四川省宜宾市2021-2022学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题（Word版含答案，无听力音频有文字材料）

宜宾市2021-2022学年高二下学期期末考试
英语
（考试时间：120分钟;总分：150分）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是C。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分）听下面5段对话，选出最佳选项。1. What does the woman ask the man to do
A.Be quiet. B. Go to bed. C. Look after the kids.
2. What is the man doing
A. Checking a list. B. Making a decision. C. Giving advice.
3. How does the man feel
A. Bored. B. Disappointed. C. Relaxed.
4. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a book shop. B. In a shoe shop. C. In a clothing shop.
5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Husband and wife. B. Boss and secretary. C. Host and visitor.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）听下面5段对话或独白，选出最佳选项。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the woman take part in the long race
A. To win a medal. B. To encourage her child. C. To watch sports games.
7. What does the woman suggest the man do
A. Join a gym. B. Repeat one exercise. C. Begin with something simple.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. When does the woman’s flight leave
A. At 4: 00. B. At 7: 00. C. At 8: 00.
9. How will the woman get to the airport
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By subway.
10. How long is the flight
A. Two and a half hours. B. Two hours. C. An hour and a half.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What is the TV program about
A. Athletes. B. Children. C. Doctors.
12. What does the woman think of Cal Ripken Jr.
A. He was rich. B. He was famous. C. He was kind.
13. What will the woman do next
A. Watch TV. B. Do her homework. C. Talk with her Dad.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What activity did the man like best in the camp
A. Singing songs. B. Giving an interview. C. Taking a hot-air balloon ride.
15. What were campers doing when a boy got lost .
A. Going on a hike. B. Playing a game. C. Resting near a river.
16. What does the woman say about the man
A. He’s clever. B. He’s brave. C. He’s friendly.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。17. Where does the speaker advise listeners to take a personality test
A. On the Internet. B. From a book. C. In a testing center.
18. Why does the speaker mention making friends
A. To show the importance of friendship.
B. To compare different kinds of friends.
C. To give an example of making plans.
19. What does the speaker probably do
A. She’s a student. B. She’s a reporter. C. She’s a teacher.
20. What does the speaker mainly talk about
A. How to overcome weaknesses.
B. How to improve working skills.
C. How to be different from others.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Be a volunteer for the Forest Protection Program in Madagascar to protect the richness and beauty of Mother Nature. You will get the chance to understand the local environment and record a great of species found in Nosy Komba. Make lifelong friends and return with wonderful stories, pictures and memories.
Volunteer Roles & Responsibilities
receiving training in species identification
making field surveys
collecting information
finding out changes in populations & habitat health
forecasting possible threats
Volunteer Work Schedule
Volunteers usually arrive on Sunday and the program will start from Monday. Tuesday is the first official day of the project! Generally, you will be doing formal activities with staff and
other more experienced volunteers. After dinner each day, we have a short meeting to go over
activities for the following day.
Activities
Time Monday Tuesday
07: 00 Breakfast Breakfast at the camp
08: 30 Welcome Meeting Start of morning activities on the project
09: 30 Health and Safety Presentation
11: 40 Complete and sign forms and paper
12: 00 Lunch Lunch at the camp
14: 00 To the neighboring village for a tour Start of afternoon activities on the project
17: 00 Return to camp Volunteer activities for the day
18: 00 Dinner Dinner at the camp
18: 45 Daily Meeting Meeting to go over activities for the next day
Cost: Please note: An additional application fee of $250 is charged besides the program fee.
2 weeks 3 weeks 4 weeks 5 weeks 6 weeks Extra week
＄695 ＄875 ＄1, 055 ＄1, 235 ＄1, 415 ＄180
21. What must the volunteers do
A. Look for endangered species. B. Remove dangers from the forests.
C. Carry out surveys with the locals. D. Receive training to identify species.
22. How much should a volunteer pay if taking part in the program for 6 weeks
A. $1,665. B. $1, 595. C. $1, 415. D. $1, 330.
23. What will you gain from volunteering in the program
A. Informal activities with staff. B. Some beautiful species.
C. A wonderful experience. D. A good chance to travel.
B
A 99-year-old British World War II veteran has raised more than $9 million in donations for the U.K.’s National Health Service as it battles COVID-19.
Tom Moore, who rose to the rank of army captain while serving in British-ruled India and Burma, set out to walk 100 laps of his back garden in Bedfordshire, around 50 miles northwest of London, before his 100th birthday on April 30.
