2022-2023学年四川省成都市蓉城名校联盟高三上学期10月第一次联考英语试题(Word版含答案,无听力音频有文字材料)

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名称 2022-2023学年四川省成都市蓉城名校联盟高三上学期10月第一次联考英语试题(Word版含答案,无听力音频有文字材料)
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版本资源 外研版(2019)
科目 英语
更新时间 2022-10-29 10:20:02

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蓉城名校联盟2022-2023学年高三上学期10月第一次联考
英 语
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生务必在答题卡上将自己的姓名、座位号和考籍号用0.5毫米黑色签字笔填写清楚,考生考试条形码由监考老师粘贴在答题卡上的“贴条形码区”。
2.选择题使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上对应题目标号的位置上,如需改动,用橡皮擦擦干净后再填涂其它答案;非选择题用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡的对应区域内作答,超出答题区域答题的答案无效;在草稿纸上、试卷上答题无效。
3.考试结束后由监考老师将答题卡收回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What did the man think of the reception last night
A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Interesting.
2. How did the woman come to meet the man
A. By car and by subway.
B. By subway and on foot.
C. By bus and on foot.
3. When did the man’s aunt come
A. On the 13th. B. On the 15th. C. On the 17th.
4. Why is the man here
A. To collect the papers. B. To meet a customer. C. To sign the contracts.
5. What are the speakers talking about
A. When to water the plant.
B. What plant to grow.
C. Which flowers to remove.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. When is the woman available for vacation
A. In August. B. In September. C. In October.
7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Couple. B. Colleagues. C. Strangers.
听下面一段对话,回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What will the man probably do next
A. Have some food.
B. Show his Identification Card.
C. Look for his boarding pass.
9. What is the woman probably
A. A waitress. B. A cleaner. C. An airport staff.
听下面一段对话,回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. Who does the man think is the most qualified
A. Amy. B. Cameron. C. Hector.
11. What makes the woman unsatisfied with Karine
A. Her language ability.
B. Her little enthusiasm.
C. Her lack of confidence.
12. Who expects the highest salary
A. Karine. B. Hector. C. Cameron.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. What is a requirement for the FBT Award application
A. Age. B. Experience. C. Nationality.
14. What does the man need to do before June
A. Finish the exams.
B. Provide the reference.
C. Hand in the application.
15. How many people can win the Bisiker Award every year
A. Two. B. Three. C. Five.
16. What does the woman stress at last
A. The application should be neat.
B. The summary should be long.
C. The personal details should be real.
听下面一段独白,回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. What can visitors do first near the main gate
A. See the bands.
B. Attend the book fair.
C. Watch the football match.
18. Who is the third gate for
A. Book sellers. B. Folk singers. C. Craft exhibitors.
19. What is on the left of the H-building
A. The information center. B. The restaurant. C. The exhibition center.
20. What can listeners do with the yellow ticket
A. Park for free. B. Store the items. C. Collect the equipment.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
The ancient Lake Baikal has a wealth of beautiful surprises. Nature aside, the region is also rich with culture — home to the Buddhists and the Buryat ethnic minority. Here are some more highlights.
Explore Olkhon Island
Absorbing your wilderness-conquering fantasies in hiking and camping wild on the dramatic cliffs and sandy bays of Olkhon, Lake Baikal’s largest, sparsely-inhabited island. Visit the Khoboy island in an old Soviet army jeep to view the largest of the shaman ritual sites and spot some Baikal seals sunbathing on the rocks below.
Visit the Ivolginsky Datsan
The Ivolginsky Datsan is the largest and most important Buddhist center in Russia. As you walk around this complex of brightly-colored temple buildings and simple monastic (僧侣的) dwellings, keep a look out for white towers and trees decorated with colorful prayer flags. Spin the prayer wheels, admire the giant Buddha statue with the offerings of coins, colored silks and rice and listen to the chanting of the monks amid clouds of smoke.
Hike the Great Baikal Trail
The Great Baikal Trail project aims to eventually surround Baikal with a series of paths. You can currently hike through a pine forest between the villages of Listvyanka and Bolshiye Koty, or from the picture-perfect fishing village of Baikalskoye to the cold Lake Slyudyanskoye via a striking cliff edge path.
