锦州市2022～2023学年度第一学期期末考试
高三英语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷考试时间为120分钟，满分150分。
2. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
3. 答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答题标号；答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上相应区域内，超出答题区域或写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Who is having a holiday abroad
A. David. B. Mike. C. John.
2. What time does the next plane to London leave
A. At 10:00. B. At 11:00. C. At 12:00.
3. What was the weather like in the Lake District on their holiday
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Snowy.
4. Where does the conversation take place
A. On a beach. B. In a hospital. C. Over the phone.
5. What is the man trying to do
A. Deliver some bad news.
B. Find a new position.
C. Make a speech.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
6. What did Amy do on Saturday morning
A. She went shopping.
B. She went jogging.
C. She went to the gym.
7. When did Amy go on a date
A. On Saturday night.
B. On Sunday afternoon.
C. On Sunday night.
听下面一段对话，回答第8、9两个小题。
8. How much time is left for the man to pick Greta up
A. 45 minutes. B. 25 minutes. C. 20 minutes.
9. Why does the woman think the man is crazy
A. He doesn＇t have breakfast.
B. He＇ll buy food at the airport.
C. He ate the apple in her bag. 听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. Why did the man go to the Philippines
A. For a trip. B. For further studies. C. For volunteer work.
11. Who helped the man with the project
A. The local students. B. The local government. C. The local businessmen.
12. What's the aim of the project
A. To explore an island.
B. To help the poor students.
C. To protect the environment.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. Who does this pen belong to
A. The man's son. B. The man's wife. C. The man's daughter.
14. What color pen is unavailable now
A. Purple. B. Black. C. Yellow.
15. How much does the pen with a red leather cover cost
A. $ 13. B. $ 14. C. $ 11.
16. What will the man probably do
A. Come again tomorrow.
B. Buy another pen now.
C. Wait for the woman's call.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. When1 is Sweetest Day
A. The third Saturday in October.
B. The third Sunday in October.
C. The second Saturday in October.
18. What is the purpose of Sweetest Day
A. To make friends.
B. To make someone happy.
C. To make cities more beautiful.
19. Who did the Cleveland man help
A. His friends and relatives.
B. The aged and his neighbors.
C. The city's orphans and patients.
20. How did the Cleveland man start Sweetest Day
A. By offering hugs.
B. By giving away small gifts.
C. By distributing some cash.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
If you are looking for an adventure for your kids, is here for you. We have rounded up some best camps to keep your thrill seekers busy all day.
Catalina Sea Camp
Catalina Sea Camp is an ocean adventure and marine （海洋的） biology summer camp located at Toyon Bay on Catalina Island. Marine science instructors lead explorations, provide help in identification, explain relationships and teach scientific knowledge in marine environments. It offers three one-week sessions for boys and girls aged 8-13.
Address: Toyon Bay, San Bruno, California
Phone:（800）645-1423
Steve & Kate's Camp
The summer camp trusts kids to choose their own adventure in film, fashion design, bread making, painting and so much more. Steve & Kate's Camp offers a safe environment where kids aged 6-12 can be themselves and explore their passions. And because they're making their own choices, they find a sense of meaning in their activities.
Address: 150 Pacific Ave, San Francisco
Phone:（415）389-5437
Six Flags Animal Adventure Camps
Kids of all ages can enjoy a week-long journey into the world of animals. They'll have fun while they learn about animals and the importance of preserving their habitats through hands-on activities and exciting live presentations from animal experts.
Address: Cosby, Tennessee
Phone:（866）876-8952
Lake Greeley Camp
Lake Greeley Camp is a private overnight summer camp located in the Pocono Mountains of Pennsylvania. The camp is owned and operated by the Buynak Family, who have given children fun-filled, safe summer experiences for over 50 years. It welcomes boys and girls aged 6-15.
Address:222 Greeley Lake Rd, Greeley, Pennsylvania
Phone:（570）685-7196
If you are not interested in the above, please click here for more camps.