His original fundraising target was $1,250. His family said the fundraising site JustGiving had to stop the “ Captain Tom Moore’s 100th Birthday Walk for the NHS ” page from crashing, as more than 90,000 people tried to access it at one point. So far, more than 347,000 people have donated to Moore’s effort.
Moore plans to continue fundraising, with another 100 laps in 10-lap daily increments. The money will go to NHS Charities Together, a collective that supports the medical staff, volunteers, facilities and patients of the NHS, Britain’s publicly funded healthcare system,
“Let’s all carry on and remember that things will get better,” Moore told BBC News. “We have had problems before — we have overcome them — and we shall all overcome the same thing again.”
Moore decided to use the fundraising challenge to thank NHS staff for helping him recover from a recent hip replacement and skin cancer. He was encouraged by his daughter, Hannah Ingram Moore, who said she originally thought the $1,250 target was “a stretch”.
“ Life is all about purpose — we all need purpose, ” Ingram Moore told the BBC. “He has had a life full of purpose, though he did fall and break his hip and became much less independent than he had been for the past 98 years.”
Ingram Moore said the British public and donors have given her father a new purpose late in life: “ I think he’ll do this until everyone says, ‘Stop, don’t do this anymore.’ ”
24. Why did Moore raise money
A. To save the COVID-19 patients.
B. To memorize his life in the army.
C. To set up an organization for soldiers.
D. To make a donation to National Health Service.
25. What does the underlined part “a stretch” mean in Paragraph 6？
A. Spread. B. Range. C. Limit. D. Result.
26. What matters most to Moore’s family
A. Life purpose. B. Army life.
C. Earning money. D. Keeping fit.
27. Which words can best describe Tom Moore
A. Gentle and romantic. B. Kind and positive.
C. Brave and ambitious. D. Mean and selfish.
C
Your shoes are changing your feet. The ankles of people who habitually wear shoes are different to those of people who tend to walk barefoot.
In many industrial societies, people tend to wear shoes from a young age. However,many people around the world often go barefoot, or wear only very thin footwear.
“We know that there are some variations in the feet of modern humans due to the use of shoes,” says Rita Sorrentino at the University of Bologna in Italy. But most previous findings relate to the front and middle of the foot. She and her team have focused on the ankle instead.
They studied 142 ankle bones from 11 populations from North America, Africa and Europe. These included sandal-wearing Nguni farmers in southern Africa, people living in New York and fossilized bones from Stone Age hunter-gatherers.The hunter-gatherers’ ankle bones were significantly shorter than those of people living in modern cities, and there were other differences in the shape. “They are mostly connected to footwear-related behaviors and sports behaviors” says Sorrentino.
The hunter gatherers walked barefoot for long distances every day over natural terrain. Their ankles were relatively flexible. In contrast, people who live in big cities, who wear constrictive footwear and walk short distances on flat surfaces like asphalt (沥青) roads, had more rigid ankles. Changes to ankle bones take place over the course of a person’s life, and there is no evidence that these alterations can be passed on genetically.
It is an open question whether shoes have disadvantages, but Sorrentino suspects that the rigidity of modern shoes causes our bones to become weaker and bone cracking more easily.
28. What does Sorrentino’s research center on
A. The length of foot bones.
B. The impact of shoes on ankles.
C. The development of human shoes.
D. The reasons for ankle bones rigidity.
29. How was the research carried out
A. By analyzing data.
B. By following examples.
C. By comparing samples.
D. By collecting questionnaires.
30. What’can we learn from Paragraph 5
A. Genes affect changes of ankle joint.
B. Shoes change the way human walk.
C. The hardness of shoes can harm bones.
D. Walking barefoot makes ankle bones flexible.
31. Which could be the most suitable title for the text
A. Wearing Shoes Weakens Our Ankle Bones
B. Facts about Walking Barefoot Surprise Us
C. Early Shoes Differ from Modern Shoes
D. Shoes Are Closely Connected with Health
D
Libraries have been bastions of knowledge for millennia, and little has changed during the ages in how they operate on a basic level. Only in the past few decades have computer databases made logging books and academic papers more efficient. From virtual AI voices that can help you choose your next novel, to physical machines that archive（归档）, retrieve（检索）, and log books of all kinds, technology is stealthily influencing our quiet reading zones.
