河南省南阳市名校2021-2022学年高一上学期1月第三次联考英语试题(Word版含答案,含听力音频无文字材料)

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名称 河南省南阳市名校2021-2022学年高一上学期1月第三次联考英语试题(Word版含答案,含听力音频无文字材料)
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更新时间 2022-01-11 15:46:51

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南阳市名校2021-2022学年高一上学期1月第三次联考
英语参考答案
听力:1-5 BCBAC 6-10 ABCCB 11-15 BCACB 16-20 ABAAC
阅读理解: 21-23 BDC 24-27 DAAC 28-31 ACDA 32-35 DBCA
七选五:BEAFG
完形填:41-45 CBADB 46-50 CABCD 51-55ABCDA 56-60BDACD
语法填空61.it 62.before/earlier 63.were told 64.but 65.why 66.for 67.fully 68.the 69.where 70.sunburned/sunburnt
短文改错71.visit-visited 72.but-so/and 73.to去掉fortably-comfortable 75.were-was76.for –with 77.taking-taken 78.dish-dishes 79.such ∧great-a 80.me-mine
书面表达【范文】
Dear Lesile,
How is everything going More than delighted to know that you have a strong desire for Chinese traditional culture, I’m writing to invite you to spend the Spring Festival together with us.
The Spring Festival, also called Chinese New Year, falls on the first day of the lunar January, during which all the family members gather together no matter where they are. And therefore, I’d like to invite you to spend it together with us. My arrangements are as follows. To greet the Spring Festival, we tend to put up couplets, on which all good wishes are presented. On the eve of the Spring Festival, we’ll get together with our families to have a family reunion dinner, which will definitely be a feast for your mouth as well. After the meal, we will watch the Spring Festival Gala, waiting until midnight comes, and then set off fireworks to welcome the New Year Day’s coming. During the Spring Festival, we will wear new clothes and visit our relatives, getting much lucky money as best wishes to us.
I’d be remarkably grateful if you could inform me of your decision at your earliest convenience.
Yours,
Li Hua
参考答案解析
A篇【答案】21.B 22.D 23.C
【解析】本文为应用文,题材为新闻广告类。本文介绍了剑桥科学节即将举办的一项鼓励学生们参加的好奇心挑战活动。叙述了第六届剑桥科技节的通知,通知要求5至14岁的学生可以报名参加,参赛作品可以是一张画、一篇文章、一张照片或一首诗,作品能够鼓励人们探险世界。将在剑桥科技节4月21日给优秀作品颁奖。
21.B考查细节理解。谁能够参加好奇心的挑战?根据The challenge invites, even dares school Students between the ages of 5--14 to create artwork or a piece of writing that shows their curiosity。可知是5—14岁的学生可以参加比赛。故选B。
22.D考查细节理解。颁奖仪式什么时间举行?根据Students who enter the Cambridge Challenge and are selected as winners will be honored at a special ceremony during the CSF on Sunday, April 21st.可知颁奖仪式在4月21日星期天举行,故选D。
23.C考查判断推理。这篇是属于什么体裁的文章?根据短文的内容及The program guidelines and other related information are available at:http://cambridgesciencefestival.org.可推知这是一个通知,如果想了解更多的信息可以登陆这个网址。故选C。
B篇【答案】24. D 25. A 26. A 27. C
【解析】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了电影制作人David Bond为了让孩子们远离屏幕,拍摄自己的旅行,并将自然当作一个品牌,推销给年轻人。
【24题】D细节理解题。根据第一段中的“However, what my children want to do after school is pick up a screen — any screen — and stare at it for hours. (然而,我的孩子们放学后想做的是拿起一个屏幕——任何屏幕——盯着它看几个小时)”可知,作者的孩子在屏幕前呆的时间太长了。故选D项。
【25题】A细节理解题。根据第二段“He documented his journey as he set about treating nature as a brand to be marked to young people. (他记录了他的旅程,他开始把大自然当作一个品牌,让年轻人看到)”可知,David Bond通过拍一个纪录片宣传他的想法。故选A项。
【26题】A词句猜测题。根据划线词上文“a film”可知,本句主语是一部电影,下文“the birth of the World Network (世界网络的诞生)”解释了这部电影的主旨。由此推知,划线词charts意为“记录、描绘”,与“records”意思一致。故选A项。