21. What can kids do at Catalina Sea Camp
A. Learn real life skills about swimming.
B. Learn some knowledge about marine life.
C. Enjoy summer sunshine on Catalina Island.
D. Meet some famous marine biology scientists.
22. If a 5-year-old boy wants to join a summer camp, he can choose __.
A. Catalina Sea Camp
B. Lake Greeley Camp
C. Steve & Kate's Camp
D. Six Flags Animal Adventure Camps
23. What can we know about Lake Greeley Camp
A. It is run by the government.
B. It is a newly-founded summer camp.
C. It offers accommodation to kids.
D. It is equipped with a fun game room.
B
Eric Ravilious was one of the greatest watercolorists of the 20th century, loved for his paintings of famous English landmarks. While he was a master painter and designer, his another great role was as a war artist. Among the finest and most productive of his generation, he died while on active duty during World War II. 2022 marks the 80th anniversary of his death, which raises the question: What makes a great war artist
Ravilious's war art is famous for its innocence and purity. Ravilious's soft colors, cartoon-like figures, tranquil tide pools and sky ease the apparent danger and threat on the battle field. Staying true to his style was one of Ravilious's greatest strengths. From his paintings we can see his firm control of the watercolor, his calm expression and attention to detail, showing his extraordinary insight and expression. He did not focus on style, but rather on his attitude and way of expression. He added a strong personal touch to the themes. That is why he is great. He often worked in very dangerous situations: sometimes painting on the deck of a military ship with fighters flying overhead or moving at such speed that his paints might be flying everywhere. One of his friends said, “His war paintings are very much like children's description of war. I saw a lot of paintings by refugee （难民） children and adults in Iraq. They are very similar to Eric Ravilious's paintings. In their respective ways, they all describe war in an innocent and almost naive （幼稚的） manner. In fact，the cruelty of war cannot be understood by everyone because it is inhuman and inhumane. ” He concludes, “Seen in this light, what Eric Ravilious did enables us to look at war with a calm mind. This is truly special. ”
24. What does the underlined word “tranquil” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Pure.
B. Peaceful.
C. Dangerous.
D. Extraordinary.
25. What makes Ravilious a great war artist
A. His painting theme.
B. His innocence and purity.
C. His control of the watercolor.
D. His attitude and strong personal style.
26. How are Eric Ravilious's paintings similar to children's paintings
A. They described war in a similar manner.
B. They could only be understood by children.
C. They were painted in similar shades of color.
D. They helped people to know the cruelty of war.
27. Which of the following is a suitable title for the text
A. War Art: Cruel Beauty.
B. War Art: Pure and Innocent.
C. Eric Ravilious: A Great War Artist.
D. Eric Ravilious: An Innocent Man.
C
Kenya's tree planting plan turns out to be of great benefit to both the environment and the Kenyans. Launched in 2016 by Elizabeth Wathuti when she was twenty-one years old, the Green Generation Initiative is a Kenyan charity that has been planting trees to deal with deforestation （滥伐 森林） and climate change in the East African nation.
The initiative's primary focus is on addressing food insecurity in the region through planting fruit trees, as well as developing young climate activists through environmental education in schools. Since its foundation, over 30, 000 trees have been planted in Kenya, while thousands of school children have not just planted trees but also adopted them to ensure that young people learn the importance of acting as a guardian over the health of the environment. The trees have recorded a survival rate of over 98 percent, as they remain tended to from young trees to maturity.
Speaking to world leaders at the recent United Nations Climate Conference in Glasgow （COP26）, Elizabeth issued a serious warning on the threat of climate change. Over two million of Kenyans are facing climate related hunger now. In 2025, half of the world's population will be facing water shortage. The climate crisis will displace 80 million people in sub-Saharan Africa alone.
Elizabeth said, “Environment is the foundation of development, and it can no longer continue being taken for granted. I have been doing what I can. Inspired by the great Wangari Maathai, I founded a tree growing initiative that enhances food security for young Kenyans. ” So far, they have grown 30, 000 fruit trees to maturity, providing desperately needed nutrition for thousands of children. “Every day we see that when we look after the trees, they look after us. We are the adults on this Earth right now, and it is our responsibility to ensure that the children have food and water, ” she added.
28. What is the Green Generation Initiative intended for
A. Raising money.
B. Making policies.
C. Educating the adults.
D. Fighting climate change.
29. What has been achieved since 2016
A. Green awareness has been raised.
B. 3, 000 trees have been planted.
C. 80 million people have been saved.
D. School education has been guaranteed.
30. What crisis are Kenyans encountering at present
A. Sickness.
B. Water shortage.
C. Starvation.
D. Economic crisis.
31. Which of the following can best describe Elizabeth Wathuti
A. Honest and determined.
B. Considerate and responsible.
C. Friendly and optimistic.
D. Cooperative and humorous.
D
Watching a specific deep red light for just three minutes once a week, when delivered in the morning, may significantly improve the eyesight, according to a new study by researchers at University College London. The findings show that red light might be a cheap and easy treatment for older people suffering from poor vision.