Robots are steadily emerging in libraries around the world, too. Robots that can search through the shelves and scan them for misplaced books may soon be the future for every school and community learning facility. Books have, in recent years, been fitted with radio frequency tags, similar to those used in keycards and for unlocking cars. These can be scanned by autonomous machines, and flagged up to librarians if a book happens not to be found.
Reality technologies that superimpose (叠加) data onto the surroundings of a user are also fast becoming popular in education sectors and in libraries. Subjects such as history, science, and technology are all benefiting from such immersive visual “textbooks”, which may slowly come to replace existing physical paper books.
Apps can now show users what their area looked like in ancient times, as a user looks around, or highlight environmental damage in specific areas with data and analysis in real time as users walk.
The popular use of these programs, especially in university libraries, means that significant facility upgrades will be seen universally in the coming years.
32. What’s the main idea of Paragraph 1
A. AI is taking the place of librarians.
B. Computer databases help classify books.
C. Libraries can change a person’s cultural level.
D. Technology revolutions are taking place in libraries.
33. What help librarians find the missing books
A. Virtual AI voices. B. Radio frequency tags.
C. Reality technologies. D.The keycards.
34. What can be inferred from the text
A.Technology is changing the purpose of libraries.
B. Modern libraries improve reading ability quickly.
C. Visual textbooks will gradually be used in the school.
D. The environmental destruction can be predicted by Apps.
35. What is the text
A. A science article. B. A news report.
C. A library brochure. D. A job diary.
第二节　(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How can we live more meaningfully To find out, I spent five years interviewing hundreds of people and reading through thousands of pages of psychology, neuroscience and philosophy.
36 The first pillar is belonging. Belonging comes from being in relationships where you’re valued and where you value others as well. But some groups and relationships deliver a cheap form of belonging. 37 It lives in moments among individuals, and you can choose to cultivate belonging with others.
For many people, belonging is the most essential source of meaning, those bonds to family and friends. 38 Now, finding your purpose is not the same thing as finding that job that makes you happy. The key to purpose is using your strengths to serve others.
The third pillar of meaning is about stepping beyond yourself. 39 Transcendent states are those rare moments when you’re lifted above the busy daily life.
Now, the fourth pillar of meaning, I’ve found, tends to surprise people. The fourth pillar is storytelling. The story you tell yourself is about yourself. 40 It helps you understand how you became you. But we don’t always realize that we’re the authors of our stories and can change the way we’re telling them. We can edit, interpret and retell our stories.
But true belonging springs from love.
B. But it is in a completely different way: transcendence.
C. We’re constantly creating our lives, adding to our story.
D. For others, the key to meaning is the second pillar: purpose.
E. Bringing it all together, I found four pillars of a meaningful life.
F. Creating a narrative from the events of your life brings clearness.
G. And the studies show that people who have meaning in life live longer.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
For a long time now we have had a fat, fluffy, black, stray (流浪的) cat in our neighborhood. Sometimes I see her lying in my backyard. Sometimes I see her hiding under my car. Sometimes she even went into my 41 through a crack on the door. Each time I have 42 her, however, she has run away. 43 , I gave up and decided to respect her 44 . I even kept the
45 so she could stay in my house on the cold nights. She more than paid her rent by keeping the mice away. We seemed to have a nice, little business relationship 46 .
Recently, though, something 47 happened. This independent stray cat decided to adopt my daughter, Beth. Each time Beth walks over to my house she is 48 by the cat. The cat walks between her legs, following her until the cat gets 49 . It has happened day after day until this morning Beth 50 her a bowl of cat food. I guess that 51 the deal because Beth even started calling the cat, “Alice”. I doubt Alice will ever agree to become an 52 cat but she seems to have made Beth her forever 53 . It makes me smile seeing such a dog person getting such love from a stray cat, but Beth has a(an) 54 and love that 55 all sorts of animals to her from dogs, to cats, to birds.
Isn’t it 56 how love works its way into our hearts and lives We are 57 our own business and 58 we have a new pet, or a new friend, or get a 59 to share an act of kindness. Let your love 60 into the lives of others as well. Because to love is to truly live and to live is to truly love.
