南阳一中2021年秋期高一第6次月考英语学科答案
听力：
1-5 CBCCA 6-10 ABCAB 11-15 AABCB 16-20 ABACC
阅读理解：
21-23 CAD 24-27 ADCB 28-31 BBAD 32-35 ABDC 36-40 EFGDA
完形填空：
41-45 ADBCC 46-50 ADBBC 51-55 DAADB 56-60 CDBAC
语法填空：
61. who / that 62. it 63. trying 64.was shown 65. to adopt 66. immediately 67. have changed 68. without 69. did 70. awareness
短文改错：
71.has 后加been 72.while→when 73.towards→in 74.stopping→stopped 75.her→his
76.a→an 77.hold→holding 78. policeman→policemen 79.Slight→Slightly 80.去掉 but
作文：
Make Online Friends Wisely
Good morning, everyone,
With Internet facilitating our life in varied aspects, making friends online has grown into a common way of social communication. Here I have the great privilege to deliver a speech entitled Make Online Friends Wisely.
Making online friends is enjoying increasing popularity among the public across the globe, especially the younger generations, thanks to its incredible convenience compared with other alternatives. Friends can stay in touch online without time or space limits, thus bringing us closer to each other. In addition, we have a chance to make friends of different backgrounds and they are just a click away, in which case we can gain comprehensive insights into the world and the gap between regions and cultures can be significantly narrowed. Admittedly, making friends online also poses threats in some way.Long screen time can do harm to eyesight, not to mention the cheating. Friendships are built on the basis of trust, but we can never be definitely sure about ouronline friends. In consequence, it can be particularly risky for people who are easily influenced or too trusting.
Therefore, we are expected to make online friends wisely. First of all, develop self-discipline, which prevents the obsession with screen communication. Most importantly, it’s a must to adopt a more cautious attitude and security precautions are advisable when seeking online friendships. In this way, chances are that we will enjoy the online friendships more.
That’s all. Thank you!南阳一中2021年秋期高一第6次月考
英语试题
第一部分听力 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题l.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When do the business hours begin
A. At 8:00 a.m. B. At 8:30 a.m. C. At 9:00 a.m.
2. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. David’s habit. B. David’s hobby. C. David’s height.
3. What’s the woman’s impression of Prof. Shelton’s class
A. It’s easy to feel sleepy. B. She didn’t like it. C. It’s difficult to feel sleepy.
4. What does Julia study at college
A. Engineering. B. Fashion design. C. Computer programming.
5. Where is Mrs. Black now
A. In her office. B. In a bank. C. In Mark’s office.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，共22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷地相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6，7题。
6. What has the man been busy doing recently
A. Preparing for a test. B. Teaching in a college. C. Visiting America.
7. Where is Jenny’s father
A. In America. B. In a hospital. C. At home.
听第7段材料，回答第8，9题。
8. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Friends. B. Families. C. Shop owner and customer.
9. When will the woman try the dresses on
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. How does the girl feel when she does her homework
A. Excited. B. Tired. C. Interested.
11. What’s the girl’s problem
A. She eats too much. B. She is too fat. C. She can’t run.
12. What does the man advise the girl to do
A. Do calorie-counting. B. Do more exercise. C. Get more rest.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Where is the reception desk
A. On the first floor. B. On the second floor. C. On the third floor.
14. How does the woman come here
A. By taxi. B. By bus. C. By car.
15. What does the woman feel about the prices of the duty-free foods
A. They are much cheaper. B. They are a little higher. C. They are too expensive.
16. What will the woman do next
A. Check out. B. Pick up her children. C. Buy some other food.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. When will the exhibition start
A. On November 9. B. On November 15. C. On November 16.
18. What will be on display
A. Oil paintings. B. Pencil paintings. C. Comics.
19. Who do Lowry’s works mainly show
A. Famous people. B. Young people. C. Ordinary people.
20. What should the students do before going to the exhibition
A. Book tickets on the Internet.
B. Gain some art knowledge.
C. Get tickets at the front desk.
第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Utah Mask Exhibition
The Utah Art Festival is looking for artists to take part in our yearly Mask Exhibition, shown at the Utah Art Festival Gallery from February 7th to February 21st, 2022. Our aim of this Mask Exhibition is not only to bring public attention to the works of local artists, but also to raise money that will help us continue to hold an amazing Art Festival next year.
Application Requirements:
Creative Masks We’d like the masks to be wearable, and also creatively related to our style.
Reasonable Prices We’d like to offer all kinds of masks at different prices. On the application you will be asked to price your works.
Typical SamplesThis can be a photo of the previous masks you’ve created, or a drawing of an idea you have for a mask— anything that gives us a general idea of what the final product might look like.
