2022年春季学期期末教学质量检测试卷
七年级英语
(考试时间:120分钟;满分:120分)
注意事项：
1.本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。答第Ⅰ卷时，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目第1～70小题的答案标号涂黑；答第Ⅱ卷时，用黑色水笔将答案写在答题卡上，在本试卷上作答无效；
2.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回；
3.答题前,请认真阅读试卷和答题卡上的注意事项。
第Ⅰ卷 选择题（满分90分）
第一部分 听力理解(共四节，满分30分)
第一节 听音辨图（每小题1分，共5分）
听下面五个句子，从所给的六个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的图画。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来选择其对应选项。其中有一选项为多余选项。每个句子仅读一遍。
A. B. C.
D. E. F.
1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______
第二节 情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）
听下面五个句子，每个句子后有一个小题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳的答语。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子仅读一遍。
6. A. Her. B. Mine. C. Our.
7. A. Yes, of course B. Great! C. You’re welcome.
8. A. Have a picnic. B. OK. C. Yes, it is.
9. A. I have no idea. B. I don’ know. C. Thank you.
10. A. Not at all. B. Thank you. C. Small.
第三节 对话理解（每小题1分，共10分）
听下面六段对话，每段对话后有一至三个问题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一组对话，回答第11小题
11. How did the man go to Guilin
A. By car. B. By train. C. By plane.
请听第二组对话，回答第12小题
12. What would she like to buy in a clothes shop
A. A T-shirt. B. A book. C. A map.
请听第三组对话，回答第13小题
13. What is Tom doing now
A. Playing a game. B. Watching TV. C. Doing the dishes.
请听第四组对话，回答第14-15小题
14. How much are these sausages
A. Thirty yuan a kilo. B. Thirty-one yuan a kilo. C. Thirty-eight yuan a kilo.
15. How much is she going to pay(付) _________ yuan.
A. 76. B. 66. C. 38
请听第五组对话，回答第16-17小题
16. What is the woman’s job
A. A cook. B. A waitress. C. An artist.
17. What will the man have for dinner
A. Noodles and an egg B. Porridge and eggs. C. Juice and noodles.
请听第六组对话，回答第18-20小题
18. What day is it today
A. Friday. B. Sunday. C. Saturday.
19. What does the girl want to do
A. Go shopping. B. Go to the library. C. Go fishing.
20. Where do the girl and the boy go at last
A. The library. B. The shop. C. The cinema.
第四节 短文理解（每小题2分，共10分）
听下面一篇短文，短文后有5个小题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项。听短文前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒 钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。听下面一篇短文，回答第21至25小题
21. Who are our friends
A. Animals. B. Li Ming. C. Mr. Wang
22. Where are some animals living
A. In the city. B. In big woods (森林). C. In the country.
23. Can people teach the elephant to do any heavy work
A. Yes, they can. B. No, they can’t. C. Good idea.
24. Which animal can help people in danger(危险)
A. A lion. B. A tiger. C. A dog.
25. Why do most of children like to go to the zoo
A. Because it’s beautiful.
B. Because it’s nice.
C. Because there are many animals in zoos.
第二部分 英语知识运用(共三节，满分25分)
第一节 单项填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
26. We like taking ____ walk after supper.
A. / B. a C. an D. the
27. There is a bookshop _____ Green Street.
A. on B. with C. at D. of
28. I’d like to _____ the English club.
A. take B. make C. go D. join
29. Last weekend, we ______ our grandpa and grandma.
A. visit B. visits C. visited D. visiting
30. There _____ many people here on vacation.
A. is B. am C. are D. was
31. Would you like some ________
A. chicken B. noodle C. carrot D. potato
32. — What does Lucy look like
— She’s a _______ and thin girl.
A. heavy B. tall C. long D. straight
33. — ______ do you get to school
— I ride my bike.
