开学考试
英语参考答案
听力
1—5 BAACB 6—10 CBABA 11—15 CAACC 16—20 BCACC
阅读理解
21-23 ACB 24-27 CBAC 28-31 BDAD 32-35 CDAB 36-40 FEGCD
完形填空
41-45 CBADC 46-50 ABCAA 51-55 DBCAD
语法填空答案
56. expression 57. the 58. as 59. which/that 60. finished
61. be divided 62. describing 63. quickly 64. to invite 65. have become
写作第一节略
写作第二节
She followed me but kept some distance, thinking something else. Minutes later, we started to climb a steep slope. Kate sighed, dragging her legs behind me. I was surprised to find some rarely-seen trees and flowers, and took many photos but Kate showed no interest. She stopped and sat on a rock, thirsty, sweaty and bored. I handed her a bottle of water and we took a break. “I missed my phone.” she complained as we continued climbing. Though unhappy, she just climbed along with me.
Reaching the top, Kate widened her eyes, shouting, “How wonderful!” She looked around dreamily, her eyes twinkling with indescribably wild excitement. A refreshing breeze brushed the mountain top, miles of trees spread out below us and birds chirped between branches. We sat on a large rock and ate sandwiches, enjoying the sounds, the smells and the sunlight. “Anyone still wants her phone ” I joked. She rolled her eyes, laughing out loud. The next morning, Kate danced to my room, crying, “Let’s hike around the lake today.” “Sure, get our backpack then.” I beamed, relieved and joyful.凯里一中 2021－2022 学年度第二学期开学考试
高一英语试卷
本试题卷共 8 页。考试时间 120 分钟。满分 150 分。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共 5 小题：每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标
在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话 仅读一遍。
1. When will the woman get up
A. At 5:00. B. At 5:30. C. At 6:00.
2. What gift did Jenny get
A. A scarf. B. A silk dress. C. Some flowers.
3. What animal does the man want to see
A. Tigers. B. Pandas. C. Monkeys.
4. What does the man want to do
A. Send a letter. B. Surf the Internet. C. Wash some clothes.
5. Why did some people hand in the paper early
A. They finished it in a short time.
B. They couldn’t answer the questions.
C. They had other important things to do.
第二节（共 15 小题：每小题 1.5 分，满分 12.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最 佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完
后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. What is the man going to do
A. Have a picnic. B. Plant some flowers. C. Study in the library.
7. When should the man hand in his report
A. This Sunday. B. Next Monday. C. Next Friday.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. Why is the woman upset
A. She broke the vase. B. She was hurt.
C. She had to clean up for an hour.
9. What did the man break last week
A. A vase. B. A window. C. A cup.
10. Why should the woman wear shoes in her house
A. To protect her feet. B. To paint the walls. C. To avoid falling.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. How did the speakers know each other
A. They are colleagues.
B. They are business partners. C. They met each other before.
12. When will the speakers meet
A. It is not decided. B. At 3:00 p.m. tomorrow. C. At 10:00 a.m. tomorrow.
13. What will the man do next
A. Have a meeting. B. Make a call. C. Write something down.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. How will the woman keep Chinese traditions alive while in America
A. By eating Chinese food.
B. By watching Chinese movies.
C. By talking to others about China.
15. With whom will the woman make friends
A. Only Chinese. B. Mostly Americans. C. People from everywhere.
16. How many questions does the man ask in total
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. Who might be playing chess right now
A. Jane’s coach. B. Jane’s grandmother. C. Jane’s grandfather.
18. How does Jane describe the water at the beach
A. It is very clear. B. It is really deep. C. There aren’t any fish in it.
19. What will Jane do after the game tomorrow
A. Go swimming.
B. Eat lunch in a barbecue restaurant. C. Go hiking.
20. Why is Jane in Hawaii
A. She is visiting her friends. B. She is on a vacation.
C. She is playing in a basketball game.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分） 第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
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21. If you are a newcomer for the online seminar, how much discount will you enjoy
A. 75% B. 25% C. 45% D. 15%
22. If you are free in May in 2023, which tours could you choose
A. Quiet Revolutions: Literature of Quebec and Shifting Boundaries: Literature of Morocco
B. Renaissance Venice and Thinking Space, Drinking Space: Paris Café Culture
C. Thinking Space, Drinking Space: Paris Café Culture and Tracing Homer’s Footsteps in Greece
D. Tracing Homer’s Footsteps in Greece and Renaissance Venice
23. Where does the text be taken
A. Encyclopedia B. Magazine C. Textbook D. Novel
B
English is the most widely spoken language in the world. And of the roughly 1.5 billion speakers globally, the vast majority speak it as a second language. So where are the world’s best non-native English speakers According to a new report by EF Education First, an international education company, Northern Europeans are the most fluent. Middle Easterners are the least proficient(精通的).