Dive in
Legend has it that Baikal’s waters have miraculous properties, a swim in which gives you five extra years of life. The best places to take a dip include the golden sandy beaches along the northern shore of Olkhon Island, where the water of Maloye Morye (Little Sea) is at its shallowest and warmest, and at the long pebble beach in Severobaikalsk.
Hit the hot springs
The land around Lake Baikal is alive with hot springs, particularly in the small spa town of Arshan, situated in the picturesque foothills of the snowpeaked Eastern Sayan Mountains. The town itself is shabby, but the 1920s Arshan Spa still has the power to cure all kinds of ills with the mildly sulphureous (硫磺的) mineral water, according to the local legend.
21. If you believe in Buddhism, which place will you most possibly visit
A. Olkhon Island. B. The Ivolginsky Datsan.
C. The Great Baikal Trail. D. Arshan.
22. What can we know about from the passage
A. You can drive an old Soviet army jeep around Olkhon Island.
B. You can hike through all forests with the Great Baikal Trail project.
C. The water near Olkhon Island is the deepest so visitors can dive safely.
D. The medical benefits of the hot springs in Arshan have not been proven.
23. Where will you most likely to read the passage
A. In a medical magazine. B. In a geography textbook.
C. In a travelling brochure. D. On a science website.
B
On September 8th, 2022, Queen Elizabeth II, Britain’s longest-reigning monarch in history, died aged 96. Buckingham Palace announced her death on Thursday. Her son, Prince Charles, has now become Britain’s new king.
“The Queen died peacefully at Balmoral this afternoon,” Buckingham Palace said in a statement. “The King and The Queen Consort will remain at Balmoral this evening and will return to London tomorrow,” it added.
“The death of my beloved Mother, Her Majesty The Queen, is a moment of the greatest sadness for me and all members of my family,” King Charles said in a statement, “We mourn profoundly the passing of a cherished Sovereign and a much-loved Mother. I know her loss will be deeply felt throughout the country, the Realms and the Commonwealth, and by countless people around the world.”
“Queen Elizabeth II was the rock on which modern Britain was built,” Britain’s Prime Minister Liz Truss said in a statement.
Earlier in the day, Buckingham Palace said the monarch was under medical supervision due to doctors’ concerns over her health. The royal family members soon rushed to Scotland to be at her side following the announcement.
In the evening, royal staff hung obituaries (讣告) on railings in front of Buckingham Palace. Crowds braved the rain to pay their respects and many laid flowers outside Windsor Castle.
Queen Elizabeth II has significantly reduced her public engagements since the death of her husband Prince Philip in April last year, and canceled or postponed many official engagements after being hospitalized in October last year. She was diagnosed with the coronavirus in February.
Born on April 21, 1926, Elizabeth II was announced Queen after the death of her father, King George VI, on Feb. 6, 1952. She was formally crowned (加冕) the monarch of the United Kingdom on June 2, 1953.
24. How long was Elizabeth queen of Britain
A. 70 years. B. 96 years. C. 69 years. D. 68 years.
25. What does Liz Truss think of Queen Elizabeth
A. She is the greatest queen in the history of Britain.
B. She is a beloved mother.
C. She plays an important role in the modern history of Britain.
D. She is a popular queen respected by her people.
26. Why did Queen Elizabeth appear in public less frequently
A. Because her husband died and her health was in bad condition.
B. Because she got tired of fame and wealth.
C. Because she wished a quieter life when she was old.
D. Because she would like Prince Charles to appear in public more.
27. Which of the following can be the best title for the text
A. Farewell to Queen Elizabeth II
B. Queen Elizabeth II: a Beloved Mother
C. The Wonderful Life of Queen Elizabeth II
D. A Highly Honored Queen
C
In Yarmouth I was put on the long-distance coach to London, and travelled all through the night. At the coach station in London I was collected by a teacher, Mr. Mell, and taken to Salem House, the school which Mr. Murdstone had chosen for me.
The school was a large old building with a dusty playground, surrounded by a high brick wall. It looked strangely deserted. I was very surprised to find that none of the boys were there, and was told that they were all on holiday, and that I had been sent there during the holidays as a punishment for my wickedness. The headmaster and teachers were on holiday too, all except for Mr. Mell, who had to look after me.
