山东省青岛莱西市(五四制)2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试(线上)英语试题(含答案、无音频)

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名称 山东省青岛莱西市(五四制)2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试(线上)英语试题(含答案、无音频)
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2022—2023学年度第一学期期末质量检测
初二英语参考答案及评分标准
1-------5 ACBAC 6-----10 ABCAB 11----15 CAEBD
16----20 ABBAC 21-----25CABCD 26----30 CBDBA
31----35 ACBDC 36----40 DABDB 41----45 BADCB
46----50 BCADC 51----55 EDGAC
(41-50小题,每小题1.5分;其余每小题1分)
七、A. 1. On March 31, 2022, in Guangzhou, Guangdong.
2. 下午6点左右,一辆公交车驶离车站。
3. They quickly came around the bus to move it.
4. the biker / the electric bike rider
5. Many hands make light work, as the old saying goes. / ...
说明:第5小题可以抄本句,也可写原创句,理解文本且表意正确即可得分。
B. 6. 她和她(创办)的杂志很受欢迎。
7. You're Never Too Young
8. young people;come true
9. She decided to do something special.
10. the children in the countryside
(评分说明:1-10每小题2分)
八、A. 1. fed 2. invites 3. moved 4. broke 5. is camping
(每小题1分,只选对单词可得0.5分)
B. 1. hardly 2. similar 3. twice 4. glasses 5. enough
(每小题1分,允许使用无拼写和语法错误的同义词)
C.1. going 2. first 3. from 4. on 5. well
6. Luckily 7. took 8. tickets 9. were 10. stayed
(每小题1分)
九、(15分)
附:中考英语书面表达评分原则供参考:
1.本题满分为15分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡
量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于70或多于120的,从总分中减去1分。
4.评分时,应注意:内容要点全面,词汇和语法应用正确,字数符合要求,语篇上下文
的连贯性好。短文与所给信息应融为一体。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求:
书面表达评分时分为五个等级:
1.(13-15分)要点齐全,语句通顺完整,语法、拼写无误,书写工整。
2.(10-12分)能写出大部分要点,语句较通顺完整,有个别语法、拼写错误,但不影
响句意理解,书写工整。
3.(7-9分)能写出部分要点,语句基本通顺完整,有少量语法、拼写错误,但尚能达
意,书写较工整。
4.(4-6分)能写出个别要点,语句不够通顺完整,语法、拼写错误较多,只有个别句
子可读,书写不够工整。
5.(0-3分)未能写出基本要点,语法、拼写错误多,不知所云,书写潦草。2022—2023 学年度第一学期期末质量检测
初二英语试题
(时间:100 分钟 满分:120 分)
说明:
1. 本试题分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分,共九道大题。第Ⅰ卷为选择题,共 55 小题,共 60 分; 第Ⅱ卷为非选择题,共三道大题,共 60 分。
2. 所有题目均在答题卡上作答,在试题上作答无效。
卷一(60 分)
第一部分 听力测试 (20 分)
一、听句子,选择相应的答语。每个句子听一遍。(5 分)
1. A. He has short straight hair. B. I’d like some tea. C. He’s a policeman.
2. A. Yes, I did. B. I lost my keys. C. It was great.
3. A. Beef noodles. B. Town Cinema. C. Miss Liu.
4. A. Once a month. B. I stayed up late. C. It was cheaper.
5. A. The air was clean. B. I work harder. C. I went to Guizhou.
二、听对话和问题,选择正确答案。每组对话听两遍。(5 分)
