新和县实验中学2021-2022学年高二下学期期末考试
英语
(时间100分钟 分值:120分)
一、阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Follow this four-day route, and you’ll lose yourself in the wizard world of Harry Potter.
Day 1 Overview Edinburgh
It was in Scotland’s capital city that J. K. Rowling started to plot the adventures of Harry and his pals. With stoned streets, winding alleys and medieval(中世纪的) architecture, the city certainly has a few things in common with the settings from the books and films. She wrote the early chapters in various cafes around the city’s Old Towns.
Day 2 Overview travel to Fort William
Travel by train from Edinburgh to Glasgow. From there, you can take the West Highland Line to Fort William. This is a great way to see some famous spots from the window, including the mysterious Rannoch Moor, the place where Death Eaters board the train in the movie Harry Potter and The Deathly Hallows.
Day 3 Overview all aboard the Hogwarts Express
Witness the sweeping cinematic scenery of the movie Harry Potter by booking a seat on the Jacobite Steam Train. Stop for lunch in Mallaig and then make the return journey to Fort William. Please be sure to book the steam train in advance, as it is very popular. By the way, it runs seasonally.
Day4 Overview lakes and glens( 峡谷)
In the films, mysterious, misty landscapes frame the background of Harry’s tale, so it’s no surprise that the film producers chose the Highlands for many scenes. Spend a day wandering through some of these beautiful spots and feel the magical atmosphere.
1.Where did J. K. Rowling create Harry Potter at first
A.In Edinburgh. B.In Mallaig. C.In Glasgow. D.In Fort William.
2.What should you pay attention to if taking the Jacobite Steam Train
A.Reviewing the movie. B.Booking tickets in advance.
C.Bringing lunch ahead of time. D.Buying one-way ticket specially.
3.In which section of a newspaper will you read the text
A.Current Affairs. B.Technology. C.Tours. D.Biography.
B
English is the most widely spoken language in the world. And of the roughly 1.5 billion speakers globally, the vast majority speak it as a second language. So where are the world’s best non-native English speakers According to a new report by EF Education First, an international education company, Northern Europeans are the most fluent. Middle Easterners are the least proficient (精通的).
The index (指数) is based on the results of a free online test taken by 2.3 million volunteers in 100 countries. Nearly six in ten of this year’s test-takers were female. Women have always performed better than men, but this year men closed the gap somewhat.
In Europe, the powerhouse economies perform surprisingly badly: only Germany makes the top place of “very high proficiency” countries. France is next, while Spain and Italy are continuously falling behind. A study by a Spanish research institute reported the bad news: 60% of adults say they speak no English at all. The fact that Spanish is a global language in its own right (the language declares 400 million native speakers) is probably the cause. If you speak Danish, you need another language to take part in global culture; speaking French or Spanish (or Arabic) means hundreds of millions of people to talk to without English.
Asia is the region of greatest diversity (多样性). Only Singapore makes the top level, but the Philippines, Malaysia, and India are not far behind. China is further back but still in the second level, a few places ahead of Japan. Struggling in the bottom places are a group of South-East and Central Asian countries like Cambodia and Kyrgyzstan. This relates with another factor: the company repeatedly finds that English skills are highly related with connections and openness to the rest of the world.
4.Which is the best title for the text
A.Where are the world’s most non-native English speakers
B.Where are the fewest non-native English speakers
C.Where are the world’s best non-native English speakers
D.Where are the last non-native English speakers
5.What can we know about the online test
A.Half of this year’s test-takers were female.
B.Nearly 1.38 million of this year’s test-takers were female.
C.Women and men equally performed this year.
D.The gap between female and male is getting close year by year.
6.Why 60% of Spanish adults say they speak no English at all
A.Spanish is a global language itself. B.400 million Spanish speak English.
C.Spanish is easy to understand. D.English fails to attract them.
7.What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A.Asia is the region with the best non-native English speakers.
