成都市蓉城名校联盟2022-2023学年高二下学期期中联考
英 语
考试时间120分钟，满分150分
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必在答题卡上将自己的学校、姓名、班级、准考证号用0.5毫米黑色签字笔填写清楚，考生考试条形码由监考老师粘贴在答题卡上的“条形码粘贴处”。
2.选择题使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上对应题目标号的位置上，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后再填涂其它答案；非选择题用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡的对应区域内作答，超出答题区域答题的答案无效；在草稿纸上、试卷上答题无效。
3.考试结束后由监考老师将答题卡收回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a library. B. In a bookstore. C. In a classroom.
2. How does the woman feel now
A. Relaxed. B. Excited. C. Tired.
3. How much will the man pay
A. $20. B. $80. C. $100.
4. What does the man tell Jane to do
A. Meet Mr. Douglas. B. Return at 3 o’clock. C. Put off his appointment.
5. Why would David quit his job
A. To work for his friend. B. To start his own firm. C. To go back to school.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the man want the woman to do
A. Check the cupboard. B. Clean the balcony. C. Buy an umbrella.
7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Husband and wife.
B. Employer and employee.
C. Shop assistant and customer.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Where did the woman go at the weekend
A. The city centre. B. The forest park. C. The man’s home.
9. How did the man spend his weekend
A. Packing for a move.
B. Going out with Jenny.
C. Looking for a new house.
10. What will the woman do for the man
A. Take Henry to hospital.
B. Stay with his kid.
C. Look after his pet.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。
11. What is Mr. Stone doing now
A. Eating lunch. B. Having a meeting. C. Writing a diary.
12. Why does the man want to see Mr. Stone
A. To discuss a program.
B. To make a travel plan.
C. To ask for sick leave.
13. When will the man meet Mr. Stone this afternoon
A. At 3:00. B. At 3:30. C. At 3:45.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。
14. What are the speakers talking about
A. A company. B. An interview. C. A job offer.
15. Who is Monica Stansfield
A. A junior specialist.
B. A department manager.
C. A sales assistant.
16. When will the man hear from the woman
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Thursday.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. What did John enjoy doing in his childhood
A. Touring France. B. Playing outdoors. C. Painting pictures.
18. What did John do after he moved to the US
A. He did business.
B. He studied biology.
C. He worked on a farm.
19. Why did John go hunting
A. For food. B. For pleasure. C. For money.
20. What is the subject of John’s works
A. American birds. B. Natural scenery. C. Family life.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Relationship skills and social skills are referred to as “skills” for a reason — they require learning, practice, and improvement. Here are the best relationship books on the market, according to a licensed mental health counselor.
Best for Communication: 4 Essential Keys to Effective Communication in Love, Life, Work — Anywhere!
In this day and age, we could all use a refresher in terms of basic communication skills. This award-winning book — filled with how-to guides and exercise challenges — is a great place to start. Written with all kinds of relationships in mind, including family, dating, friendships, and even work relationships, it’s designed to help you improve empathy, listening skills, and communication skills.
Best for Socializing: How to Become a People Magnet
Social anxiety is a common issue in our modern-day world among all age groups. This book, written by award-winning author Marc Reklau, provides 62 simple strategies (策略) to help you improve your social skills in everything from first impressions to deeper relationships. With a variety of strategies available, you can choose the ones that are best suited for your needs. This book is also beneficial for those working in sales or customer service — industries that frequently handle complaints or require making connections.
Best for Problem-Solving: I Hear You: The Surprisingly Simple Skill Behind Extraordinary Relationships
In this bestselling book, author Michael Sorensen put relationship problem-solving skills into a three-hour read. It reads more like a conversation to help users understand the value of listening and validation in relationships.
Best for Personality Types: The Enneagram for Relationships: Transform Your Connections with Friends, Family, Colleagues, and in Love
The Enneagram is one of the fastest-growing personality assessments and concepts in the world right now, and rightfully so. There are nine different personality types with up to 27 subtypes to help you understand yourself — aiding in connection with those closest to you.
21. What is the purpose of the text
A. To point out the importance of relationships.
B. To encourage people to improve social skills.
C. To call for the understanding between people.
D. To introduce 4 relationship books to readers.
22. What is special about How to Become a People Magnet
A. It focuses on problem-solving skills.
B. It offers strategies about social skills.
C. It deals with all kinds of relationships.
D. It’s written by an award-winning author.
23. Which one should people hoping to understand themselves choose
A. 4 Essential Keys to Effective Communication in Love, Life, Work — Anywhere!
B. How to Become a People Magnet.
C. I Hear You: The Surprisingly Simple Skill Behind Extraordinary Relationships.
D. The Enneagram for Relationships: Transform Your Connections with Friends, Family, Colleagues, and in Love.
B
Mary had struggled to find the right words to convey her thoughts and feelings ever since she was a child. She was often told that she was “too quiet” or “too shy”, and as she grew older, she became increasingly self-conscious about her inability. It wasn’t that she didn’t have anything to say — far from it. Mary’s mind was constantly racing with ideas and observations, but no matter how hard she tried, she just couldn’t seem to get the words out.
“Mary, I need to talk to you,” Mr. Thompson, the boss of Mary’s new company, said one day, his voice serious. Mary’s heart sank. “Don’t worry,” Mr. Thompson said, noticing Mary’s panic. “It’s not that kind of conversation. I just wanted to talk to you about something that’s been on my mind lately.”
He paused for a moment, collecting his thoughts. “I’ve noticed that you’ve been struggling a bit lately. It seems like you’re having a tough time communicating with customers. I hear that you’re proficient at writing. So why not join our Advertising Department Besides, I have another suggestion…”
Mary kept nodding, unable to find the words to express her gratitude.