Last year, researchers from University College London did a study on red light therapy （疗法）. 24 healthy volunteers, aged between 28 and 72, were asked to look at red light for three minutes every day for two weeks. Tests later found that the eyesight of people over the age of 40 improved.
To test the possible weak points of their therapy, they did a new study this year. Instead of using the light every day, they used it once a week. The new study included 20 volunteers, aged between 34 and 70, all with healthy vision. Some received red light therapy in the morning, and others received it in the afternoon. They were then tested on their color vision up to a week later. On the whole, those who got the treatment in the morning showed a 17% improvement in their color vision, even a week later. Those who got the treatment in the afternoon did not have any improvement.
The findings do support their earlier work, and they might make the treatment more practicable, since a once-weekly treatment is easier to stick to than a daily one. But the team's promising results are still drawn on limited numbers of healthy volunteers. Larger studies would be needed to show the benefits of red light therapy.
“In the near future, a once-a-week three-minute exposure to deep red light could be done while making a coffee or listening to a song, and such a simple thing could change eye care and vision around the world, ” Jeffrey said. Given its low cost （as little as $15） per device, and simplicity, Jeffrey and the team is excited about the future of their therapy.
32. What do we know about the study from paragraph 2 and 3
A. 24 healthy old people took part in the study.
B. All the volunteers had better eyesight after the study.
C. The therapy was more effective when used once a week.
D. The time of day for treatment was vital in the new study.
33. What makes it necessary to improve the study
A. The age of the volunteers.
B. The number of the volunteers.
C. The poor vision of the volunteers.
D. The health condition of the volunteers.
34. What is the team's attitude to the future of red light therapy
A. Optimistic.
B. Critical.
C. Ambiguous.
D. Conservative.
35. What is the purpose of this text
A. To state the importance of eye care.
B. To explain the value of deep red light.
C. To encourage people to protect their eyes.
D. To introduce a way to fight vision decline.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
It's hard to do much to treat a cold or the flu once you're infected. As with many illnesses, taking steps towards prevention may be the best cure for the cold or flu. 36 You may also be able to avoid a serious illness by acting quickly at the first sign of symptoms.
Wash your hands. One of the easiest and most effective measures to prevent colds and the flu is by washing your hands thoroughly and frequently. This reduces the proliferation of bacteria and the cold or flu virus from common spaces or surfaces. 37 Wash your hands carefully for 20 seconds, making sure to get under your nails, between your fingers, and the front and back of your hands.
Cover your nose and mouth. Put your hand or tissue （纸巾）over both your nose and mouth whenever you cough or sneeze. Covering sneezes and coughs lowers the risk of spreading your germs （细菌）and the viruses．38
39 The cold and flu are very contagious （接触传染的）and generally spread where crowds of people gather round. Wash your hands after touching surfaces in crowded places. If you feel ill, stay home for at least a day to reduce your risk of spreading your cold or flu to others, or making your case worse by catching something else.
Get enough rest. Making sure that you allow your body to rest can ease your symptoms and help you more quickly recover from a cold or the flu. 40 Getting enough rest also lowers the risk of you infecting family members, friends, or colleagues. Get at least 8 hours of sleep per night and take a short break, which can help your immune system fight any developing cold or flu virus.
A. Avoid the crowd.
B. Don't share items with sick people.
C. Make sure you wet hands before applying soap to your hands.
D. Stay home from work or school, especially if you have a fever.
E. Throw away the used tissue immediately and then wash your hands.
F. A cold is a viral infection that causes discomfort in the nose and throat.
G. You can help prevent common viruses with careful attention to your habits.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Russell Ledet once served in the Navy after high school. Then he went back to college to study organic chemistry. To 41 himself during his studies, he worked at Baton Rouge General Medical Center as a 42 guard. While Russell now 43 that working history as“ 44 beginnings, ”it was the five years he spent working in that 45 that led to his important 46. As a security guard, he saw the 47 need for medical staff-and determined that one day, he would help. While Russell 48 from college five years later, 49 the guard position at the Baton Rouge hospital, he didn't choose to become a doctor 50 . He continued his studies at New York University, where he completed a PhD in molecular oncology. Then Russell applied to Tulane University and got the 51 . And there he 52 his MBA and MD.