B.China is the second place with the best non-native English speakers.
C.Countries in South-East and Central Asian are less open in Asia.
D.Countries in South-West and Central Asian line in the bottom places.
C
One day when I was 12, my mother gave me an order: I was to walk to the public library, and borrow at least one book for the summer. This was one more weapon for her to defeat my strange problem—inability to read.
In the library, I found my way into the “Children’s Room”. I sat down on the floor and pulled a few books off the shelf at random. The cover of a book caught my eye. It presented a picture of a beagle. I had recently had a beagle, the first and only animal companion I ever had as a child. He was my “secret sharer”, but one morning, he was gone, given away to someone who had the space and the money to care for him. I never forgot my beagle.
There on the book’s cover was a beagle which looked identical(相同的) to my dog. I ran my fingers over the picture of the dog on the cover. My eyes ran across the title, Amos: the Beagle with a Plan. Unknowingly, I had read the title. Without opening the book, I borrowed it from the library for the summer.
Under the shade of a brush, I started to read about Amos. I read very, very slowly with difficulty. Though pages were turned slowly, I got the main idea of the story about a dog who, like mine, had been separated from his family and who finally found his way back home. That dog was my dog, and I was the little boy in the book. At the end of the story, my mind continued the final scene of reunion, on and on, until my own lost dog and I were, in my mind, running together
My mother’s call returned me to the real world. I suddenly realized something: I had read a book, and I had loved reading that book. Everyone knew I could not read. But I had read it. Books could be incredibly wonderful and I was going to read them.
I never told my mother about my “miraculous(奇迹)” experience that summer, but she saw a slow but remarkable improvement in my classroom performance during the next year. And years later, she was proud that her son had read thousands of books, was awarded a PhD in literature, and authored his own books, articles, poetry and fiction. The power of the words has held.
8.The author’s mother told him to borrow a book in order to ________.
A.encourage him to do more walking B.let him spend a meaningful summer
C.help cure him of his reading problem D.make him learn more about weapons
9.The book caught the author’s eye because________.
A.it reminded him of his own dog B.he found its title easy to understand
C.it contained pretty pictures of animals D.he liked children’s stories very much
10.Why could the author manage to read the book through
A.He was forced by his mother to read it.
B.He identified with(对某事有同感) the story in the book.
C.The book told the story of his pet dog.
D.The happy ending of the story attracted him.
11.Which one could be the best title of the passage
A.My Passion for Reading B.Mum’s Strict Order
C.Reunion with My Beagle. D.The Charm of a Book.
D
Do you want to live another 100 years or more Some experts say that scientific advances will one day enable humans to last tens of years beyond what is now seen as the natural limit of the human life span.
“I think we are knocking at the door of immortality(永生),” said Michael Zey, a Montclair State University business professor and author of two books on the future. “I think by 2075 we will see it and that’s a conservative estimate(保守的估计).”
At the conference in San Francisco, Donald Louria, a professor at New Jersey Medical School in Newark said advances in using genes as well as nanotechnology(纳米技术) make it likely that humans will live in the future beyond what was possible in the past. “There is a great effort so that people can live from 120 to 180 years,” he said. “Some have suggested that there is no limit and that people could live to 200 or 300 or 500 years.”
However, many scientists who specialize in aging are doubtful about it and say the human body is just not designed to last past about 120 years. Even with healthier lifestyles and less disease, they say failure of the brain and organs will finally lead all humans to death.
Scientists also differ on what kind of life the super aged might live. “It remains to be seen if you pass 120, you know; could you be healthy enough to have good quality of life ” said Leonard Poon, director of the University of Georgia Gerontology Centre. “At present people who could get to that point are not in good health at all.”
12.By saying “we are knocking at the door of immortality”, Michael Zey means_________.
A.they have got some ideas about living forever
B.they believe that there is no limit of living
C.they are able to make people live past the present life span
D.they are sure to find the truth about long living
13.Donald Louria’s attitude towards long living is that________.