【27题】C主旨大意题。根据第二段中的“He documented his journey as he set about treating nature as a brand to be marketed to young people. The result was Project Wild Thing, a film which charts the birth of the World Network, a group of organizations with the common goal of getting children out into nature. (他把自己的旅行记录下来,开始把自然当作一个品牌,推销给年轻人。其结果是Project Wild Thing,一部记录了World Network (世界网络)诞生的电影,World Network (世界网络)是以让孩子们接触大自然为共同目标的团体)”可推知,本文主要讲述了电影制作人David Bond为了让孩子们远离屏幕,拍摄自己的旅行,并将自然当作一个品牌,推销给年轻人。由此可知,C项Market Nature to Children(把自然推销给年轻人)适合作本文标题。故选C项。
C【答案】28.A 29.C 30.D 31.A
28.A主旨大意,分析文章的内容,可知本文主要讲述了吸入了受污染的空气对人类的心脏造成了极大的影响,结合各个选项的意思,可知应选A。
29.C词义猜测,根据modest前的relatively small,可知它的意思与之相近,应选C。
30.D细节理解,根据文章中第三段的So stricter regulation by the EPA of pollutants may not only improve environmental air quality but could also become necessary to protect public health,可知D选项的意思与之相符,故选D。
31.A细节理解,根据文章的内容,可知本文主要介绍了吸入了受污染的空气对人类的心脏造成了极大的影响,因此,本文的作用主要是客观地给读者讲述了这个问题,应选A正确。
D【答案】32.D 33.B 34.C 35.A
【解析】本文是一篇议论文。主要论证了精神富有与真正快乐之间的关系。很多人物质上非常丰富,住豪宅,享美食。但是他们真正幸福吗?他们的内心生活的房子又是如何呢?作者在文章里告诉我们,要想得到内心的幸福,需要了解艺术,文学,音乐等等不同的内容来丰富我们的内心世界。
32.D推理判断题。根据文章4,5,6,7段第一句Art should be a desire for you和 Literature, classic literature, is a beautiful, richly furnished room和Music like Mozart’s and Bach’s shouldn’t be absent.和Sports, without which you remain poor, mean a lot in life.可知,真正幸福的人需要懂得和拥有:艺术,文学,音乐和运动等,而这些主要是与我们精神上的丰富有关系的。也就是说真正的幸福是精神上的富有。故选D项正确。
33.B句意猜测题。根据本句句意可知,很多人住的是豪宅,但是他内心里的生命的住所是一个小棚屋。因此推断无论他物质上多么富有,但是内心的精神世界是贫穷的。故选B项正确。
34.C细节题,根据第五段可知文学可以丰富你的精神生活,故选C。
35.A主旨大意题。纵观全文可知,本文主要讲述了现实生活里很多人物质上非常丰富,住豪宅,享美食。但是他们精神上却是贫穷的,要想得到内心的幸福,需要了解艺术,文学,音乐等等不同的内容来丰富我们的内心世界。文章中多次提到house,把生活比喻为一所房子,要想幸福,必须在这所房子里填满艺术、文学、音乐等精神上的东西。故A项中House of Life涵盖了这些内容。故选A项正确。
七选五【答案】BEAFG
【分析】本文是说明文。文章介绍了感恩对我们带来的种种好处。
【小题36】B选项B意思为:下面是感恩的几个好处。文章下面几段的小标题“Gratitude is good for your health. ”“Gratitude makes us more self-aware.”“Gratitude helps us build strong relationship.”都是说明感恩的好处。选项B是承上启下。故选B项。
【小题37】E该段是关于感恩对健康的好处;空前提到“感恩的人在心理上和生理上都感觉更健康、更快乐”,选项E意思为:特别是,那些心存感激的人比那些不感恩的人要快乐25%。选项E是顺承空前一句的话题,也符合该段的主题。故选E项。
【小题38】A分析文章结构,文章每一段都有小标题;此空应该是该段的小标题,也是主题句。选项A意思为:感恩能增进理解。下文提到“那些认识到生活中美好事物的人…都更能体会到他人的需要”, “体谅和理解他人的意见、经历和背景会使你成为更好的人”。文中“be sensitive to the needs of others”和“Being considerate to others’ opinions, experiences and backgrounds”即是说明对他人的理解,符合“Gratitude builds understanding.”的主题。 故选A项。
【小题39】F该段小标题是“感恩让我们更有自我意识”;选项F意思为:感恩让你反思当下,而不是总想着未来。空后一句中的“paying attention to what’s now going on in your life(关注你的生活中正在发生的事情)”与选项F中的“…reflect in the moment”语义相同,都是指“关注当下”。故选F项。
【小题40】G选项G意思为:俗话说“道歉永远不晚”,感恩也是同样的道理。空后一句中“Taking the time to thank people for their work and kindness --- whether it was today, last month or many years ago(花时间感谢别人为你所做的事和善良——无论是今天,上个月还是多年前)”与选项G中“‘It’s never too late to say you’re sorry’”语义相符,表示感恩为时不晚。故选G项。
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1
)南阳市名校2021-2022学年高一上学期1月第三次联考
英语试题
第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What’s the conversation mainly about
A. A play. B. A movie. C. A concert.
2. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. In a physics lab. B. In a museum. C. In a bookstore.
3. What transport will the woman take tomorrow
A. The taxi. B. The bus. C. The subway.
4. What will the speakers do this weekend
