such as Prague. 36 So you cannot make a single step without running into the next attraction.
The first thing that caught my eye was the architecture. I was astonished, though I am a beat-up traveler. The reason for my surprise is that Lviv’s houses breathe with history. While walking in the streets, you will repeatedly catch yourself imagining getting into the 17th century somehow. 37 I got one of my first bright impressions about Lviv almost immediately after my arrival, walking around the city center early in the morning, searching for a hostel to check into.
38 They are the number of themed cafes and restaurants, and extremely polite and friendly people. As for the cafes, they can be safely considered a hallmark of the city; looking back, I can tell you that you can hardly find two cafes in Lviv that would be at least remotely similar to each other.
People in Lviv are friendly. 39 The people I was talking to knew English quite well-knowledgeable enough to explain to me where I could go and what to see. Even individuals who didn’t speak a word in English still tried to give me a hand, using gestures and laughter, which was funny both for me and for them. 40 So maybe this was the reason for the people’s uplifted mood.
A. You can always count on help.
B. People living there like to chat with tourists.
C. Many locals smiled without any obvious reason.
D. It also has many strengths that make this city unique.
E. Many regular buildings are at least 2-3 centuries old.
F. I must recommend two other eye-catching places to you.
G. There were lots of tourists dropping in to take a picture.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。
I almost died when I feel into the boiling water at the age of three. The 41 left me with serious burns and scars (伤疤) all over my body. I spent many years in hospital having hundreds of 42 , which meant years and years of skin grafts (移植).
In my teens, I realized that I was 43 to my friends. They were all beautiful young ladies and I had these terrible scars under my clothes which made me feel ugly. 44 , swimming helped me a lot. I can’t 45 that I was burned in the water and yet it also helped to 46 me. In the water I was at my happiest.
I was a competitive swimmer for many years and then was 47 to be a swimming teacher for the local swim club. Even though 48 in a gym is difficult for me, swimming is much 49 as I can sweat in the pool.
This year I swam from Asia to Europe alongside the talented physical sports expert Professor Greg. I swam close to Greg asking for his 50 in a swim challenge and he agreed to help me out. When I climbed out, I broke down and wept and just couldn’t control my 51 . I was told afterwards that I 52 in one hour and 28 minutes. I couldn’t believe it as I kept stopping wanting to 53 but Greg really inspired me all the way to the finish.
I was doing this for all those people who had 54 years of self body hating, severe depression, low self-confidence and of course my wonderful families. 55 women are survivors of life.
41. A. opportunity B. failure C. trouble D. accident
42. A. operations B. solutions C. experiments D. movements
43. A. close B. different C. equal D. suitable
44. A. Obviously B. Immediately C. Luckily D. Suddenly
45. A. prove B. believe C. ensure D. accept
46. A. persuade B. educate C. save D. beat
47. A. trained B. forced C. requested D. refused
48. A. researching B. exercising C. attending D. surviving
49. A. cooler B. easier C. quicker D. harder
50. A. preference B. recognition C. comment D. support
51. A. feelings B. ideas C. words D. dreams
52. A. gathered B. failed C. returned D. finished
53. A. stay up B. watch out C. give up D. show off
54. A. suffered B. forgotten C. learnt D. competed
55. A. Talented B. Graceful C. Energetic D. Strong
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chinese teenager Quan Hongchan won the gold medal for the women’s 10-meter platform diving at the Tokyo Olympic Games on Thursday.
Not only is Quan the youngest 56 (compete) in the women’s diving field, but also she’s the youngest of 431 athletes 57 China sent to Tokyo for the Olympics. If the Games had gone on as 58 (schedule) last summer, she would have been too young to meet the minimum age (14) 59 (take) part in the diving competition. Now, she’s made Olympic history.
Each of Quan’s dives was the highest of the five rounds of competition at the 10-meter platform. Two scored perfect 10s from all seven 60 (judge). Only one judge found a flaw (瑕疵) with her final dive, 61 (give) her a 9.5 next to six 10s. But it didn’t count, thanks to diving’s scoring system. The two highest and two 62 (low) scores are thrown out and multiplied (乘) by the dive’s degree of difficulty. That means only the three middle 10s counted 63 her final dive and added up 96 when multiplied by the 3.2 degree of difficulty.
At such 64 young age, Quan was a totally unknown until winning the 2020 Chinese national Championship at 13 years old. She 65 (be) a 17-year-old veteran (老手) when the Paris Olympics start in 2024.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 单据语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
66. We were ________ (narrow) beaten in the soccer competition with the final score 93:91.
67. I have made several ________ (detail) study plans for my monthly exam.
68. The host families make ________ (accommodate) for the coming visitors.
69. China is making great efforts for its ________ (economy) development in the 21st century.
70. Recently, the three ________ (admire) Chinese astronauts of ShenZhou13 have entered the core module of China’s space station.
71. Don’t weaken your worth by ________ (compare) yourself with others. It’s because we are different that each of us are special.
72. He ________ (stress) that it was the culture, rather than the language, that made it hard for him to adapt to the life abroad.
73. What do you think is the best way ________ (improve) our oral English
74. I feel ________ (honour) to be invited to give a speech at the opening ceremony.
75. We followed the thief, ________ (track) him in the dark evening.
第二节 应用文写作（满分25分）
假如你是李华，你的新西兰笔友Noah来信向你咨询你校体育运动的情况。请你给他回信介绍。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Noah,I am delighted to have heard from you. You show great interest in sports activities of our school. Now I’d love to share with you some relevant details.Best wishesYours,Li Hua
邢台一中2021-2022学年上 高一英语试题月考二答案
1-5 BABCB 6-10 ABCBC 11-15 ACACC 16-20 BAACB
21-23 DCA 24-27 CDBA 28-31 CBAD 32-35 CBBC 36-40 DEFAC
41-45 DABCB 46-50 CABBD 51-55 ADCAD
petitor 57. that/who/whom 58. scheduled 59. to take 60. judges
61. giving 62. lowest 63. on 64. a 65. will be
单句语法填空
66. narrowly 67. detailed 68. accommodations 69. economic 70. admirable
71. comparing 72. stressed 73. to improve 74. honored 75. tracking
71. 翻译：不要因为和他人比较而使自己的价值逐渐削弱。因为我们是不同的，所以我们每个人都是特别的。
应用文 One possible version
Dear Noah
I am delighted to have heard from you. You show great interest in sports activities of our school. Now I’d love to share with you some relevant details.
Various sports courses are offered in our school and we can choose our favorite sports games in our P.E. class. Rich extra-curricular activities are available for us to develop our physical quality. To inspire the spirits of sports, our school also hold spring and autumn sports events where students can experience all types of competitions.
All these sports activities help us strengthen our body and build up a sense of team work. Besides, they encourage us to join in physical exercise actively, which in turn benefits our study. (91w)
Best wishes
Yours,
Li Hua
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