The index(指数) is based on the results of a free online test taken by 2.3 million volunteers in 100 countries.
Nearly six in ten of this year’s test-takers were female. Women have always performed better than men, but this year men closed the gap somewhat.
In Europe, the powerhouse economies perform surprisingly badly: only Germany makes the top place of “very high proficiency” countries. France is next, while Spain and Italy are continuously falling behind. A study by a Spanish research institute reported the bad news: 60% of adults say they speak no English at all. The fact that Spanish is a global language in its own right (the language declares 400 million native speakers) is probably the cause. If you speak Danish, you need another language to take part in global culture; speaking French or Spanish (or Arabic) means hundreds of millions of people to talk to without English.
Asia is the region of greatest diversity(多样性). Only Singapore makes the top level, but the Philippines,
Malaysia, and India are not far behind. China is further back but still in the second level, a few places ahead of Japan. Struggling in the bottom places are a group of South-East and Central Asian countries like Cambodia and Kyrgyzstan. This relates with another factor: the company repeatedly finds that English skills are highly related with connections and openness to the rest of the world.
24. Which is the best title for the text
A. Where are the world’s most non-native English speakers B. Where are the fewest non-native English speakers
C. Where are the world’s best non-native English speakers D. Where are the last non-native English speakers
25. What can we know about the online test
A. Half of this year’s test-takers were female.
B. Nearly 1.38 million of this year’s test-takers were female. C. Women and men equally performed this year.
D. The gap between female and male is getting close year by year.
26. Why 60% of Spanish adults say they speak no English at all
A. Spanish is a global language itself. B. 400 million Spanish speak English. C. Spanish is easy to understand.
D. English fails to attract them.
27. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. Asia is the region with the best non-native English speakers.
B. China is the second place with the best non-native English speakers. C. Countries in South-East and Central Asian are less open in Asia.
D. Countries in South-West and Central Asian line in the bottom places.
C
When most people picture bobsled(双人或四人大雪橇) from the Winter Olympics or from the film “Cool Runnings”, they usually see four people, or at least two, energetically pushing a sled and then leaping(跳跃) in before racing down an icy course.
But differently, in monobob, an event making its first Olympic show at the 2022 Beijing Winter Games, one sledder does it all: push, leap and drive, and at this year’s Games, every one of the competitors will be a woman.
The event is one of seven additions to the Olympics program for 2022 and the only one of the groups that will be competed only by women. Also being added are freestyle skiing big air jumping events for men and
women and a handful of mixed-gender(性别) events.
Monobob, however, may get the most attention. The event was attracting the International Olympic Committee in many ways, but particularly because of its competitive advantages. The cost of entry(参赛) for the smaller sleds—a monobob might cost about $15, 000, while a two-person is about $70, 000—and the need for
only a single sledder has fair results: Brazil and Jamaica won medals at last season’s World Cup and a Cambodian recorded in the top ten.
In addition, all monobob sleds will come from the same producer, which partly weakens the technological advantages that wealthy nations have long enjoyed. In all the years of bobsled at the Games, only Germany, Switzerland, the United States, Canada and Italy have won more than one gold medal.
28. Why is “monobob” new at the 2022 Beijing Winter Games
A. It has four, or at least two sledders during the game. B. It is its first show and competitors must be women. C. Sledders can push, leap and drive on icy course.
D. It has only one man or woman sledder.
29. How many events were added to the 2022 Beijing Winter Games
A. Six B. Eight C. Nine D. Seven
30. Why did the “monobob” be chosen as an event by International Olympic Committee
A. Because it has competitive advantages in cost and result. B. Because it gets the most attention from the public.
C. Because it costs more on every sledder for entry.
D. Because it meets the need for unfair results of sledder.
31. According to the author, what does he think of the “monobob”
A. Disagreed B. Unconcerned C. Neutral D. Approved
D
For humans, adapting to(适应) climate change will mostly be a matter of technology. More air conditioning, better-designed houses and bigger flood defenses may help reduce the effects of a warmer world. However,
animals will have to rely on changing their bodies or their behaviour.