A. What B. Who C. How D. Why
34. We can eat in the dinning hall, but we _____ eat in class.
A. aren’t B. weren’t C. needn’t D. can’t
35. — Mum, I want to go to the park with my friends this Sunday.
— ____________
A. Sorry. B. Thank you. C. Goodbye. D. Have a good time.
第二节 补全对话 （每小题1分，共5分）
根据对话内容，从方框中选出5个最佳选项补全对话，其中有一项为多余选项。
We can take some photos there. What about go on a trip We can go there by bike. How are you I believe they must be very happy. Why not ask someone else to join us
Amy: It's sunny today. 36._____________
Tony: That's a good idea. Where do you want to go
Amy: Let's go to the West Hill, OK
Tony: OK. Shall we take a bus there
Amy: 37._____________ It’s not very far.
Tony: Good! I will ride my new bike.
Amy: 38._____________
Tony: Let's tell Mike and Jane to go with us. They wanted to go last Sunday but it rained.
Amy: All right. 39.____________
Tony: What can we do there
Amy: 40.______________
Tony: That would be fine.
第三节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从第41—50小题所给的A 、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Hello, my name is Li Dan. I live in a small 41_____ in Guangxi. The 42_____ here is great. It isn't too 43_____ in summer. And it isn't too cold in winter. I 44______ living here. The village is а 45______ place, so many people come to 46______it every year. There is a 47_____ in my village and the water in it is very 48_____. Look! A woman is taking photos 49_____ a little girl. Two boys are reading books. Who is 50______ over there Oh, it's Huang Li. She dances well. The life here is very relaxing, isn't it
41. A. village B. home C. class D. school
42. A. water B. weather C. life D. food
43. A. warm B. cool C. hot D. cold
44. A. think B. want C. have D. like
45. A. dangerous B. beautiful C. far D. lonely
46. A. look B. watch C. meet D. visit
47. A. shop B. library C. river D. club
48. A. dirty B. clean C. terrible D. noisy
49. A. with B. in C. to D. at
50. A. playing B. singing C. dancing D. drawing
第三部分 阅读理解
（第51—55小题，每题1分；第56—70小题，每题2分。本大题满分35分）
A
In England, people often talk about the weather because they can experience(经历) four seasons in one day.
In the morning, the weather is warm just like in spring. Later, clouds come and it rains heavily. In the afternoon, the sun will begin to shine, and it will be sunny.
In England, sometimes you can swim in winter, and in summer sometimes you should take warm clothes with you.
When you go to England, you will see some English people take an umbrella or a raincoat with them on a sunny morning. Don’t laugh at（嘲笑） them. If you don' t take an umbrella or a raincoat, you’ll regret（后悔） later in the day.
根据短文内容，判断下列句子正误。正确的在答题卡上把“T”涂黑，错误的在答题卡上把“F”涂黑。
51. People like to talk about the weather in England.
52. In the morning, the weather is cold.
53. It will be sunny in the afternoon after it rains heavily.
54. In summer, you don’t take warm clothes with you.
55. English people often take an umbrella or a raincoat with them.
B
Do you know the two lovely mascots Look at the panda! We call it “Bing Dwen Dwen”. White is the colour of ice and snow. “Bing Dwen Dwen” likes ice sports very much and is good at them. That's why it is the mascot of 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
Do you think the red mascot looks like a lantern(灯笼) It is “Shuey Rhon Rhon”.(雪容融) When the Chinese New Year comes, people always make or buy red lanterns. Red is the colour of hope and good luck. “Shuey Rhon Rhon” can give players hope and help them do well in the 2022 Beijing Winter Paralympic(残奥) Games. Many people in different countries like the two mascots very much, and they show their love for them on the Internet.