Brief Introduction It’s about the creation background of your works.
The Project Timeline:
January 8th—The deadline for submission(递交) of application and the sample of your works.
January 15th—The artists will be emailed if their works are accepted.
January 28th—Final masks must be offered to the Art Festival offices with an agreement.
February 7th through 21st—Exhibition will be open to the public.
February 25th—Unsold masks will be returned to the owners.
21. Which of the following is the aim of the 2022 Mask Exhibition
A. To collect masks for the gallery. B. To know the world-famous works.
C. To raise money for the next Art Festival. D. To attract the attention of local artists.
22. What are the artists required to do in the application
A. Set a price for their works. B. Hand in the final products.
C. Wear their masks in the exhibition. D. Introduce the artists’ background.
23. What can we know from the passage
A. The exhibition will be open for a month.
B. Unsold masks will be dealt with by the office.
C. An agreement is needed on the sample masks.
D. Artists will know if they are accepted on January 15th.
B
It was a dark night. Thick, dark, gray clouds had made sure that there was no starlight or moonlight to greet me as I walked out on my porch. Still, I kept the porch light off because I didn’t want to be surrounded by bugs and moths（飞蛾）on this sticky summer evening. I stood there for a while letting my eyes adjust to the lack of light. My dog stood beside me waiting patiently for me to start her walk. It was then, though, that I saw them. First one blink of light at the far end of the meadow was followed by another and then another. I smiled. I recognized them at once as my firefly friends, who always showed up this time of the year.
I got so much joy watching them first as a child and then as an adult. They never became dull or boring and they always filled me with delight. When I was little I used to sit in the grass and watch them slowly fly around blinking on and off. I never caught and put one in a jar as some kids did because I was afraid I might kill it and I never wanted to hurt these messengers（信使）of light. Their time on this earth was so brief as it was. I tried to enjoy them each night they were here. It always saddened me when they disappeared in the fall and it always made my heart sing when they reappeared the next summer.
I think I enjoy these little fireflies so much because I can see that we are like them in a lot of ways. Our time here on earth is brief. Often our light and love are more like on and off blinks rather than a steady shine. Let’s share our light and love while we are here then.
24. Why did the author turn off his porch light
A. To avoid some insects.
C. To search for his dog.
B. To adapt to surroundings.
D. To greet special friends.
25. What can we know about fireflies
A. They always frightened the author.
C. The author watched them every night.
B. Most kids caught and killed them.
D. They usually brightened the author.
26. What does the author mainly convey through the story
A. Value our short life in the world.
B. Protect fireflies as well as possible.
C. Devote ourselves as much as possible.
D. Share as many inspiring stories as possible.
27. What can be the best title for the text
A. A Special Summer Night
C. Human’s Best Friends
B. Messengers of Light
D. Fireflies — Shinning Forever
C
King Tut, Egypt’s famous boy king, was buried with many valuable objects. A dagger (匕首)discovered in his tomb has recently attracted extra attention. Researchers have concluded that the dagger was probably made from a special material.
King Tut was only about nine years old when he became ruler of Egypt more than 3,300 years ago. The young king died when he was just 19. His body was buried in a tomb filled with objects that people believed he would need in the afterlife.
In 1922, Howard Carter discovered Tut’s tomb in the Valley of the Kings in Egypt. Up to now, it has been the best preserved ancient Egyptian tomb ever found. In 1925, Carter found the dagger which has a gold handle and an iron blade(刀片).The blade had confused experts because iron was hardly used at that time in ancient Egypt. In fact, it was so rare that it was considered more valuable than gold. Where did the iron for the blade come from
Around the time of King Tut, ancient Egyptians started using a new word for iron that translates as “iron from the sky”. This led some experts to believe that the iron for the blade came from a meteorite(陨石).But studies of the dagger carried out in the 1970s and 1990s didn't support that idea.
That’s where modern technology comes in. Researchers used a new technique to examine the blade. They discovered thatitwas made up of iron and other materials found in meteorites. After comparing it to several meteorites, they even found its possible match—a meteorite that landed in northern Egypt thousands of years ago.
Scientists hope the new study will lead to more discoveries about other ancient Egyptian relics. “It would be very interesting to analyze more Pre-iron Age objects and we could gain precious discoveries.” Daniela Comelli, who is a professor, said.
28．What do we know about Tut’s tomb
A. It was built when he was 9. B. It was well kept when discovered.
C. It has a lot of iron objects in it. D. It was the first tomb to be found.
29．Scientists pay extra attention to the dagger because ________.