In a study done by Trends in Ecology & Evolution, a team led by Sara Ryding, a PhD at Deakin University, in Australia, shows that is already happening. And climate change is already changing the bodies of many animal
species, giving them bigger beaks(鸟喙), limbs and ears.
In some species of Australian parrot, for example, beak size has increased by between 4% and 10% since
1871. All that is nicely in line with evolutionary theory(进化论). “Allen’s rule”, named for Joel Asaph Allen, who suggested it in 1877, holds that warm-blooded animals in hot places tend to have larger appendages(附肢) than those in mild regions.
Such increase in an animal’s surface area helps it release(释放) extra heat. For example, being richly gifted with blood vessels, and not covered by feathers, beaks make an ideal place for birds to release heat.
It seems clear that the world of the future is not just going to be hotter than humans are used to. These animals living in it will look different, too. Studying a larger range of animals will help figure out what is exactly happening. Much of Ms Ryding’s data is about birds, however, with less information available for other animals.
32. What is the purpose of the text
A. To introduce climate change.
B. To introduce evolution of animals. C. To introduce a result of a study.
D. To introduce a technology.
33. What does the underlined word “that” in paragraph 2 refer to
A. For humans, adapting to climate change will mostly be a matter of technology. B. A study which was done by Trends in Ecology & Evolution.
C. Technology may help reduce the effects of a warmer world.
D. Animals will have to rely on changing their bodies to adapt to climate change.
34. What is “Allen’s rules”
A. It says that warm-blooded animals in hot places tend to have larger appendages than those in mild regions. B. It holds that animals in hot place tend to have larger appendages than those in cold region.
C. It says that cold-blooded animals in hot places tend to have larger appendages than those in mild regions.
D. It holds that warm-blooded animals in hot places tend to have larger appendages than those in cold regions.
35. What will Sara Ryding’s team do in the future
A. They will do a larger range of researches on birds. B. They will do more researches on other animals.
C. They will do more researches on climate change. D. They will do more researches on technology.
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Although taking good notes sounds a time-consuming task, it will benefit you to become a better student in several ways. 36 Second, your notes are excellent materials to refer to when you are studying for a test. Third, note-taking offers variety to your study time and helps you to hold your interest.
You will want to take notes during classroom discussions and while reading a textbook or doing research for
a report. 37 Whenever or however you take notes, keep in mind that note-taking is a selective process.
38
The following methods may work best for you.
·Read the text quickly to find the main facts and ideas in it.
·Carefully read the text and watch for words that can show main points and supporting facts.
·Write your notes in your own words.
· 39
·Note any questions or ideas you may have about what was said or written.
As you take notes, you may want to use your own shorthand (速记)．When you do, be sure that you understand your symbols and that you use them all the time. 40
A. There are three practical note-taking methods. B. You must write your notes on separate paper. C. Use some key words, not complete sentences.
D. Otherwise, you may not be able to read your notes later.
E. You will also want to develop your own method for taking notes.
F. First, the simple act of writing something down helps you understand and remember it better. G. That means you have to first decide what is important enough to include in your notes.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I lived in China, it was a struggle for me to learn Chinese and adapt to Chinese 41 . When I first went to school, I was surprised at the class 42 . There were about sixty students in our class. And the students were not so 43 as those in the US where we often had open discussions.
However, it was not a big 44 for me because when I went to school, I did not 45 anything that the teacher and students said. I 46 sat in my seat without 47 anything. After I went home, I 48 and told my mom that I wanted to go back to my homeland.
When I calmed down, I 49 that I had to study Chinese very hard, but it was very difficult to learn the language. Every day at school, I tried to 50 Chinese students and make friends with them. When school was over, I studied Chinese all night using elementary school books. It 51 to be a good way for me to learn Chinese. 52 , I began to speak Chinese in school. Finally, I became 53 during class and began to make some friends. 54 , I achieved a high grade in the exam and was also able to adapt to Chinese living.