6. A. The waitress. B. The doctor. C. The singer.
7. A. Her mother. B. Her sister. C. Her friend.
8. A. She’s good at math. B. She is smart. C. She’s popular.
9. A. He played the piano. B. He played soccer. C. He played the drum.
10. A. Because she was tired. B. Because it was cold and rainy.
C. Because the food was expensive.
三、听短文,完成下列问题。(10 分)
听第一遍短文,将下列短语按照录音中出现的先后顺序排序。(5 分)
A. feels bored at home in winter B. learned a lot in geography classes C. spend her winter vacation with them D. is two kilometers from the station E. take the food to her grandparents
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
再听两遍短文,选择正确答案。(5 分)
16. Where do Cindy’s grandparents live
A. In a mountain village. B. Near the beach. C. In a small city.
17. How is the weather in Cindy’s city in winter
A. It’s very warm. B. It’s cold and dry. C. It’s windy and cool.
18. When did Cindy’s parents take her to the supermarket
A. On December 5th. B. Last Tuesday. C. A month ago.
19. How did Cindy feel when she got on the train
A. Excited. B. Bored. C. Worried.
20. How long did the train trip take
A. Twenty hours. B. Twelve hours. C. Eleven hours and a half.
第二部分 笔试 (40 分)
四、单项选择 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。(10 分)
21. Talent shows give people way to make their dreams come true. A. an B. the C. a D. /
22. School buses make it easier for students to get to school than before.
A. much B. too C. quite D. very
23. —I will be very busy today, Paul.
—Don’t worry, Mom. If you work late, I food online myself.
A. will reach B. will order C. reach D. order
24. the players tried their best, they lost the game.
A. So B. Because C. Though D. But
25. Could you speak louder so that everyone can hear you
A. quickly B. happily C. safely D. clearly
26. —What did you do this Dragon Boat Festival
—I the boat races on TV and read books.
A. watch B. am watching C. watched D. watches
27. Are the two pictures the same I can’t see any .
A. surprise B. difference C. service D. height
28. It’s difficult to decide which one to , because all of the coats are beautiful.
A. wonder B. dislike C. agree D. choose
29. You don’t need a lot of friends they’re good.
A. as soon as B. as long as C. all in all D. at least
30. —Would you like to go camping with us tomorrow
— . Catch you at 8:00 a.m.
A. I’d love to B. Have a good time C. Never mind D. You’d better not
五、完形填空 (10 分)
Many old people in China exercise in parks, dance in squares or spend time with their grandchildren. But 66-year-old Zhao Wenying from Zhejiang has a 31 life. She was a teacher and now she is a Rubik's Cube player.
“After 30 years of 32 in a primary school, I didn't know what to do after retiring ( 退 休 ),” Zhao said. “The Rubik's Cube gives me a new 33 .” She learned about it from her
granddaughter. She said, “She played in the math lesson with the cube and 34 it home. I was very interested, so I played with her.” At first, she learnt it very 35 . Then she watched the lessons online and 36 over four years learning it by herself.
When watching Super Brain (超级大脑), a 37 on Jiangsu TV, Zhao fell in love with
blind folded cube-solving ( 蒙眼解魔方). Players need to have their 38 covered ( 盖住)
when solving the cube. The shorter time, the 39 points. But for people in their 60s, it's
40 to learn it. Zhao met a lot of difficulties, but she never gave up. Now she holds the world's fastest record (纪录) for blind folded cube-solving for people over age 60.
31. A. different B. dangerous C. serious D. poor
32. A. dancing B. exercising C. teaching D. cleaning
33. A. size B. start C. laugh D. place
34. A. rode B. posted C. blew D. brought
35. A. differently B. early C. slowly D. loudly
36. A. lost B. took C. made D. spent
37. A. program B. theater C. guide D. heart
38. A. noses B. eyes C. mouth D. ears
39. A. cheaper B. shorter C. worse D. higher
40. A. careful B. difficult C. easy D. lucky
六、阅读理解 (A、B 篇每小题 1.5 分,C 篇每小题 1 分,共 20 分)
A
My name is Marcus. It's the start of our one-week school holiday in October — a holiday without technology ( 科 技 ). We cannot use computers, phones or any other technology. It's part of
our homework — spending the school holiday without technology
and keeping a diary about it. We need to spend fifteen minutes writing about our feelings in our diary every day and then send our diary on the Internet. That's the only time we can use technology!