根据短文内容，选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
56. What’s tne meaning of “mascot”
A.吉祥物 B. 纪念品 C. 火炬手 D. 运动员
57. _______is the mascot of 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
A. Fuwa B. Pan-Pan C. Bing Dwen Dwen D. Shuey Rhon Rhon
58. Why do people make or buy red lanterns when the Chinese New Year comes
A. Because it is easy to make red lanterns.
B. Because "Shuey Rhon Rhon" is a mascot.
C. Because people think red lanterns are very lovely.
D. Because people think red lanterns can bring good luck.
59. Which of the following is TRUE
A. “Bing Dwen Dwen” is good at ice sports.
B. “Shuey Rhon Rhon” is a white panda.
C. White is the colour of hope and good luck.
D. Only children like the two mascots.
60. What's the best title(标题) of the passage
A. The sports in Olympic Games
B. Two lovely Olympic mascots
C. 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games
D. 2022 Beijing Winter Paralympic Games
C
Food is a symbol of good luck, long life or fortune(财富). Here are some interesting foods.
In China, we usually eat dumplings to welcome the New Year. Dumpling is a symbol of good luck and good fortune. In Japan, people usually have long noodles on New Year’s Day because they hope to have long life. In Spain, people who eat 12 grapes at midnight will have 12 months of good luck in the coming year.
In UK, USA and Germany, people like to eat cabbage because it’s green, like the colour of money. Cabbage is a symbol of good fortune.
根据短文内容，选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
61. How many kinds（种类） of food are mentioned(提到) in the passage
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six.
62. What do Chinese people like to eat to welcome the New Year
A. Dumplings. B. Long noodles. C. Grapes(葡萄). D. Cabbage(卷心菜).
63. People in ________ like to have long noodles on New Year's Day.
A. China B. USA C. Japan D. Spain
64. When do people in Spain eat “the lucky grapes”
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon.
C. At noon. D. At midnight（午夜）.
65. Why do people in UK, USA and Germany want to eat cabbages
A. Cabbage is healthy.
B. Cabbage is delicious.
C. Cabbage is a symbol of good fortune.
D. cabbage is a symbol of good luck.
D
The Duanwu Festival is also called the Dragon Boat Festival. It is one of the Chinese traditional（传统的） festivals, celebrated（庆祝） on the fifth day of lunar（农历的）May. For 2,000 years, there are many celebrating activities all over the country. Eating Zongzi and racing dragon boats are popular. The festival is to honour（纪念）Qu Yuan.
Qu Yuan was a famous poet（诗人）. He loved his country and people very much. But he was unfairly treated（对待）. Hopeless and angry, he jumped into Miluo River and died. People used dragon boats to find his body but they couldn’t. Now, every year, people will do dragon boat racing on the Dragon Boat Festival. It is an important sport. And my favourite thing is to eat Zongzi. They are really delicious. I love the Dragon Boat Festival.
根据短文内容，选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
66. When is the Dragon Boat Festival
A. On lunar May 1st. B. On lunar May 5th.
C. On lunar March 5th. D. On lunar March 8th.
67. Dragon Boat Festival is a ________ festival.
A. new B. different C. modern D. traditional
68. The Dragon Boat Festival has a relationship（关系）with_________.
A. Li Bai. B. Qu Yuan. C. Du Fu. D. Li Yuan.
69. What do Chinese people usually do on the Dragon Boat Festival
A. Eating Zongzi and racing dragon boats. B. Eating Zongzi and playing games
C. Racing dragon boats and playing games D. Singing and dancing.
70. Who is Qu Yuan
A. A farmer. B. A worker. C. A doctor. D. A poet.
第II卷 非选择题（满分30分）
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 综合填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A.选词填空 根据短文内容，用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文意思完整。每个单词只能用一次。(共5小题，满分5分)
at class also like long
Miss Huang is a good teacher. She teaches us well. She is tall and beautiful with 71_____hair. She is healthy because she 72______to do exercise every day. She 73 _____likes reading. There is a library in our school, so she often goes there on the weekends. She is good 74_____ teaching and always makes her classes interesting. We all like her 75_____ very much.