A.the human body is designed to last past about 120 years
B.it is possible for humans to live longer in the future
C.it is still doubtful how long humans can live
D.people can live from 120 to 180
14.The underlined word“it”(in Paragraph 4)refers to________.
A.a great effort B.the conservative estimate
C.the idea of living from 200 to 300 years D.the idea of living beyond the present life span
15.What would be the best title for this text
A.No Limit for Human Life B.Living Longer or not
C.Science, Technology and Long Living D.Healthy Lifestyle and Long Living
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Close a Wound During First Aid
Closing and treating wounds (most often small scrapes) is a relatively common part of providing first aid. ____16____, your main priority should be stopping the bleeding and getting emergency help.
____17____. Quickly grab a clean cloth, towel and press the wounded region immediately. Hold it there for 3 minutes or until the bleeding stops, a small wound takes 25 to 30 seconds to clot, while a larger wound will take longer.
Stop the bleeding. You’ll need to hold a towel in place for a few minutes to fully stop the bleeding. In the case of a minor scratch, bleeding will normally stop not long after the cut is sustained.
____18____. Once the bleeding has stopped, you will need to clean out any residual dirt from the small wound. Using a pair of tweezers, gently remove any small stones or pieces of soil that may be stuck in the exposed flesh.
Clean the wound with cool water. Now that the wound is free of dirt and debris, your next priority is to clean the wounded area. If you’re near a house or building, you can use the water from a faucet. ____19____. Running water over the area for 5-10 minutes will remove any lingering dirt or bacteria.
Deposit a thin layer of antibiotic cream on the wound. This cream will kill any bacteria that may have gotten in the wound, and help the wound to heal more quickly. mon brands of antibiotic creams include Neosporin, Polysporin, A& D ointment or Bacitracin.
A.You should reapply pressure to the wound after the cleaning
B.If not, wash the wound with clean water from a water bottle
C.Control the bleeding
D.Apply gentle pressure to the small wound
E.It will also make the wound airtight
F.Remove any dirt from the wound
G.If the wound you’re treating is serious
二、完形填空(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
It was my first year of work as a doctor. That time was filled with frightening, uncomfortable ___21___ but the present one was the ___22___.
A woman in her early twenties had been ___23___ to theatre (手术室) after a traffic accident. She had suffered ___24___ injuries and the surgeons had been unable to save her life. After the consultant told her parents the news, I ___25___ them for some time as they were ___26___ quietly.
When I came out of the room, the consultant was standing outside. “I think it would be nice if it came from you,” he said. “What ” I asked.
“About organ donation,” he replied. I ___27___ hard. Surely, it felt extremely awkward and ___28___ to have this conversation while they were in deep sorrow. But the problem with organ donation is that every minute ___29___.
I opened the door and sat opposite them, ____30____ that I was only going to make things worse for them.
“It’s what she’d have wanted,” the mother said before I had even finished. The father ____31____. Although I had imagined they might ____32____ for me bringing up such a sensitive ____33____ in their moment of sadness, in fact they seemed pleased.
“She was always so ____34____,” her father added.
As the consultant and I left them, it ____35____ me that I’d been wrong in ____36____ it would be an awkward conversation. Nothing could take away the ____37____ of having lost their daughter. Yet this last, final act had ____38____ them and helped them feel that the ____39____ of their daughter lived on in this act of generosity.