It's only 4 pm on Saturday and I'm starting to miss my phone. My sister Mia is talking to her friend on the phone and she is laughing at me! My family don't think I can live without technology. I want to show them they are not right. How are my classmates doing
Dan, 15
I find it easy right now. I play football every Saturday, so I don't usually play on my computer.
Alexandra, 16
I'm feeling a little bored! I miss talking to my friends on the phone. I can't believe it's only the first day!
Sienna, 15
It's easy for me because I'm staying with my family in Wales for the holiday. We come here every October. The house doesn't have Wi-Fi, so my phone has no signal here. I'm writing this in a restaurant in the town. Our holidays here are always technology-free!
41. The holiday at Marcus’ school is special because .
A. students have no homework B. students can’t use computers or phones
C. the school is still open D. it’s the longest one in the world
42. What do students need to write in their dairies
A. Their feelings. B. Their dreams. C. Their family. D. Their problems.
43. Which of the following is .tr.u.e.
A. Marcus’ sister doesn’t want to use her phone.
B. Marcus’ family think he can live without technology. C. Marcus doesn’t miss his phone at all.
D. Marcus wants to show his family they are not right.
44. Which students think it easy to follow the holiday rules
A. Dan and Alexandra. B. Alexandra and Sienna. C. Dan and Sienna. D. Marcus and Mia.
45. What does the underlined (划线) word “signal” mean in Chinese
A. 电池 B. 信号 C. 装饰 D. 损坏
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)Hi, there! Today we asked some students about their last weekend. Here are their answers.
It was a different week than usual. Last Thursday, my school band
( 乐队) went to Atlanta to perform in a competition ( 比赛). I played the violin and won a prize! On Sunday, we went to the Georgia Aquarium and got to see different kinds of sea life from all over the world. It was really
cool!
46. When did Roger have a birthday party
A. Last Friday. B. Last Saturday. C. Last Sunday. D. Last Monday.
47. How many places did Sara visit on the school field trip
A. Three. B. Four. C. Two. D. Five.
48. How was Jenny’s weekend
A. Exciting. B. Boring. C. Terrible. D. Busy.
49. What did Frank do last Thursday
A. He met a lot of people. B. He saw different kinds of sea life. C. He bought some gifts. D. He won a prize.
50. What’s the best title (标题) of the report
A. When did you go to the park B. How often do you exercise
C. Did you do anything special last weekend D. Who’s got talent in your class
C
Do you think it difficult to learn a foreign language well In fact, it is possible for most of you. If you learn it in the right
way, you can learn it well. 51.
learning English as an example.
52.
Let's take
Scientists suggest that a language learner should learn more than 300 hours. As little as
30minutes a day can help you improve your English over time.
53.
Study a little grammar, next do a short listening exercise, and then perhaps read a passage with the same topic.
54.
Reading English newspapers and books, listening to the radio and music, or watching TV can help with your English writing, listening and pronunciation. Don't forget to write down new words and look them up in the dictionary.
55.
Take 30 minutes to write down what happens during your day. It is a necessary part of your learning. Writing exercises are a great way to practice. Day by day, you can become a better English learner.
根据短文内容,从下列选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项,选项中有.两.项.为多余
选项。
A. Read, listen and watch. B. You’re good at English. C. Write it down.
D. Study every day.
E. It’s important to find the right way. F. It’s too difficult for us.
G. Read, listen and watch.
卷二(60 分)
七、阅读表达 阅读短文,完成后面的任务。(20 分)
A
Would you like to help people in need On
March 31, 2022, there was an accident ( 事故) in
Guangzhou, Guangdong.
At about 6:00 pm, a bus left the bus stop. Just at that time, an electric (电动的) bicycle ran
into the back of the bus. Unluckily, one of the biker's hands went under a left wheel (车轮) of it.
A lot of people saw the accident. They quickly came around the bus to move it. As time went by, more and more people joined them. They tried their best to help the man. “People kept coming to help. It was all about saving the person first,” a man said. The bus was over
10,000 kg. But thanks to the helpers, the biker got free very soon. People took him to the hospital quickly.