Russell never forgot his days at Baton Rouge, so during the internship, Russel chose Baton Rouge General Medical Center as his53 location. When he got it, he was excited to 54 to where it all started, the same place he used to work! Now, his dream came true-helping 55 during the novel coronavirus.
41. A. support B. enjoy C. encourage D. protect
42. A. service B. sincerity C. security D. loyalty
43. A. looks up B. looks on C. looks out D. looks for
44. A. average B. humble C. inspiring D. depressing
45. A. belief B. mission C. responsibility D. role
46. A. decision B. prediction C. adventure D. discovery
47. A. sudden B. basic C. great D. limited
48. A. graduated B. departed C. escaped D. suffered
49. A. getting B. leaving C. holding D. completing
50. A. accidentally B. immediately C. purposefully D. confidently
51. A. freedom B. permission C. offer D. assistance
52. A. dropped B. remained C. changed D. earned
53. A. major B. fundamental C. impressive D. preferred
54. A. devote B. return C. relate D. turn
55. A. patients B. staff C. guards D. doctors
第二节（共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Going to Zhangjiajie reminds people of the mountains in Avatar. For those who love nature, Zhangjiajie National Park is56 must to visit. It is now a UNESCO World Heritage site, one that has seen tourism boom, stimulating economic 57 _（grow）, and providing a lot of job 58 （opportunity） for the locals. Over the years， the rock caves and karst （喀斯特） formations 59 （lead） people to call it a “fairyland”.
The park has thick forests， deep canyons, unusual peaks, caves, and pillar-like （像柱子似的） rock formations blanketed throughout the park. These pillar-like rock formations are 60 the park is famous for around the world. One of the fastest and most 61 （effort） ways to experience the area is by riding up the world's tallest outdoor elevator. The 326-meter-tall glass Bailong Elevator 62 （build） onto the side of a cliff at the start of this century and offers amazing views of the park.
Zhangjiajie National Park is also home 63 _many endangered species of animals and plants, and the Chinese government has taken conservation efforts 64（preserve） the landscape, which will 65 （undoubted） help balance the ecosystem better for more people to enjoy the out-of-this-world scenery.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，校英文报学生记者，学校上周举办了一年一度的运动会，请你写一篇新闻报道，介绍运动会的情况。内容包括：
1．活动概况；
2．开展情况；
3．活动反响。
注意：
1．写作词数应为80左右；
2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Sports Meet Fired Passion on Campus
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The day was Thankful Thursday, our “chosen day” of service. It's a weekly tradition that my two little girls and I began years ago. Thursday has become our day to go out in the world and make a positive contribution, however small it is. On this particular Thursday, we had no idea exactly what we were going to do, but we knew that something would present itself.
Driving along a busy Houston road, I prayed for guidance in our quest to fulfill our weekly Act of Kindness. Around the noon hour, my two little ones wasted no time in letting me know their hunger, chanting, “McDonald's, McDonald's, McDonald's” as we drove along. And I began searching earnestly for the nearest McDonald's. Suddenly I realized that almost every crossroad I passed through was occupied by a beggar. And then it hit me!
If my two little ones were hungry, then all these beggars must be hungry, too. Perfect! Our Act of Kindness had presented itself. We were going to buy lunch for the beggars. After finding a McDonald's and ordering two Happy Meals for my girls, I ordered an additional 15 lunches and we set out to deliver them. It was exciting. We would pull alongside a beggar, make a contribution, and tell him or her that we hoped things would get better. Then we'd say, “Oh, by the way, here's lunch. ” And then we would head to the next crossroad.
It was the best way to give. There wasn't enough time for us to introduce ourselves or explain what we were going to do, nor was there time for them to say anything back to us. The Act of Kindness was anonymous and empowering for each of us, and we loved what we saw in the rearview mirror: a surprised and delighted person holding up his lunch bag and just looking at us as we drove off. It was wonderful!
注意：
1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Then at a crossroad stood a small woman, asking for change.
She looked at me and added, “You know what, this is my daughter's favorite.2022~2023 学年度第一学期期末考试
高三英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30分）
1--5 CBACA 6--10 BCABC 11--15 ACBAB 16--20 CABCB
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分）
21--23 BDC 24--27 BDAC 28--31 DACB 32--35 DBAD
第二节（共 5小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分）
31--35 GCEAD
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
41--45 ACBBD 46--50 ACABB 51--55 CDDBA
第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分, 满分 15 分）
56. a 57. growth 58. opportunities 59. have led 60. what
61. effortless 62. was built 63. to 64. to preserve 65. undoubtedly
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节（满分 15 分）
Sports Meet Fired Passion on Campus
The two-day long annual sports meet was held last week, which totally fired passion on campus.