Now, I like to talk with Chinese friends and I like Chinese food, too. The experience of 55 to learn
Chinese in China was very valuable for me. I will never forget that time when I learned so much.
41. A. arrangements B. styles C. customs D. climates
42. A. system B. size C. design D. event
43. A. relaxed B. friendly C. certain D. patient
44. A. mistake B. danger C. error D. problem
45. A. believe B. prepare C. understand D. provide
46. A. just B. still C. also D. seldom
47. A. contacting B. doing C. observing D. affording
48. A. continued B. changed C. cried D. admitted
49. A. decided B. explained C. guessed D. imagined
50. A. talk to B. watch over C. turn to D. look into
51. A. made out B. worked out C. made it D. turned out
52. A. One after another B. Little by little C. Above all D. For example
53. A. amazed B. curious C. active D. unique
54. A. Naturally B. Normally C. Obviously D. Professionally
55. A. begging B. exploring C. competing D. struggling
第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Traditional Chinese painting is highly regarded all over the world for its theory, 56 (express) and skill. It is also one of 57 oldest continuous artistic traditions in the world. It is known in Chinese 58 guo hua, meaning “national or native painting”.
Traditional Chinese painting is done with a brush 59 is dipped in black or coloured ink. The most popular paintings are made of paper and silk. The 60 (finish) work can be put in albums or on walls.
Traditional Chinese painting has its own special tools, consisting of brushes, ink, xuan paper and so on. Chinese painting can 61 (divide) into figure paintings, landscapes and flower-and-bird paintings according to the subjects. Landscapes, mainly 62 (describe) the natural scenery of mountains and rivers, represent a major type of traditional Chinese painting.
In the 1980s, Chinese oil painting developed 63 (quick). Then folk painting became popular, such as Chinese New Year pictures. It is put up on doors, room walls and windows 64 (invite) blessings during the New Year. Woodcuts 65 (become) increasingly various in style, theme and artistic form since the
1980s.
第一节（满分 15 分）
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分）
2022 年冬季奥运会于 2 月 20 日在北京结束。作为志愿者的你写信向你的英国笔友 John 介绍大概情况。
1. 精彩开幕式;
2. 你喜欢的赛事;
3. 运动员食住情况。 注意：
1. 写作词数应为 80 左右；
2. 涵盖所有要点，可是适当增加细节，使行文连贯；
3. 请在答题卡相应位置作答。
可能用到的词汇：opening ceremony 开幕式；Beijing Winter Olympic Village 北京冬奥村；figure skating
花样滑冰；speed skating 速度滑冰
第二节（满分 25 分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My family went on our annual(每年的) summer vacation in a small house on a lake. Every day we kids are busy swimming, fishing and building sand castle on the beach. By the third day of our vacation, however,
something caught my attention. I noticed my 10-year-old sister, Kate, always watching videos and looking
through online shops indoors. She was so addicted to her cell phone! Over dinner, I asked Kate whether she would like to go hike to the top of the mountain across the lake the following morning, “Maybe you need put your phone away and enjoy the wonderful scenery. It’s really amazing.”
“Well,” Kate replied unwillingly, “there are some bargains(减价品) tomorrow in several online shops, so I’ll
not be available tomorrow.”
“You can’t miss the fresh air and beautiful views here. Hiking is really fun!”
“I cannot walk so far”, she didn’t look up from her soup and mumbled (嘟囔), “and it sounds more like punishment than a vacation.”
When I said it only took us half an hour of steady walk to climb to the top, though reluctant, she nodded, “Fine, I’ll go.”
The weather was fine as usual with clear skies and gentle winds. After packing, I found Kate walking slowly downstairs and in a very unenthusiastic(不热情的) voice, “Ok, I’m ready to go. Tom”
Anyway, when we stepped out of our house, quite a different view unfolded before our eyes. Sunlight brightened on the glassy surface of the lake. Not far away, a rough path wound to the top of the mountain across the lake with flowers and grass on both sides. We began from the path.
“Tom, I’m still wondering if it is a good idea to go hiking.” Kate said, frowning(皱眉).
注意：
1. 续写词数应为 150 左右；
2. 请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
She followed me but kept some distance, thinking something else.
Reaching the top, Kate widened her eyes, shouting, “How wonderful!”