I spent a whole month in that miserable place, doing my lessons in the dirty, empty classroom, which smelt of old food and unwashed boys. Every evening I had to eat my supper with Mr. Mell, and then go straight to bed. The worst thing was the sign I had to wear round my neck. It said: BE CAREFUL!HE BITES. I was only allowed to take it off when I went to bed.
Although I was extremely lonely and unhappy at this time, I was not looking forward to meeting all the other boys. I felt sure they would laugh at me and especially at the sign I was forced to wear. But one day Mr. Mell told me that the headmaster, Mr. Creakle, had returned, and wanted to see me. So I went,trembling, to his part of the house.
I realized at once that Mr. Creakle lived much more comfortably than the boys or the teachers. He was a small, fat man with a purple nose, who was sitting in an armchair with a bottle and a glass in front of him.
28. Which of the following best describes the school
A. Strange and crowded.
B. Old and abandoned.
C. Comfortable and empty.
D. Filthy and smelly.
29. Which can be the possible reason for the author’s being sent to the school
A. He needed a better environment for education.
B. He bit someone and got punished.
C. He was a wicked boy and was supposed to turn better.
D. He was unhappy and lonely so he intended to meet other boys.
30. How did the author feel when he was to meet the headmaster
A. Overjoyed.
B. Terrified.
C. Eager.
D. Surprised.
31. What would the author write about in the paragraphs that follow
A. How he missed his parents.
B. How Mr. Mell taught him lessons.
C. How he communicated with Mr. Creakle.
D. How Mr. Creakle comforted him and had a big dinner with him.
D
Scientists have revealed just how dangerous energy drinks can be, and can cause a sudden heart attack in some cases. While we all probably assumed that the large amounts of caffeine contained in these drinks probably weren’t great for our health, a study has now explored how another common ingredient could be dangerous.
Guarana, a plant containing caffeine, is commonly used in energy drinks and can often lead to unexpected reactions when combined with other ingredients. In the case of energy drinks, guarana is often combined with ginseng (西洋参) or taurine (硫磺酸) to improve flavouring.
A study explained the risk of sudden heart attack in young people after consuming such drinks. They wrote: “It seems clear that energy drinks might lead to critical events relating to the heart and blood vessels in the young population, even some of which are unable to recover.” The scientists wrote that such drinks can lead to fatal events, with heart attacks often occurring without warning.
A 2021 Australian study, published in the Nutrition Journal, surveyed 8,942 students aged from 12 to 17 years old. Of the sample, they found that eight percent of students reported drinking energy drinks at least once a week, while one in four students had consumed energy drinks at least once. While a study of a 21-year-old UK man was published in BMJ Case Reports in 2021, who had unexpectedly been experiencing a heart attack. The report stated: “There was no significant past medical history and he had no family history of heart attacks.” However, the man had explained he had been drinking four 500 ML energy drinks a day for approximately two years — with each drink containing 160 mg of caffeine. The study added: “Given the history of long-term energy drink consumption, lack of significant past medical or family history, heart imaging findings and improvement with ceasing intake, energy drink-caused cardiotoxicity (心脏毒性) was felt to be the most likely cause.”
32. What does the underlined word “fatal” in paragraph 3 probably mean
A. Energetic. B. Deadly. C. Occasional. D. Significant.
33. Why is ginseng added to energy drinks
A. To make the drinks more nutritious.
B. To make the drinks more effective.
C. To make the drinks taste better.
D. To make the drinks more expensive.
34. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. The ages of the participants range largely.
B. Most students surveyed drink energy drinks once a week.
C. The family members of the 21-year-old UK man are all very healthy.
D. The conclusion that the illness was caused by energy drinks was based on several factors.
35. What is the main idea of the passage
A. Energy drinks may cause heart attacks in young people.
B. Some studies about energy drinks are carried out.
C. Young people consume a large amount of energy drinks.
D. Energy drinks lead to critical events.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
It’s almost impossible to totally avoid stress, but these top tips will help you to get it under control so that it doesn’t take over your life.
36
Studies of both animals and humans show that social contact can help avoid body’s stress. So cultivate a network of people you can turn to. Share what’s bothering you with a friend and ask for some helpful advice. Avoid people who always need something without giving back or who are always short with you.
Avoid last-minute rushes
Leave the house 15 minutes early for appointments, set up a system for paying your bills (ask your bank about automatic bill paying), refill your prescriptions a week ahead of time and stock up on birthday cards whenever you see ones you like. 37 .