Later, someone put a video ( 视频) of people working together to help the electric bike
rider on the Internet. Lots of people across the country watched it and they felt happy. They showed thanks to those people. They said, “Many hands make light work, as the old saying goes.”
From: http: //www.chinadaily.
1. 回答问题。When and where was the accident (2 分)
2. 将文中第二段中划线句子译成汉语。(2 分)
3. 从文中找出与“They went to the bus and tried to move it.”意思相近的句子。(2 分)
4. 根据上下文,写出第三段中划线代词 him 所指代的内容。(2 分)
5. 回答问题。What do you want to say to those people in the video (视频) (2 分)
B
Who is Kimeila Campbell She is a young girl from Jamaica. She is just 14, but she has al read y lau n ch ed ( 发行) he r own magazi n e. Sh e an d her mag azi n e are po p u lar no w.
Kimeila named her magazine YNTY. It stands for (代表) “You're Never Too Young”. She gives young people good advice ( 建议) in the magazine. She hopes it can help them become more confident (自信的). Also, she wants to help them make their dreams come true.
At the age of two, Kimeila started reading. When she was six years old, she moved to Queens. There were some changes ( 改变) in her life, but one thing didn't change —she still worked hard and tried to be confident. At 13, Campbell decided to do something special.
Then after a year, her magazine came out.
Kimeila is only 14 years old, but she is wise (有智慧的) for her age. She shows that a person is never too young to bring about change. “I want the children in the countryside to
know that no matter where they come from or how old they are, they can do something,” she
said. “You don't have to grow up before you can start making a difference.”
6. 将第一段中划线句子译成汉语。(2 分)
7. 回答问题。What does “YNTY” stand for (2 分)
8. 根据短文内容完成句子,每空不超过两个词。(2 分)
Kimeila hopes her magazine can help ① become more confident. She also wants to help them make their dreams ② .
9. 回答问题。What did Campbell decide to do at the age of 13 (2 分)
10. 根据上下文,写出第四段中划线代词 they 所指代的内容。(2 分)
八、综合运用 (25 分)
A. 从方框内选择恰当的单词并用其适当形式填空。每词限用一次。(10 分)
move, camp, feed, break, invite
1. The trip to the farm was great! We the horses and cows there.
2. My aunt always us to have dinner together on her birthday.
3. Mr. Li to a new neighborhood two months ago.
4. —Who the cup
—Sorry, I don’t know.
5. —Gina isn’t at home. Where’s she
—She by the lake.
B. 根据句意和汉语提示写出单词。(5 分)
1. Kate (几乎不) eats junk food.
2. Our teaching building is (类似的) to yours.
3. Eric takes the guitar lessons (两次) a week.
4. John has curly hair and he wears (眼镜).
5. To keep healthy, we need (足够的) vegetables and fruit.
C. 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确
形式。(10 分)
Dear Linda,
How was your May Day holiday I had an enjoyable holiday. As you know, we had five days off this year, so 1. (go) on a trip was my family's choice ( 选择). I was excited from the 2. (one) day. My family went to Xi'an. It is not far 3. my city. And we spent about three hours 4. the road. The trip went 5. (good) except (除……
外) a small accident—I lost my ID card! 6. (Lucky), someone found it and called the
police. A tall policeman 7. (take) it to our hotel.
The next day, we went to Shaanxi History Museum first. My father booked (预定) 8.
(ticket) on the Internet and we got there early. There 9. (be) several people waiting outside. Because of COVID-19, many people 10. (stay) at home so the museum was not so crowded as before. And it was not difficult to find somewhere to park our car. We didn't need to wait all the time during the holiday. It was really great!
Yours, Sun Ying
九、书面表达 (15 分)
请以“My best friend and I”为题,写一篇短文介绍你和你的好朋友。内容包括你们之 间的异同,可以从外貌、性格、爱好及学习等方面进行对比,并简要谈谈你对交友的看法。
要求:1. 要点齐全,可适当发挥;
2. 词数 70 左右。
My best friend and I
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