A. it is King Tut’s favourite object B. its blade is made of iron
C. it was more valuable than gold D. it leads to more discoveries
30．What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 5 refer to
A. The blade. B. The material. C.A meteorite. D. The iron.
31．The researchers used modern technology to show ________.
A. more valuable objects are hidden in the tombs
B. iron is widely used in ancient Egypt
C. ancient Egyptian objects are excellent
D. Tut’s dagger was likely made from a meteorite
D
Last summer, over 12,000 fans packed London’s Wembley Arena. Thousands more watched online, shouting and cheering. Were they watching soccer No, they were watching e-sports or competitive PC gaming.
Millions of people in the UK play PC games for fun. Some of them have become professionals, playing games as their full-time job. The prize at the Wembley event totaled 3 million pounds. It's not easy being a professional gamer, though. They practice for 10 or more hours a day, 5 or 6 days a week. They do exercises like typing something and then trying to type it faster and faster. They also study videos of other players and plan ways to beat them.
Many people who play games also enjoy watching them. They often watch games on video sites like Twitch and YouTube, and in the UK there’s even a TV channel showing e-sports 24 hours a day. Matches can be exciting to watch. Just like in other sports, there are close games, last-minute victories and creative strategies (策略). Sometimes online viewers can interact with the players through instant messaging. For example, some supporters rename characters in the game with the names of their biggest supporters.
But are e-sports really sports Are the players athletes It’s easy to say, “No Way!” After all, professional gamers don’t need to run, jump or throw a ball. At the moment, the UK government classifies e-sports as a kind of game, not as a sport. But many people think that e-sports are sports. They say that players do need physical skills, especially hand-eye coordination(协调),quick action, accuracy and timing. In fact, the governments of China and South Korea do classify e-sports as sports, and professional gamers will soon be able to compete for medals at the 2022 Asian Games.
For many e-sports fans and players, though, the most important thing is that e-sports are growing in popularity and reputation. If e-sports are not important at the moment, they probably will be soon.
32. What do the British people think of e-sports
A. They have a great passion for e-sports.
B. They are not willing to be professionals.
C. They prefer watching e-sports online to live.
D. They take e-sports just as a way of entertainment.
33. What are the first three paragraphs mainly about
A. The fun of playing e-sports.
B. The popularity of e-sports in the UK.
C. How e-sports are different from traditional sports.
D. How to start a career as a professional e-sports gamer.
34. Why do many people believe e-sports are sports
A. They inspire people as much as other sports.
B. They share rules and strategies with other sports.
C. It takes players time and money to learn and practice.
D. Players need to develop physical skills to perform well.
35. What is the author’s attitude toward the future of e-sports
A. Doubtful. B. Negative. C. Optimistic. D. Indifferent.
第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项是多余选项。
Guess what former Australian Prime Minister Kevin Rudd, Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg and United States president Donald Trump’s granddaughter, Arabella Kushner, have in common ____36____
Although Chinese is known as one of the hardest languages to learn, a lot of people from different backgrounds are studying it with hopes of big benefits. On Nov.2, more than 120 people, coming from 105 countries, compete in the finals of the 12th “Chinese Bridge” Competition for foreign secondary school students. Held in Zhengzhou, Henan Province, the finals were mainly made up of speech contests and talent shows. ____37____
While reasons for learning Chinese were different, a common one was interest in the country’s rich culture and rapid development. Raissa, 17, from the Union of the Comoros, developed a strong emotional connection with China after her grandmother was cured by doctors of the Chinese medical team in Africa three years ago. ____38____ Fascinated by Chinese culture, the competitor has taken part in activities on traditional Chinese medicine and folk arts during her first trip to China. “My dream is to study medicine in China so that I could cure patients like the Chinese doctors did,” she said. For Fekete Marcell Zoltan, 17, from the Hungarian-Chinese Bilingual School, studying Chinese may secure him a future job as a Hungarian diploma to China. “After graduation from high school, ____39___” he said.
Robert Davis, director of the Chinese-language program in Chicago’s public school system, may give you a hint. “___40____ It’s the new English, which is widely used all over the world.” He told CGTN.
A. Chinese isn’t the new French.
B. It may not be the best choice.
C. Shaolin Temple attracted them to Henan.
D. I would like to further my studies in China.
E. They all study Chinese as a second language.
F. The contestants also visited the Shaolin Temple, Longmen Grottoes and other historical sites in Henan.
G. This led her to learn Chinese at a local Confucius Institute.
第三部分英语知识运用（共三节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Kids who live a happy childhood dream about what they will be when they grow up. But less___41___kids, who live in poverty, sometimes wonder why they were born in the first place.