In the morning, nearly all the teachers and students gathered for the opening ceremony, where each class
staged a wonderful performance. Then came the track and field events, including relay races, high jump and so on.
Challenging as they were, all the athletes gave full play to their willpower, showing their positive sports spirits.
The sports meet was a great success. Not only did it witness students’ passion for sports, but it also exhibited
their collaboration and team spirit.
请阅卷教师在阅卷前仔细研读评分标准，然后严格按照标准进行阅卷。
【评分标准】
1．评分原则
（1）本题总分为 15 分，按五个档次进行评分。
（2）评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
◆ 对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
◆ 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
◆ 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
（3）评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调
整档次，最后给分。
（4）评分时还应注意：
◆ 词数少于 60 的，酌情扣分。
◆ 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受。
1
◆ 书写较差以致影响交际的，可将分数降低一个档次。
2．各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13～15 分）
－ 覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
－ 使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别错误，但完全不影响理解。
－ 有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12 分）
－ 覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
－ 使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
－ 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9 分）
－ 覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
－ 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
－ 基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6 分）
－ 遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
－ 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
－ 几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1～3 分）
－ 遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
－ 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
－ 几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节（满分 25 分）
Then at a crossroad stood a small woman, asking for change. As usual, we told her things would get better
and my two little girls handed out our final lunch bag. But as we drove off, what I saw from the rearview mirror
confused me a lot. Instead of enjoying the lunch, she just took a deep sniff of the burger and gently put it away in
her pocket. Strong curiosity drove us back to ask her, “Do you enjoy the lunch ” “The lunch is perfect, but I’m not
going to eat it.” the woman said with sincere gratitude in her eyes.
She looked at me and added, “You know what, this is my daughter’s favorite.” Then I learned that she had a
little girl of her own at home and she just liked McDonald’s as my two little ones. With a smile on her face she
continued, “Tonight she is going to have McDonald’s!” So many times I had questioned whether our Acts of
Kindness were too small or insignificant to really make any change. Yet in that moment, I recognized the meaning
of Mother Teresa’s words, “We cannot do great things — only small things with great love.”
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【主旨大意】文章讲述的是作者在每周四都带着两个女儿去帮助别人，在那个特别的周四，作者带女儿出
去做一些善事，在街边看到很多乞丐，中午作者给女儿买麦当劳时想到乞丐肯定也饿了，于是作者额外买
了十五份午餐，准备分给街边的乞丐。
【思路点拨】
（1）续写第一段的首句为： Then at a crossroad stood a small woman, asking for change.
分析：由第一段首句内容“在道路尽头有一个身材矮小的女人站在那里乞讨零钱。”可知，第一段可
描写作者带着女儿给那位身材矮小的女人送午餐以及她的反应。需要注意的是，原文中第三段和第四段中
提到他们送午餐的方式和一般人的反应，本段续写中应该与原文保持一致。
（2）续写第二段的首句为：She looked at me and added, “You know what, this is my daughter’s favorite.”
分析：根据第二段首句“她只是用看着我说：‘你知道吗，这是我女儿的最爱。’”可知，这位女士并
不打算自己吃，而是带给自己的女儿，作者应对此产生强烈的共鸣，意识到虽然自己所做的是小事，但是
也对别人产生了很大的影响。
请阅卷教师在阅卷前仔细研读评分标准，然后严格按照标准进行阅卷。
【评分标准】
1．评分原则
（1）本题总分为 25 分，按五个档次进行评分。
（2）评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
◆ 创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
◆ 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
◆ 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
（3）评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调
整档次，最后给分。
（4）评分时还应注意：
◆ 词数少于 130 的，酌情扣分。
◆ 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受。
◆ 书写较差以致影响交际的，可将分数降低一个档次。
2．各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21～25 分）
－ 创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
－ 使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别错误，但完全不影响理解。
－ 有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16～20 分）
－ 创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。
－ 使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
－ 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11～15 分）
－ 创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
－ 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
－ 基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
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第二档（6～10 分）
－ 内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
－ 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
－ 未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1～5 分）
－ 内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
－ 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
－ 几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
听力原文
Text 1
M: David has just phoned me and said that he couldn’t attend the party. He isn’t feeling very well now.