Make time for yourself
Give higher priority to your “relax and renewal” time. Include it in your schedule at least every other day. 38 . Or spend some time alone reading or listening to music you love.
Laugh a lot
39 . Laughter also stimulates your heart, lungs and muscles and boosts your resistance to infection. It’s nearly impossible to stay tense while you’re laughing. If you laugh for 20 seconds, your body gets the same amount of beneficial oxygen — very good for stress relief — as it does in three minutes of exercise. Plus, it’s nearly impossible to stay tense while you’re laughing. 40 . Share jokes with friends over email.
If you feel you’re experiencing more stress than you can manage, you may want to talk to your doctor about getting help.
A. Lean on other people
B. Share your problems with friends
C. So you’d better laugh all day long
D. A little advance planning can spare you a lot of headaches
E. Find cartoons, videos, TV shows, writers and comics that make you laugh
F. If you have to cut out an activity to make time for your hobby — or a warm bath — then do it
G. When you laugh, you send chemicals called endorphins to your brain that ease pain and
enhance your feeling of well-being
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Laungi Bhuiya, a man from a small village named Kothilwa in India, has a noble dream — to bring water to his village. To 41 this, he did the seemingly (看似) 42 — dig a canal through the land so that water can 43 from the hills to his village.
Thus started Bhuiya’s digging, which went on for almost 30 years. But his 44 brought him scorn (鄙视) from the people in his village. His own wife called him “mad.” She tried everything to 45 him, even to the point of denying him food, but she 46 .
“I was always 47 with him for not caring about the children. There was never any money, never enough food,” she said.
Using only 48 tools, Bhuiya spent years digging through Kothilwa’s barren landscape. 49 , he was able to create a three-kilometer canal. His 50 earned him the reputation as the “madman”.
Kothilwa is a(n) 51 village home to almost 750 people, most of whom live in mud huts and 52 a couple of wells for drinking water. They don’t have enough water for irrigation (灌溉), therefore making them unable to grow 53 to feed themselves. This is what 54 Bhuiya to build the canal.
Eventually, the 55 learned about the story of this 56 “madman”. A local journalist, Jai Prakash, wrote a report about him and published it in a local Hindi newspaper, which was a breakthrough for Bhuiya. Kothilwa was then 57 by journalists, social workers, and political leaders, all wanting to 58 Bhuiya.
The villagers’ 59 to Bhuiya has changed as well. They even asked the government for a road to be 60 in the village and named after Bhuiya.
41. A. promote B. accomplish C. stop D. solve
42. A. impossible B. perfect C. necessary D. important
43. A. float B. blow C. roll D. flow
44. A. energy B. talent C. enthusiasm D. interest
45. A. discourage B. protect C. support D. criticize
46. A. continued B. failed C. returned D. forgot
47. A. strict B. satisfied C. bored D. angry
48. A. simple B. advanced C. heavy D. expensive
49. A. Suddenly B. Generally C. Constantly D. Finally
50. A. words B. dreams C. efforts D. beliefs
51. A. poor B. famous C. beautiful D. abandoned
52. A. think of B. depend on C. give away D. put aside
53. A. trees B. flowers C. weeds D. crops
54. A. advised B. required C. motivated D. allowed
55. A. school B. hospital C. company D. media
56. A. determined B. proud C. stupid D. ridiculous
57. A. searched B. studied C. visited D. remembered
58. A. hire B. meet C. pay D. recognize
59. A. devotion B. donation C. reply D. attitude
60. A. built B. opened C. enlarged D. improved
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Earlier this month, a team of doctors in Russia managed to complete an open heart surgery as the hospital caught fire. Now a picture 61 (take) at the operating theater goes viral on social media, 62 (move) the netizens (网民) everywhere.
According to reports, firefighters 63 (battle) the flames from outside the building as more than 120 patients and medical workers were being evacuated (转移). Despite this, the eight doctors did their best to finish the operation at the ground floor 64 (successful). Soon thereafter, the patient was evacuated to the regional hospital, 65 is about 5 kilometers away.
Cardiac surgery center department head Valentin Filatov said:“There was nowhere to go, the man had to be saved. We did everything at the 66 (high) level, as they say.”
Antonina Smolina, one of the medics, shared that “there was no panic” among the hospital crew.