____40____, it was one of the most heart-warming conversations I have ever had.
21.A.adventures B.arrangements C.possibilities D.experiences
22.A.best B.latest C.worst D.saddest
23.A.introduced B.removed C.rushed D.forced
24.A.slight B.severe C.curable D.common
25.A.accompanied B.watched C.promised D.approached
26.A.praying B.whispering C.sighing D.sobbing
27.A.listened B.objected C.ignored D.swallowed
28.A.ill-timed B.absent-minded C.black-hearted D.old-fashioned
29.A.connects B.counts C.passes D.struggles
30.A.surprised B.convinced C.excited D.confused
31.A.recalled B.nodded C.denied D.continued
32.A.bite their tongue B.make the ends meet C.hit the ceiling D.rock the boat
33.A.subject B.trade C.accident D.trouble
34.A.generous B.pleased C.optimistic D.special
35.A.went against B.relied on C.occurred to D.responded to
36.A.complaining B.thinking C.explaining D.pretending
37.A.regret B.mistake C.pain D.concern
38.A.failed B.freed C.rescued D.comforted
39.A.spirit B.image C.smile D.decision
40.A.Finally B.Importantly C.Occasionally D.Unexpectedly
三、语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
Most people nowadays are so busy with their lives that they do not have time to enjoy a healthy and ____41____ (balance) diet. For most individuals, as ____42____ result of eating foods rich in fats and sugar several years, they choose to go on a diet but do not succeed at the end. Be sure to be with a strong ____43____ (aware) that you are ____44____ you eat! Therefore, maintaining a healthy diet not only ____45____ (provide) your body with energy but also numerous health benefits. One is that you will keep a healthy weight and is also the easiest and most ____46____ (benefit) way in which you can be energetic and protect yourself ____47____ a number of diseases when growing old. Another benefit is that you will meet your everyday nutritional ____48____ (require). ____49____ (Basic) speaking, you should ensure that you take the good amount of vegetables, grains, milk and proteins. In most cases, a healthy diet can help you decrease the risk of ____50____ (get) some diseases like diabetes and cancer.
四、短文改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下画一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
My favorite TV program
My favorite TV program is Chinese Poetry Competition. The show has enjoyed greatly popularity since it launched by CCTV in 2016. Chen Gang from Beijing University had a outstanding performance but came out on top in this year' s season final. This TV show not only remind audience of those classic Chinese poem but also helps them truly appreciate the beauty and fun of poetry. That impresses me most is Flying Orders in the show, which I think is very difficult. This program lets me to enjoy the happiness brought by poetry. After watch the program, I begin to fall into love with poems.
五、书面表达(满分25分)
心理健康对我们非常重要,决定着我们的生活质量。请以 How to keep mental health 为题写一篇英语文章,向校报投稿。文章应包含以下内容:
1.心理健康的重要性;
2.保持心理健康的建议:了解自我,接纳自我;善于与他人相处;热爱生活与工作。
注意:1.词数100左右;
2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
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新和县实验中学2021-2022学年高二下学期期末考试
参考答案
1.A 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.B 6.A 7.C 8.C 9.A 10.B 11.D 12.A 13.B
14.D 15.B 16.G 17.D 18.F 19.B 20.E 21.D 22.C 23.C 24.B 25.A
26.D 27.D 28.A 29.B 30.B 31.B 32.C 33.A 34.A 35.C 36.B 37.C
38.D 39.A 40.D
41.balanced 42.a 43.awareness 44.what 45.provides 46.beneficial
47.from / against 48.requirement(s) 49.Basically 50.getting
51.1. greatly→ great 2.it 和 launched 中间加 was 3.a→an
4.but→and 5. remind→ reminds 6.poem→ poems 7.That→What
8.去掉 enjoy 前面的 to 9. watch→ watching 10.into→in
52.How to keep mental health
Mental health is something that decides whether we can live a happy life or not. However, mental health is easy to be overlooked, which can result in serious mental diseases. Here is some advice on keeping mental health.
First, know your own potential and accept yourself, Instead of having unpractical and high expectations and demands for yourself, you should make practical goals for your life.
Second, be sociable and make as many friends as possible. Try to be a person easy to get along with. When you are discouraged, you can share your trouble with your friends, whose comfort and help can greatly relieve your suffering and help you out.
Third, love your life and work. Try to display your talent in your work and you can get pleasure and satisfaction from your achievements, which can help you keep a good mood.