41. A. house B. car C. window D. stairs
42. A. touched B. approached C. witnessed D. sought
43. A. Constantly B. Gradually C. Finally D. Firstly
44. A. independence B. course C. routine D. strength
45. A. garden B. hall C. crack D. kitchen
46. A. operating B. running C. happening D. going
47. A. awful B. real C. strange D. similar
48. A. stared B. greeted C. received D. bothered
49. A. spotted B. punished C. admitted D. petted
50. A. paid B. lent C. urged D. left
51. A. cut B. stopped C. tried D. wrote
52. A. outdoor B. indoor C. outside D. inside
53. A. brother B. sister C. cousin D. friend
54. A. cleverness B. calmness C. kindness D. laziness
55. A. enjoys B. cares C. sees D. draws
56. A. amazing B. embarrassing C. amusing D. boring
57. A. doing B. minding C. thinking D. living
58. A. merely B. hardly C. suddenly D. slightly
59. A. moment B. word C. rest D. gesture
60. A. pour B. flow C. throw D. crash
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The 2022 World EV & ES Battery Conference（世界动力电池大会）will be held from July 21 to 23 in Yibin city in Southwest China’s Sichuan province.
As the world’s first world-class power battery industry event held in China, it will completely showcase the 61. ________ (late) achievements in cutting-edge power battery technology 62. ________green and low-carbon travel.
More than 800 guests will gather in Yibin, including foreign guests from some important countries or regions in the power battery industry, heads of 63.________ (fame) organizations etc.
The conference will mainly discuss the policies, regulations and industrial standard systems 64. ________ (relate) to the power battery industry and explore new trends of power battery technology.
Sichuan is a key location for the 65. ________ (grow) of China’s power battery industry and has formed a pattern of coordinated development among several cities in the province, with Yibin playing the 66. ________ (lead) role.
Yibin is currently home to six major battery cell projects 67. ________ total investment adds up to 64 billion yuan ($9.58 billion), said Liao Wenbin, mayor of Yibin. The annual output value of these projects 68. ________ (estimate) at more than 171 billion yuan when operating at full capacity.
The city has also attracted 56 power battery supporting projects with 69. ________ total investment of 66.8 billion yuan 70. ________ (meet) the needs of power battery companies.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
March 7 was a memorably day because I participated in Green Action hosted by the Students’ Union. We, along with my classmates, headed to the suburbs to plant trees in
the morning. Upon arrival, we begun to work immediately. I was responsible for dig the holes. Some of my classmates were planting the seedlings or some were watering them.
Then we put up a board to remind people protecting the trees. We took some photo to
record this meaningful activity after we left. Seeing the lines of trees, I was filled with a sense of the achievement, for I did my part to protect and beautiful our environment.
书面表达（满分25分）
昨天你参观了学校举办的环保主题书画作品展，请给校英文报写一篇稿件，内容包括：
1. 展览时间、地点；
2. 参观展览后的感受。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 题目已为你写好，可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
A Painting and Calligraphy Exhibition on Environmental Protection
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宜宾市2021-2022学年高二下学期期末考试
英语参考答案及评分意见
2022.07
第一部分（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 ACBCA 6-10 BCBBA 11-15 ACBCA 16-20 BACCA
第二部分（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
21-23 DAC 24-27 DCAB 28-31 BCDA 32-35 DBCA 36-40 EADBF
第三部分（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
41-45. ABCAC 46-50. DCBDD 51-55. ABDCD 56-60. ABCAB
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
latest 62. and 63. famous 64. related 65. growth
66. leading 67. whose 68. is estimated 69. a 70. to meet
第四部分
短文改错（共10小题; 每小题1分，满分10分）
March 7 was a memorably day because I participated in Green Action hosted by the
71 memorable
Students’ Union. We, along with my classmates, headed to the suburbs to plant trees in
72 I
the morning. Upon arrival, we begun to work immediately. I was responsible for dig the
73 began 74 digging
holes, some of my classmates were planting the seedlings or some watering them.
75 and
Then we put up a board to remind people ∧ protecting the trees. We took some photo to
76 of 77 photos
record this meaningful activity after we left. Seeing the lines of trees, I was filled with a
78 before
sense of the achievement, for I did my part to protect and beautiful our environment.
79 80 beautify
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按5档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法的准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
4. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考试。
5. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点：
1. 昨天参观学校举办的环保主题书画作品展，
2. 展览时间、地点；
3. 参观展览后的感受。
三、要点认定：
1. 考生必须有较完整的句子表达出要点。如只有关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为要点写出。
2. 围绕要点的发挥，如有语言错误，则扣语言分。
四、为了操作方便，按表达要点的多少和使用语言的情况，划分为五个档次，列表说明如下：
档次 得分 要点数 语言情况
五 21—25 5 语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
四 16—20 4 语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
三 11—15 3 语言有一些错误，尚能达意。
二 6—10 2 语言错误很多，影响表达。
一 0—5 1 只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词。
注意：
1. 原则上应按照考生所表达的要点数归档。如语言错误多，可降一档，如语言表达较好，可打该档最高分或上升一档。
2. 在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定五个分值。
1—2个错误，取该档次分值的高线（如一档中的24-25分）；3个错误，取该档次分值的中线（如一档中的23分）；4个错误，取该档次分值的低线（如一档中的21-22）；5个错误降一档（如二档中的20分）。以此类推。
录音原文
(Text 1)
W: Shh, don’t make a noise. It’s really late. You’ll wake the children.