When responders realized that the surgery could not 67 (stop), they made sure that the operating room would have sufficient power supply by providing an electric cable. They also had to keep smoke 68 entering the theater.
Amur Region’s Ministry of Health later released an official 69 (state), saying the operation during a fire was performed smoothly. Meanwhile, the government authorities will award the doctors for 70 they have done.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
In China handwriting was regarded as not only a basic skill, and a form of valuable cultural treasure. However, with the rise of digital technology, more and more students choose to type on computers and smartphones instead of writing by a hand, which as a result lead to their poor handwriting. So measures must be taken improve the present situation. First, there should be handwriting lessons, especial in elementary and middle schools. Besides, schools should hold various handwriting competition to encourage the students to practice our handwriting skills. What’s more, every student should become aware that it is still with vital importance to develop their handwriting because computers and smartphones can be convenient and time-saving.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假设你是李华。近期,你校英语俱乐部将举办迎新派对,请你代表高三学长发言,向来自高一的新成员分享你的高中生活以及给他们的建议。请你根据以下要点写一篇发言稿。
1. 你的高中生活回忆;
2. 给高一新成员的建议。
注意:
1. 词数100左右;
2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
3. 文章开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Good afternoon!My dear new friends,
That’s all! Thank you for your listening!蓉城名校联盟2022-2023学年高三上学期10月第一次联考
英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
1~5 ACBAB 6~10 CABCB 11~15 CBACB 16~20 ABCAC
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
21~23 BDC 24~27 ACAA 28~31 DBBC 32~35 BCDA
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
36~40 ADFGE
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
41~45 BADCA 46~50 BDADC 51~55 ABDCD 56~60 ACBDA
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
61. taken 62. moving 63. battled 64. successfully 65. which
66. highest 67. be stopped 68. from 69. statement 70. what
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
(
In China handwriting
was
regarded as not only a basic skill,
and
a form of valuable
is
but
cultural treasure. However, with the rise of digital technology, more and more students choose
to type on computers and smartphones instead of writing by a hand, which as a result
lead
to
leads
their poor handwriting. So measures must be taken∧improve the present situation. First, there
to
should be handwriting lessons,
especial
in elementary and middle schools. Besides, schools
especially
should hold various handwriting
competition
to encourage the students to practice
our
competitions
their
handwriting skills. What

s more, every student should become aware that
it is still
with
vital
of
importance to develop their handwriting
because
computers
and smartphones can be
although/though/while
convenient and time-saving
.
)
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
Good afternoon! My dear new friends, now I feel honored to share something about my senior high school life with you.
Actually, there are lots of precious memories in this school. But what I want to share most is my experience of being a member of the English Club. During the last two years, I’ve participated in many interesting and meaningful activities, such as the English speech competition, from which I’ve not only gained knowledge and skills, but also made some friends.
In my opinion, to enjoy a wonderful senior high school life, firstly, you should have clear goals. What’s more, make sure you have a reasonable plan and manage your time well. Of course, don’t be afraid of asking for help whenever you have trouble. And I’m always here ready to help you!
That’s all! Thank you for your listening!