W: So, we’ll have three people absent. John is traveling with his parents abroad and Mike has to stay late at the
office.
Text 2
M: Excuse me. What time does the next plane to London take off
W: The next one is Flight 12 at eleven, gate 10.
Text 3
M: Home at last! That was the last time we had a holiday in the Lake District.
W: It was beautiful! At least it didn’t snow.
M: I would have preferred snow to constant rain. We had never seen the sun there!
Text 4
W: San Francisco General Hospital.
M: Hello. This is an emergency. Can you please send an ambulance
W: OK, OK. Just try to calm down, sir. And tell me where you are.
M: Right. Uh, we are at La Traviata Restaurant in North Beach.
Text 5
M: I’m very sorry. I’m not in the position to tell you this but I’m certainly very worried.
W: Don’t make a big speech about how sorry you are. Just give it to me straight.
M: We have to lay off some workers and you’re one of them.
Text 6
M: What did you do on the weekend, Amy
W: Let me think. Oh, I went shopping on Friday evening and bought some daily necessities for the apartment.
M: What did you get
W: Oh, some towels and a new toothbrush. Saturday wasn’t too bad. I went jogging in the morning and went to
the gym in the afternoon. But after all that exercise, I was too tired to do anything on Saturday night.
M: So how about Sunday
W: It was great! I went out on a date with a really great man that night.
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Text 7
W: Slow down, Adam. You’re driving like a mad man.
M: I told Greta I’d pick her up at 9:45. Her plane lands at 9:20.
W: Relax. It’s just 9 o’clock now. There’s plenty of time.
M: I suppose so.
W: Did you have breakfast yet
M: No. I jumped out of bed this morning and ran out of the front door. I didn’t have time to eat.
W: I’ve got an apple in my bag, if you want it.
M: Have you got anything else
W: Pens, pencils, a notebook…but nothing to eat. Just the apple, I’m afraid.
M: I’ll pick something up at the airport.
W: Are you crazy Food’s always ten times more expensive at the airport.
Text 8
W:Where exactly did you go in the Philippines
M: I was in Davao City. The volunteer organization has an office and some student dorms there.
W: Can you talk about the organization
M: Sure. The organization is called the Student Volunteer Organization. They organize trips for university students
to go abroad and do volunteer work — you know, doing things that help the country and the people. For
example, one project, we planted trees in an area of the island where a lot of trees had been cut down years
ago. We got local elementary school students to help us because the goal of the project was to teach young
people about the environment.
W: That’s great. So you decided to go because the environment is important to you
M: Yes, I think it’s everyone’s responsibility to help protect the environment.
Text 9
W: Can I help you
M: Yes, my son and daughter bought this pen here for my wife’s birthday, but it doesn’t work, so I’d like to
exchange it.
W: Let me see. Was it dropped or anything
M: No, but you can see that the point is bent a little bit.
W: Yes, it is, isn’t it We’d be happy to exchange it for you. But I’m afraid we don’t have another purple one. We
only have this pen in black or yellow now.
M: My wife doesn’t really care for either of those colors.
W: We have one with a red leather cover. That’s three dollars more.
M: The children worked hard to save up the eleven dollars for this one. They would probably be upset if I paid for
part of their present.
W: If you want, we can order another pen just like this one.
M: That sounds like a good idea. Would you please go ahead and do that
W: We’d be very happy to. It will take a week or ten days. We’ll call you when it comes in.
M: Thank you very much.
Text 10
W: Sweetest Day is always the third Saturday in October. This holiday is much more important in some regions
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than in others (Detroit, Cleveland and Buffalo are the biggest Sweetest Day cities). But this holiday is gaining
in popularity every year throughout the country. Sweetest Day is celebrated to make someone happy. It is an
occasion which offers an opportunity to remember not only the sick, aged, and orphaned, but also friends and
relatives. Over 60 years ago, a Cleveland man, believing that the city’s orphans and patients too often felt
forgotten, formed in the mind an idea of showing them that they were not. He did this by the distribution of
small gifts. With the help of his friends and neighbors, he distributed them on a Saturday in October. In the
years that followed, other residents began to participate in the event, which came to be called “Sweetest Day”.
In time, the Day became an occasion for acknowledging others with a kind act or a small remembrance. Soon
the idea began spreading to other cities all over the country.
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