A. Go to a new restaurant. B. Watch a French movie. C. Stay at home.
5. What is the weather like now
A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话, 回答第6至7题
6. What happened to the man’s sunglasses
A. They were destroyed by accident.
B. They fell into the pool.
C. They were left in the room.
7. Where does the woman suggest they go
A. The pool. B. The gift shop. C. The beach.
听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。
8. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Clean the street. B. Pick up medicine for her. C. Give her some help.
9. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Doctor and patient. B. Friends. C. Strangers.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. How many people are there in Peter’s family
A. 3. B.4. C.5.
11. When do the whole family walk the dog
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
12. What does Peter do at home
A. He does the laundry. B. He cooks food. C. He sweep the floor.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题.
13. What does the man want to be
A. A pop star. B. A movie star. C. A great musician.
14. How does the man feel about his future
A. Uncertain. B. Sad. C. Confident.
15. When will the man go to find a manager
A. After he moves to London.
B. After he takes his last exam.
C. After he knows his exam results.
16. What will the man probably do at first in London
A. Do part-time jobs. B. Make his record. C. Earn lots of money.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Why was the speaker in the river
A. To get water for picnic. B. To catch a fish. C. To get a piece of wood.
18. How old was Danny when the story happened
A. Six. B. Eight. C. Ten.
19. What did Danny do when the speaker fell into the river
A. He jumped into the river.
B. He was too scared to move.
C. He ran to look for their father.
20. Who finally saved the speaker
A. His father. B. His brother. C. A passer-by.
第二部分:阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
The Cambridge Science Festival Curiosity Challenge
Dare to Take the Curiosity Challenge!
The Cambridge Science Festival (CSF) is pleased to inform you of the sixth annual Curiosity Challenge. The challenge invites, even dares school students between the ages of 5 and 14 to create artwork or a piece of writing that shows their curiosity how it inspires them to explore their world.
Students are being dared to draw a picture, write an article, take a photo or write a poem that shows what they are curious about. To enter the challenge, all artwork or pieces of writing should be sent to the Cambridge Science Festival, MIT Museum, 265 Mass Avenue.
Students who enter the Curiosity Challenge and are selected as winners will be honored at a special ceremony during the CSF on Sunday, April 21st. Guest speakers will also present prizes to the students. Winning entries will be published in a book. Student entries will be exhibited and prizes will be given. Families of those who take part will be included in celebration and brunch will be served.
Between March 10th and March 15th, each winner will be given the specifics of the closing ceremony and the Curiosity Challenge celebration. The program guidelines and other related information are available at http:// cambridgesciencefestival.org.