书面表达评分标准:
一、各档次语言要点配分参考标准
档 次 要点数 要点分 语言要点表达情况划档依据
第五档 5 21~25 语言基本无误,行文连贯,表达清楚
第四档 4 16~20 语言有少量错误,行文基本连贯,表达基本清楚
第三档 3 11~15 语言有一些错误,尚能表达
第二档 2 6~10 语言错误很多,影响表达
第一档 1 0~5 只能写出与要求内容有关的一些单词
二、内容要点认定及计分参考标准
1、分享自己的高中生活回忆(计15分);
2、给高一新成员的建议(计10分)。
三、扣分参考依据
1、其表达未能达成正确句意的,不给分, 如:写出了主语或谓语等关键词,但未能达成符合要点要求、意义正确的句子;
2、句子结构完整、但关键点出现错误或漏掉部分关键词,扣半个要点分,如:主谓一致错误,或关键词拼写错误(如主语,关键性名词等),或谓语动词时态/语态错误等;
3、凡使用铅笔答题、或答题中使用了涂改液或不干胶条,一律不给分;
4、凡多次出现非关键性单词拼写错误或其它同类错误,原则上每4处扣1分;
5、文章内容要点全面,但写出了一些多余内容(连接或过渡词句不在此列),原则上不扣分;
6、凡书写超出规定的答题区域,全卷不给分;
7、书写潦草凌乱、但基本不影响阅卷的,酌情扣卷面分1~2分。
注意:
1、考生如果写出四个完整的要点,原则上定为第三、四档,即11~20分之间。语言错误相对较多,则属于第三档,即在11~15分之间。语言错误相对较少,但多数为简单句,则属于第四档,即在16~20分之间。如果考生使用了很多高级表达,且句式多样,则为第五档,即在21~25分之间。不过,满分需慎重。
2、考生如果写出了全部要点,原则上分值不少于11分。若实在无句子,则降一两分。
答案解析
阅读理解
A篇
主题语境:人与自然 语篇类型:应用文
语篇大意:本文简要介绍了旅游景点 Lake Baikal的一些自然人文特色。
21. B. 细节理解题。根据第三段第一句可知,the Ivolginsky Datsan是俄罗斯的佛教中心。
22. D. 细节理解题。从第二段第三行可知,你可以乘army jeep参观,但未说你可以自己开车参观,因此A错。从第四段看只能通过一个松树森林,所以B错。从第五段where the water of Maloye Morye (Little Sea) is at its shallowest and warmest可知C错,从最后一段可知温泉的医疗效果是传说,因此未被证实,D对。
23. C. 推理判断题。根据文章内容可推断本文很有可能来自旅游小册子。
B篇
主题语境:人与社会 语篇类型:新闻
语篇大意:本文简要报道了英国女王去世以及人们悼念她的消息。
24. A. 细节理解题。由第一段On September 8th, 2022, Queen Elizabeth II, Britain’s longest-reigning monarch in history, died aged 96,和最后一段Born on April 21, 1926, Elizabeth II was announced Queen after the death of her father, King George VI, on Feb. 6, 1952,可知其在位时间为70年。
25. C. 细节理解题。根据第四段可知选C。
26. A. 细节理解题。根据倒数第二段第一句可知选A。
27. A. 主旨大意题。新闻特点看第一段以及综合分析全文可知,选A。
C篇
主题语境:人与社会 语篇类型:记叙文
语篇大意:本文节选自狄更斯小说大卫科波菲尔,讲述大卫因咬了人而被送到学校作为惩罚的场景。
28. D. 细节理解题。根据第三段第一句可知,这个学校又脏又臭。
29. B. 细节理解题。根据第三段倒数第二句他被挂了上面写着他咬人的牌子。可知,他可能咬了某人,又因为前面写了这是Mr. Murdstone为他选的学校,是作为惩罚的。可以推出他是因为咬了人而被送到这个特别的学校。
30. B. 细节理解题。根据倒数第二段最后一句可知,主角当时很害怕,在发抖。
31. C. 推理判断题。根据最后两段可知,接下来应该会写主角与校长之间的对话。
D篇
主题语境:人与社会 语篇类型:说明文
语篇大意:本文讲述了功能饮料有可能引起心脏病,青少年尤其需要注意。对此进行研究的心脏病专家指出,很多看起来健康的青少年,在运动前后饮用含大量咖啡因的功能饮料可能会引起突发心脏病或者心率不稳。
32. B. 词义猜测题。根据第三段The scientists wrote that such drinks can lead to fatal events, with heart attacks often occurring without warning.可知,这种饮料可能导致fatal events,而这种时候会毫无预警地心脏病突发,可知应该是致命的。
33. C. 细节理解题。根据第二段最后一句可知,西洋参加进去是为了增加风味,让饮料更好喝的。