Children like these ___42___ Lebanese director Nadine Labaki’s new film Capernaum (《何以为家》),which arrived in Chinese mainland___43___ on April 29, 2019.
In the slums (贫民窟)of Beirut, Lebanon’s capital, Labaki saw kids selling gum or flowers or ___44___carrying heavy gas tanks. Some of them were alone on the street, unfed and ___45___
One of these kids told her, “I don’t know ___46___I was born if no one is going to love me, if no one is going to ___47___ me before I go to sleep, or if I’m going to be beaten up every day.”
This is how Capernaum begins: A 12-year-old boy named Zain who lives in one of Beirut’s slums, charges his parents for giving ___48___ to him, even though, he says, they knew they couldn’t ___49___ him.
Capernaum is fictional but it’s as ___50___ as it gets. There are no ___51___actors in this film. Zain, for example, is ___52___ by a boy with the same name, a Syrian refugee (难民)called Zain Al Rafeea. He had never slept in a ___53___ before the film, or gone to school. He didn’t even have papers to ___54___ he was a human being -- just like his character in the film.
By making the film, Labaki wanted to “become the voice of these kids”, according to The Guardian. The voice is being heard. It ran first at Cannes Film Festival in May, 2018, and ___55___ the Jury Prize. Soon after the festival, under the ___56___of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees, Zain and his family got the chance to resettle in Norway. They now live in a house by the sea, and Zain is going to school.
When Labaki told The New York Times that she wanted the film “to go beyond the borders of just being a film” and be “a ___57___ for help”, she wasn’t ___58___ how big an impact it would have. “I might never get anywhere, but ___59___I want to try,” she said.
But she has certainly gone somewhere indeed --- to say the least, the real-life Zain isnow able to ___60___ his future.
41. A. fortunate B. optimistic C. attractive D. desperate
42. A. urged B. produced C. watched D. inspired
43. A. audiences B. cinemas C. houses D. hearts
44. A. ever B. more C. even D. otherwise
45. A. ashamed B. violent C. hopeless D. independent
46. A. why B. how C. where D. whether
47. A. help B. call C. guide D. kiss
48. A. poorness B. birth C. pressure D. unhappiness
49. A. put up with B. care for C. look on D. pay attention to
50. A. beneficial B. interesting C. true D. simple
51. A. typical B. proper C. ambitious D. professional
52. A. played B. moved C. encouraged D. selected
53. A. bed B. village C. street D. tent
54. A. write B. witness C. argue D. prove
55. A. expected B. won C. deserved D. shared
56. A. desire B. control C. support D. agreement
57. A. sign B. love C. promise D. cry
58. A. concerned B. sure C. aware D. doubtful
59. A. at least B. now and then C. on the whole D. all in all
60. A. decide on B. go through C. dream about D. keep up
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Jonny Hickey is a boy from Georgia 61.__________ is helping to change the world. Jonny has autism (自闭症). When he was young, he was very quiet and found 62.__________ hard to talk and be with other people. He was not very happy and had a difficult time in school.
While 63.__________ (try) to help her son in every possible way, Jonny’s mom, Linda Hickey, learned about an abandoned dog named Xena. The dog, once starving and badly abused, 64.__________ (show) on the local news, recovering at a nearby dog shelter. She was named “The Warrior Dog” for her courage and perseverance. Mrs. Hickey started following the dog on a local Facebook page and fell in love with her story and courage. In fact, she decided 65.__________ (adopt) the dog! And that changed everything!
When Mrs. Hickey introduced Xena to Jonny, they became friends 66.__________(immediate). Since then, they both 67.__________ (change) greatly. Xena is now healthy and active. And also Jonny could not be so social, talkative, happy and doing well in school 68.__________ Xena.
Not only 69.__________ Xena and Jonny change each other’s lives, but theyhelped others. They created a YouTube video to promote 70.__________ (aware) about austism and also to prevent cruelty to animals.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词：
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第l1处起）不计分。
Jack has regarded as a young hero in his town for his heroic deed. The other day, Jack was going home by bike as usual while he heard a woman screaming for help. Then he was riding quickly towards the direction of the voice. At the corner, he saw a woman stopping by a man with a knife in her hand. Without hesitation, Jack made a immediate dive for the robber and controlled him by hold him down against the ground. A few minutes later, three policeman came and took the robber away. Slight wounded as he was in the left hand, but since then he has become well known as a young hero all over the town.
第二节书面表达（满分25分）
你校将举办英语演讲比赛，请你以Make Online Friends Wisely为题写一篇发言稿参赛，内容包括：1. 分析网络交友的利与弊2. 提出建议。
注意：1.词数100左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