21. Who can take part in the Curiosity Challenge
A. Cambridge locals. B. School students.
C. CSF winners. D. MIT artists.
22. When will the prize-giving ceremony be held
A. On February 8th. B. On March 10th.
C. On March 15th. D. On April 21st.
23. What type of writing is this text
A. An exhibition guide. B. An art show review.
C. An announcement. D. An official report.
B
We live in a town with three beaches. There are two parts less than 10 minutes’ walk from home where neighborhood children gather to play. However, what my children want to do after school is pick up a screen—any screen—and stare at it for hours. They are not alone. Today’s children spend an average of four and a half hours a day looking at screens, split between watching television and using the Internet.
In the past few years, an increasing number of people and organizations have begun coming up with plans to counter this trend. A couple of years ago film-maker David Bond realized that his children, then aged five and three, were attached to screens to the point where he was able to say “chocolate” into his three-year-old son’s ear without getting a response. He realized that something needed to change, and, being a London media type, appointed himself “marketing director from Nature”. He documented his journey as he set about treating nature as a brand to be marketed to young people. The result was Project Wild Thing, a film which charts the birth of the World Network, a group of organizations with the common goal of getting children out into nature.
“Just five more minutes outdoors can make a difference,” David Bond says. “There is a lot of really interesting evidence which seems to be suggesting that if children are inspired up to the age of seven, then being outdoors will be on habit for life.” His own children have got into the habit of playing outside now: “We just send them out into the garden and tell them not to come back in for a while.”
Summer is upon us. There is an amazing world out there, and it needs our children as much as they need it. Let us get them out and let them play.
24. What is the problem with the author’s children
A. They often annoy their neighbors.
B. They are tired of doing their homework.
C. They have no friends to play with.
D. They stay in front of screens for too long.
25. How did David Bond advocate his idea
A. By making a documentary film. B. By organizing outdoor activities.
C. By advertising in London media. D. By creating a network of friends.
26. Which of the following can replace the underlined word “charts” in paragraph 2
A. records B. predicts C. delays D. confirms
27. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Let Children Have Fun B. Young Children Need More Free Time
C. Market Nature to Children D. David Bond: A Role Model for Children
C
Eating too much fatty food, exercising too little and smoking can raise your future risk of heart disease. But there is another factor that can cause your heart problems more immediately:the air you breathe.
Previous studies have linked high exposure (暴露) to environmental pollution to an increased risk of heart problems,but two analyses now show that poor air quality can lead to heart attack or stroke (中风) within as little as a few hours after exposure. In one review of the research, scientists found that people exposed to high levels of pollutants (污染物) were up to 5% more likely to suffer a heart attack within days of exposure than those with lower exposure. A separate study of stroke patients showed that even air that the U. S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) considers to be of “moderate” (良好) quality and relatively safe for our health can raise the risk of stroke as much as 34% within 12 to 14 hours of exposure.
The authors of both studies stress that these risks are relatively small for healthy people and certainly modest compared with other risk factors such as smoking and high blood pressure. However, it is important to be aware of these dangers because everyone is exposed to air pollution regardless of lifestyle choices. So stricter regulation by the EPA of pollutants may not only improve environmental air quality but could also become necessary to protect public health.
28. The text mainly discusses the relationship between ________.
A. heart problems and air quality B. heart problems and exercising
C. heart problems and smoking D. heart problems and fatty food
29. The underlined word “modest” in Paragraph 3 most probably means ________.
A. relatively high B. extremely low C. relatively low D. extremely high
30. What can we learn from the text
A. Eating fatty food has immediate effects on your heart.
B. The EPA conducted many studies on air quality.
C. Moderate air quality is more harmful than smoking.
D. Stricter regulations on pollutants should be made.
31. The author’s purpose of writing the text is most likely to ________.
A. inform B. persuade C. describe D. entertain
D
Perhaps you think you could easily add to your happiness with more money. Strange as it may seem, if you’re unsatisfied, the issue is not a lack of means to meet your desires but a lack of desires—not that you cannot satisfy your tastes but that you don’t have enough tastes.
Real riches consist of well-developed and hearty capacities (能力)to enjoy life. Most people are already swamped (淹没) with things. They eat, wear, go and talk too much. They live in too big a house with too many rooms, yet their house of life is a hut.