34. D. 推理判断题。根据第四段 8942 students aged from 12 to 17 years old可知A错,由 eight percent of students reported drinking energy drinks at least once a week可知B错。由he had no family history of heart attacks可知他家人没有心脏病,但不能推理出健康,因此C错。而由“Given the history of long-term energy drink consumption, lack of significant past medical or family history, heart imaging findings and improvement with ceasing intake, energy drink-caused cardiotoxicity (心脏毒性) was felt to be the most likely cause.” 可知结论是综合了几方面考虑得出的,因此D对。
35. A. 主旨大意题。概括全文大意可知本文主要介绍了功能饮料有可能引起心脏病,尤其是年轻人。
七选五
主题语境:人与社会 语篇类型:说明文
语篇大意:本文简要介绍了如何帮助人们减轻压力的几个做法建议。
36. A. 根据下文social contact can help avoid body’s stress可知选A,依靠他人。与人建立社会联系,进行接触。不选B,因为第二行提到的 Share what’s bothering you with a friend 只是与人联系的一个方法。
37. D. 由小标题Avoid last-minute rushes可知D合适,意思一致。
38. F. 根据小标题Make time for yourself可知,要找时间做点自己的事,F项意为“如果你要取消一个活动来为自己的爱好腾时间,那么就这么做吧”,符合标题逻辑。
39. G. 本段小标题为要经常笑,那么第一句就先解释其原因,为什么要经常笑,与后一句的also也有递进关系。
40. E. 本段最后一句在讲要经常笑的具体做法,那么上一句可能也是在讲具体的其他做法。不能选C,因此C本身就是有问题了,要经常笑,但未说要一天到晚地笑。
完形填空
主题语境:人与社会 语篇类型:记叙文
语篇大意:本文主要讲述了印度村民Bhuiya历时30年独自徒手为自己的村子挖运河引水的故事。
41. B. 根据前文可知this指Bhuiya想要修建运河取水的梦想,因此是完成accomplish这个梦想。
42. A. 从后文看出靠Bhuiya自己的力量挖运河是一件十分困难的事。
43. D. 水应该是从山上流到村子里。
44. C. 从语境可以看出,Bhuiya花了30年的时间修建运河,他对这件事的热情引来的更多是大家的非议。
45. A. 从后文Bhuiya的妻子不给他饭吃可知她想打击他,让他放弃。
46. B. 从后文可知Bhuiya成功了,由此推断他妻子未能成功阻止他。
47. D. 根据本句语境可知,Bhuiya的妻子对于他不能顾家的行为非常生气。
48. A. 根据前文可知Bhuiya十分贫穷,因此只能使用很简陋的工具。
49. D. 根据后文可知,尽管历时30年,Bhuiya最终还是成功修建了运河。
50. C. 根据语境可知,Bhuiya的努力付出赢得了他的名声。
51. A. 根据后文人们住土坯房,没有办法灌溉可知,这个村子很贫穷。
52. B. 根据语境可知人们依靠一些水井获得饮用水。
53. D. 根据feed themselves可知,人们没有办法种庄稼。
54. C. 根据前文可知this指Bhuiya村子里人们困难的生活现状,这促使他萌发了修建运河的想法。
55. D. 根据后文记者采访他可知,他的故事最终被媒体所知。
56. A. 从前文可推断,Bhuiya历经30年为村里修建运河,是一个十分坚定的人。
57. C. 根据语境可知,Bhuiya的事迹被报道后,各种各样的人都来到他的村里,想见他。
58. B. 解析同上一题。
59. D. 根据前文有人鄙视他,再到后文人们想要相关部门在村里修建公路,并以Bhuiya的名字命名可知人们对他的态度有了很大的转变。
60. A. 解析同上一题。
语法填空
主题语境:人与社会 语篇类型:新闻
语篇大意:本文报道了俄罗斯某医院的医生在火灾的情况下,镇定地为病人成功做手术的英勇事迹。
61. taken. 分析句子成分可知此处为定语修饰picture,因picture与take为被动关系,故填过去分词taken。
62. moving. 分析句子成分可知此处为现在分词做伴随状语,故填moving。
63. battled. 根据全文语境可知消防员扑火是发生在过去的事,故时态为一般过去式,故填battled。
64. successfully. 分析句子成分可知此处为副词修饰finish the operation,故填successfully。
65. which. 分析句子成分可知此处为非限制性定语从句,先行词为hospital,故填which。
66. highest. 根据句意可知,此处为最高级,故填highest。
67. be stopped. 根据句意可知此处为被动语态,又因在情态动词后,故填be stopped。
68. from. 根据固定搭配keep sb from doing “阻止某人做某事”,可知此处填介词from。
69. statement. 分析句子结构可知此处填名词作released的宾语,故填statement。
70. what. 分析句子成分可知此处为宾语从句,且宾语从句中缺少宾语成分(事物),故填what。
听力材料
(Text 1)
M: Did you attend the reception last night
W: I would have gone if I had been free.