M: OK, I’ll be as quiet as a mouse.
(Text 2)
W: Oh, I don’t know what to do — I hate making decisions!
M: I always make a list of the advantages and disadvantages, and then decide.
(Text 3)
M: Oh, no, I’ve made a mistake — look.
W: No, you haven’t. You’re doing it really well.
M: Well, I don’t think I’ve done a good job.
(Text 4)
W: Hello, sir. How can I help you
M: Er ... I really like these blue shirts. I wonder whether you have them in my size. I wear a size 44.
W: OK. I’ll go and have a look for you.
(Text 5)
M: Right, that’s it ... I’ve done the washing-up and the cleaning. And I’ve also picked up the children’s toys.
W: That’s great, darling. Would you like me to make you a cup of tea
M: Yes, please. Can I have a piece of cake, too
(Text 6)
M: Hello, Lily. Can you tell me what makes you want to run such a long race
W: I want to set an example to my son. Some young people nowadays say they love sports, but they only watch sports games on television.
M: That sounds like me. What should I do
W: You can begin with doing something easy, such as running slowly every morning.
M: Can I stick to one exercise
W: Of course you can, but you’d better do different exercises to keep fit.
(Text 7)
W: My plane leaves at eight o’clock this evening, doesn’t it
M: No, it leaves at seven.
W: Oh dear, I don’t have as much time as I thought.
M: Don’t worry. I’ve already booked a taxi to take you to the airport. It’s coming at four.
W: Oh, thanks David. Have you got any idea what time it gets in
M: I’ll have a look at your booking ... Here we are. The flight time is two and a half hours, and you will get into Chicago at nine thirty.
W: That’s great. I hope I’ll be at the hotel at half past ten.
(Text 8)
W: Dad, what are you watching
M: Hey, Diana. It is a program on admirable athletes.
W: What is an admirable athlete
M: An admirable athlete is an athlete who does positive things for the community.
W: Oh, like a sports star who spends a lot of money helping sick children
M: Exactly. Look, now they are talking about Cal Ripken Jr.
W: What admirable things did he do
M: He did a lot. For example, he gave poor children a chance to go to a baseball summer camp.
W: That was nice of him.
M: Yeah, it was. Now go back upstairs and finish your homework, Diana. After you finish it, you can come back and watch TV with me.
W: OK, Dad.
(Text 9)
W: Hey, Nick! Welcome home! How was your camp
M: Oh, Mom. It was so much fun! I’ve made so many unforgettable memories there!
W: What did you do
M: We did a lot of things, but my favorite was going up in a hot-air balloon. Oh, I also won first prize in a guessing game!
W: Wow! What did you win
M: An MP3 player. Here, take a look.
W: Cool! That is a great prize.
M: Wait! There’s more. One of the campers got lost on a hike. Everyone was scared to look for him because it was dark. But I wasn’t! I went into the woods with my teacher and found the boy beside the river.
W: Aren’t you brave!
M: After that they interviewed me. On Monday, my picture will be in the school newspaper!
W: It sounds like you had quite a lot of adventures, Nick! I am proud of you!
(Text 10) (W)
For better or for worse, all of us were born with strengths and weaknesses. That is what makes us each special. The problem is that our weaknesses can often get in the way of us getting things we want. That is why I want to talk about ways to overcome weaknesses. Once you learn to overcome your weaknesses, you will be a more successful person. Now, the first step is to know your weaknesses. The easiest way to do this is to take a personality test. You can easily find one online. Second, decide which weaknesses you really need to improve. Nobody needs to be good at everything. So if you can focus on the skills you need to improve, it will be a better use of your time. Third, make a plan on how you will improve your weaknesses. If you have trouble making friends, for example, make a plan to talk to five new people every week. Making a plan will help you take quick action. If you have any questions, please come and find me at the teachers’ office, Monday through Friday between 9 am and 11 am.