Your house of life ought to be a mansion (豪宅), a royal palace. Every new taste, every additional interest, every fresh enthusiasm adds a room. Here are several rooms your house of life should have.
Art should be a desire for you to develop simply because the world is full of beautiful things. If you only understood how to enjoy them and feed your spirit on them, they would make you as happy as to find plenty of hamburgers and eggs when you’re hungry.
Literature, classic literature, is a beautiful, richly furnished room where you might find many an hour of rest and refreshment. To gain that love would go toward making you a rich person, for a rich person is not someone who has a library but who likes a library.
Music like Mozart’s and Bach’s shouldn’t be absent. Real riches are of the spirit. And when you’ve brought that spirit up to where classical music feeds it and makes you a little drunk, you have increased your thrills and bettered them. And life is a matter of thrills.
Sports, without which you remain poor, mean a lot in life. No matter who you are, you would be more human, and your house of life would be better supported against the bad days, if you could, and did, played a bit.
Whatever rooms you might add to your house of life, the secret of enjoying life is to keep adding.
32. The author intends to tell us that____________.
A. true happiness lies in achieving wealth by fair means
B. big houses are people’s most valued possessions
C. big houses can in a sense bring richness of life
D. true happiness comes from spiritual riches
33. The underlined sentence in the second paragraph probably implies that______.
A. however materially rich, they never seem to be satisfied
B. however materially rich, they remain spiritually poor
C. though their house is big, they prefer a simple life
D. though their house is big, it seems to be a cage
34. It can be learned from the passage that __________.
A. more money brings more happiness
B. art is needed to make your house beautiful
C. literature can enrich your spiritual life
D. sports contribute mainly to your physical fitness
35. What would be the best title for the passage
A. House of Life B. Secret of Wealth
C. Rest and Refreshment D. Interest and Enthusiasm
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项是多余选项。
Many people connect gratitude with saying “thank you” to someone who helped us, making it a short act of appreciation. According to Robert Emmons, a leading researcher, gratitude is an emotion that can result in long-lasting positivity. 36
Gratitude is good for your health.
Through his research, Emmons found that grateful people reported feeling healthier and happier, both mentally and physically. 37 In the workplace, employees who are shown that they are appreciated are healthier and more productive by 50 percent.
38
Gratitude is a selfless act. We often take for granted the simple things in life. Those who recognize the goodness in life, no matter how simple, are more likely to be aware of the needs of others and to help whenever they can. Thinking about others’ opinions, experiences and backgrounds will make you a better person.
Gratitude makes us more self-aware.
Working in an ever-developing, fast-paced society, we are surrounded by ambitious people who are always struggling for more and better. 39 It starts by paying attention to what’s now going on in your life, and it’s true that self-awareness is the key to being successful.
Gratitude helps us build strong relationship.
Gratitude is a powerful tool for strengthening relationship, both at work and in your personal life. People who express their gratitude tend to be more willing to forgive others and therefore able to create long-lasting connections.
40 Taking the time to thank people for their work and kindness—whether it was today, last month or many years ago—makes you happier and more self-aware.
A. Gratitude builds understanding.
B. Here are a few benefits of being grateful.
C. Gratitude helps us build up self-confidence.
D. All in all, we feel and express our gratitude in different ways.
E. In fact, those who were grateful were 25 percent happier than those who weren’t.
F. Gratitude makes you reflect in the moment instead of always thinking about the future.
G. The old saying goes “It’s never too late to say you’re sorry”, but the same is true of gratitude.
第三部分 英语知识运用(共三节,满分45分)
第一节(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
The Broken Lantern
On a wild July night, the storm was getting worse and worse. Kate Shelley, who lived between Honey Creek (小溪) and Des Moines River, was 41 looking out of the window, wondering whether it would 42 the bridges over them, when suddenly came the loud 43 of breaking wood, then followed by a great splash. She realized the bridge over the creek was broken. At that time, the midnight train was almost 44 . If no one told the engineer to 45 the train, it would fall into the creek with a hundred or more 46 . The situation was so urgent that Kate 47 to go to Moingon Railway Station to get help. Immediately she rushed out into the storm with her father’s railway lantern.