B.单词拼写 根据题意及所给单词和 汉语提示，写出单词的正确形式，将单词完整地写在答题卡上，每空一词。（共10小题，满分10分）
76. Mr. Li often tells________ (story) for children.
77. I am ________ (interest) in drawing.
78. That’s a________ (fun) time for breakfast!
79. Jane usually________ (go) to school by bike..
80. Pandas are ________ (love) animals.
81. In________（夏天）, people like to go swimming.
82. Many people like to listen to ________（音乐）.
83. I can play________ （国际象棋）.
84. The bookshop is on your________ （右边）.
85. Spring Festival is a ________（受欢迎的）holiday in China.
书面表达（满分15分）
身体健康很重要。作为中学生要加强体育锻炼，保持健康。请根据提示用英语写一篇60--80词左右的短文，
内容如下：1.锻炼身体的好处；2.锻炼身体的方式；3.请你谈谈对体育锻炼的看法和建议。
要求:1.内容必须包括以上要点，可适当发挥；2.语句通顺，意思连贯，条理清楚，字迹工整；3.文中不能出现真实的人名和校名。
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2022年春季学期期末教学质量检测 七年级英语参考答案
第一节 听音辨图（共5分） 1-5 EFDBA
第二节 选择应答语（共5分） 6-10 BAACC
第三节 对话理解（共10分） 11-15 CABCA 16-20 BABAC
第四节 短文理解（共10分） 21-25 ABACC
第二部分 英语知识运用（25分）
第一节 单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）：26～30. BADCC 31～35. ABCDD
第二节 补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）： 36～40. BCFEA
第三节 完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）：41～45. ABCDB 46～50. DCBAC
第三部分 阅读理解
（第51-55小题，每小题1分。第56-70小题，每小题2分。本大题共35分）
51～55. TFTFT
56～60. ACDAB 61～65. BACDC 66～70. BDBAD
第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（30分）
第一节 综合填空（每小题1分，共15分）
选词填空71. long 72. likes 73. also 74. at 75. classes
单词拼写76. stories 77. interested 78. funny 79. goes 80. lovely
81. summer 82. music 83. chess 84. right 85. popular
第二节 参考作文（15分）
As we all know, doing sports is healthy. It can help us keep strong.
As a middle school student, I am busy with study, but I still do sports as often as I can, such as playing ball games, running, swimming and so on. My favorite sport is playing basketball. What' s more, I also take part in other kinds of activities. I also like climbing mountains, flying kites, boating and so on. I enjoy colorful sports. Let' s take sports and keep ourselves healthy.
英语科评分标准
一、选择填空（1～70小题）：答案唯一，与答案不符不给分。
二、选词填空（71～75小题）：答案唯一，与答案不符不给分（选词正确，但该变化而不作变化的、字母大小写拼写错误的不给分）。
三、单词拼写（76～85小题）：答案唯一，与答案不符不给分（数词不用英文拼写的不给分；字母大小写拼写错误的不给分）。
四、书面表达：按内容、表达、书写这三个方面赋分。其中，内容占8分，表达占5分，书写占2分。对照6个档次赋分范围及要求具体评分：
第6档（13-15分）：很好地完成规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯；使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法或词汇错误极少；书写规范；卷面整洁。
第5档（10-12分）：较好地完成规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较为完整，语句流畅，意思清楚；语法结构或词汇错误较少；书写规范；卷面整洁。
第4档（6-9分）：基本上完成规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构不够完整，少数语句不够通顺，意思基本清楚；语法结构或词汇错误较多；书写基本规范。
第3档（3-5分）：未按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句不通顺，意思不够清楚；语法结构或词汇错误多，影响理解；书写不够规范。
第2档（1-2分）：未按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，语句不通顺，意思不清楚；语法结构和词汇错误很多；书写不规范。
第1档（0分）：空白卷；抄写与题目内容无关的词句或全部用汉语拼音表述；书写潦草无法辨认；文中出现真实的人名、校名、地名或带有侮辱性、反动性语言。