M: You didn’t miss anything. I wish I had been somewhere else more interesting.
(Text 2)
M: Katie, I waited for you for ages.
W: I left home in plenty of time, but then there was a car accident and the bus got stuck for ages. So I decided to get it off and walk. Sorry! I should have taken the subway.
(Text 3)
W: Has your aunt left, David
M: Yes, she went back home on the 17th. She was meant to come on the 13th but something happened, so it wasn’t till the 15th.
(Text 4)
W: Could you draw up these contracts for me I have a meeting with the customer in the afternoon.
M: I’m leaving to catch a flight in about 30 minutes. Hawkins is sending me to visit the Chicago office. I only came in to get some papers.
(Text 5)
M: I’d like to get a plant for the office and don’t want something I have to water frequently. I’m not sure what kind to get.
W: I can help you with that. How about those flowers
M: No, I’m allergic to some of them.
(Text 6)
M: Are you taking any vacation in the next few months
W: I’m not sure. Why do you ask
M: I’m trying to create a schedule of vacations.
W: Well, our kids are out of school in August, but I was thinking of going away in October. I can’t go before then. I have to wait until after the end-of-September marketing conference. It’s only January now, so I guess we don’t have to worry about that yet.
(Text 7)
M: Excuse me, I seem to have lost my boarding pass. I ate lunch at the food court just after I had checked in. I must have thrown it away with the garbage.
W: I see. I can print out another one for you. What’s your name, sir
M: It’s Frank Dobbs. I’m on the flight from here to Chicago that leaves around 3:00.
W: All right. I’ll just need to see your identification before I can print your new boarding pass.
(Text 8)
M: Well, that was interesting. Four very different candidates. My feeling is that Cameron has the highest qualifications, and he’s obviously the most experienced. What do you think
W: But I felt he wasn’t as enthusiastic as the others. My guess is that he is looking for a more challenging job.
M: How about Karine and Amy
W: They’re both young with little experience. Karine only just finished her training but she seemed the most enthusiastic. However, she was not as confident as the others. Amy speaks French and Spanish well, and I noticed that she does much more sport than the others.
M: Yes, I see what you mean. And finally, Hector.
W: He expects the highest salary. His qualifications aren’t as good as Cameron’s and his previous head teacher says he is the least punctual! He’s probably the worst candidate of the four. So, decision time!
(Text 9)
M: Dr. Warner, I want to ask about applying for awards. I’m interested in the FBT Award.
W: You have to satisfy a number of criteria. First, you have to be under 25 years old.
M: I won’t be 25 until next year. So that’s okay. Do I have to be a British citizen
W: No, but you have to come in the top five students in your finals.
M: But I won’t know until I’ve taken my exams.
W: The deadline for application is June 1, and that’s before the exams start. So they expect you to tell them afterwards.
M: Do I need any referees
W: Yes, two. Five students can win the FBT Award.
M: What about the Bisiker Award
W: It is a lot stricter, as it’s for a much larger sum of money.
M: I heard it’s not easy to get one as there are only three per year.
W: You’re right. The application is by way of a 5,000 word summary outlining how you plan to use the money, accompanied by your personal details. One thing that I would stress is that there have been complaints before about the lack of care taken in completing the forms and essays. This applies to you too. The application must be typed and tidy.
M: I see. Thanks.
(Text 10)
Good evening. Welcome to this planning meeting for the festival! Whether you’re a performer, a craft exhibitor or an artist, we all extend a big welcome to you.
First, let me familiarize you with the site. Please look at the map. You can see the main gate at the bottom of the map—that’s where visitors will enter It’s also the entrance for those taking part in the book fair: we’ve set the fair just on the left of the gate.
If you walk straight ahead from the main gate, you’ll come to some steps up to the football stadium. This is for rock bands, folk singers, and dancers. The entrance for them is on the far side. You can see a third gale for craft exhibitors opening onto a side path. On the path is the H-building where the exhibition is being housed. On the right of the building is a restaurant, and on the opposite side of the building is the information center. You have asked us if we can store your tables, chairs and display items overnight. We’re pleased to say that a room in the H-building has been made available. You’ll be issued with a yellow ticket to get back your equipment—it’s similar to the red parking tickets, so do check you bring the right one!
同课章节目录