Moingon 48 on the far side of Des Moines River. The only way to get there was to cross a long wooden railroad bridge. Even in the daytime, it was 49 to walk on it because there was no foot walk or railing (栏杆) except only rails and ties. The ties were 50 enough apart for the girl to fall through.
Kate stopped when she came to the 51 . She had never seen the river rising so high that she was 52 . Her father had been killed in a train accident by that river and her brother had drowned there. But she soon managed to 53 thinking more of the past happenings for she knew that train had to be stopped 54 it was too late. She started to step on that dangerous bridge, knowing she might fall into the rush water at any moment. What’s worse, she broke her lantern while making her way, exposing herself to the 55 . She had to climb on her hands and knees…
It seemed like a long time. At last she 56 the other side.
She stopped just long enough to catch her breath. Then she ran 57 to the railway station. When she finally got there, she was 58 , wet all over, her hat blown away, her hands and knees still bleeding and her eyes looking 59 . She told the station man what had happened to the Honey Creek Bridge before her fainting. Finally, the passengers were saved.
The girl’s heroic deed was rewarded. For her 60 act, Kate enjoyed a right of getting on or off the train at her door when she wanted.
41. A. angrily B. eagerly C. anxiously D. hopefully
42. A. break out B. wash away C. cut off D. pull out
43. A. crash B. cry C. blow D. voice
44. A. removed B. blocked C. ready D. due
45. A. change B. stop C. catch D. leave
46. A. conductors B. customers C. passengers D. engineers
47. A. decided B. tried C. expected D. agreed
48. A. situated B. lay C. located D. lied
49. A. harmful B. foolish C. dangerous D. strange
50. A. long B. wide C. thick D. far
51. A. bridge B. station C. train D. rail
52. A. frightening B. shaking C. escaping D. running
53. A. forget B. admit C. avoid D. risk
54. A. though B. because C. unless D. before
55. A. darkness B. calmness C. emptiness D. coldness
56. A. selected B. reached C. found D. passed
57. A. cautiously B. slowly C. disappointedly D. desperately
58. A. out of breath B. out of mind C. out of sight D. out of favor
59. A. watchful B. sharp C. wild D. bitter
60. A. honest B. modest C. generous D. courageous
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Last year, my brother and I went to Miami for a vacation. Some of my friends who had been there before said 61 was a wonderful holiday destination. Before we went, we had planned for months. When the day came, we were ready.
After our plane landed, we went to the hotel. We had made our reservation six months 62 , but the man at the front desk said there had been a mistake. We 63 (tell) that our rooms hadn’t been reserved for that week, 64 for the week after. I didn’t understand 65 this would happen and my credit card had already been charged 66 the reservation. What’s worse, the hotel had been 67 (full) booked. When we were wondering what to do, the manager came out. She was surprisingly helpful. She apologized for the mistake and gave us a spare VIP room on 68 top floor. We had never stayed in such an amazing room, and we weren’t charged extra.
The next day, my brother and I went to the beach 69 we watched some people play volleyball. We got a little 70 (sunburn), but the day had been so relaxing that we didn’t mind.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
短文改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词:
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第l1处起)不计分。
My father and I stayed at the South Lake Hotel for a week when we visit Beijing last month. It is in the downtown area, but it is easy to go to anywhere from the hotel by public transport. We lived in a comfortably double-room with a big bath. What I liked best were the free high-speed Internet connection in the room. I checked my email messages every day. I also shared for my friends many photos taking in Beijing. The food was wonderful with reasonable prices, and we enjoyed several local dish. It is such great hotel that I would like to recommend it to any friend of me who is going to Beijing.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华,一个高中生。知道你的英国朋友Leslie对中国传统文化很感兴趣,你邀请他与你全家共度春节,写一封邮件告知他相关事宜。内容包括:
1.表示邀请;2.简要介绍春节;3.你家过节安排(贴春联、放鞭炮等)
注意:1. 词数100左右;
2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Dear Lesile,
How is everything going
Yours,
LiHua
高一英语 1
同课章节目录