Following Mr. Thompson’s suggestion, Mary joined a writing competition. She had always been a talented writer, and she knew that she had the potential to create something truly special. So she set to work, pouring her heart and soul into her essay. The words started flowing, and Mary found herself writing with a newfound sense of clarity and purpose.
The judges of the competition were amazed by Mary’s essay, and they selected it as the winner. Mary was thrilled, and she was grateful to have finally found the right way to do a good job.
24. What is Mary’s problem
A. She was too self-conscious. B. She had nothing to say with people.
C. She had too many thoughts in mind. D. She didn’t know how to communicate.
25. Why did Mr. Thompson have a talk with Mary
A. To offer advice on her development. B. To make her feel comfortable.
C. To give her a job promotion. D. To point out her problem.
26. How did Mary feel when creating her essay
A. Confident. B. Unsure. C. Serious. D. Relaxed.
27. What can we know from Mary’s experience
A. It is never too late to learn.
B. Actions speak louder than words.
C. Losses on one side and gains on the other.
D. Diligence can make up for lack of intelligence.
C
Cloning is a technique scientists use to make exact genetic copies of living things. Genes, cells, tissues, and even whole animals can all be cloned.
Some clones already exist in nature. Single-celled organisms like bacteria make exact copies of themselves each time they reproduce. In humans, identical twins are similar to clones. They share almost the exact same genes. Identical twins are created when a fertilized egg splits in two. Scientists also make clones in the lab. They often clone genes in order to study and better understand them. To clone a gene, researchers take DNA from a living creature and insert it into a carrier like bacteria or yeast (酵母菌). Every time that carrier reproduces, a new copy of the gene is made.
In 1996, Scottish scientists cloned the first animal, a sheep they named Dolly. She was cloned by using an udder cell taken from an adult sheep. Since then, scientists have cloned cows, cats, deer, horses, and rabbits. They still have not cloned a human, though. In part, this is because it is difficult to produce a viable clone. In each attempt, there can be genetic mistakes that prevent the clone from surviving. It took scientists 276 attempts to get Dolly right. There are also ethical concerns about cloning a human being.
An embryo made by cloning can be turned into a stem cell factory. Stem cells are an early form of cells that can grow into many different types of cells and tissues. Scientists can turn them into nerve cells to fix a damaged spinal (脊髓) cord or insulin-making cells to treat diabetes (糖尿病). Livestock like cows and pigs have been cloned to produce more milk or meat. Clones can even bring a beloved pet that has died back to life. In 2001, a cat named CC was the first pet to be created through cloning.
28. What can be cloned naturally
A. Single-celled organisms.
B. A fertilized egg.
C. A specified gene.
D. A carrier.
29. What does the underlined word “viable” in Paragraph 3 mean
A. Complete. B. Identical.
C. Successful. D. Useful.
30. What is the last paragraph mainly about
A. The cloning of embryos.
B. Applications of cloning.
C. The cloning treatment for diseases.
D. The success in cloning pets.
31. In which section of a newspaper may this text appear
A. Entertainment. B. Science.
C. Health. D. Education.
D
Back in the distant past, job candidates had interests or hobbies. For example, reading a book was a perfectly acceptable way of spending your spare time. No longer. Today you will probably be asked if you have a “personal passion project”, and the more exhausting your answer sounds, the better.
Passion is becoming basic for workplace success. A new piece of research from Jon Jachimowicz and Hannah Weisman of Harvard Business School includes an analysis of 200 million job postings in America. It finds that the number which mentions “passion” rose over time, from 2% in 2007 to 16% in 2019.
On the surface this makes sense. Better, surely, for an employee to be enthusiastic than not. Most workers want to do a job they love; most companies want a workforce that is committed and motivated.
But passion can affect judgment. For firms, the obvious danger is rewarding commitment over competence. The super-keen employee who volunteers for everything may not be that great at their job. Some research finds that passion may indeed be blinding managers to reality: it finds that even when the performance of passionate employees is on the downward slope, they are still more likely to be given promotions than peers who tend not to say much.
There are only so many ways to communicate passion. Widening your eyes and nodding wildly: too weird. Jumping, cheering and sweating: even weirder. Working ever longer hours, on the other hand, is a fairly simple way to show that your commitment is beyond question.
It is great to feel passion for your job. But if you are up at 4 am for a meeting with Asia, constantly working on your holiday or have just been handed a mop (抹布) and a bucket by your boss, you are in the grasp of something that is not entirely healthy.
32. What do the statistics in Paragraph 2 indicate
A. Passion is valued in workplace.
B. Success depends on working passion.
C. The study has been newly conducted.
D. Lots of job postings are provided nowadays.
33. What can we know from the fourth paragraph
A. Managers tend to promote talented employees.
B. It is dangerous to reward passionate employees.
C. Passionate employees may be promoted improperly.
D. The employee who shows passion is not a good one.
34. What is the author’s attitude toward passion at work
A. Supportive. B. Objective.
C. Negative. D. Uncaring.
35. What can be the best title for the text
A. Greater Pressure from Work B. The Fashion for Passion
C. Higher Demand for Interests D. The Advantages of Passion
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Developing and maintaining healthy friendships involves give-and-take. Sometimes you’re the one giving support, 36 . Letting friends know you care about them and appreciate them can help strengthen your bond. It’s as important for you to be a good friend as it is to surround yourself with good friends. Here are some tips helping you nurture your friendships.
Be a good listener. 37 . Then while listening, let the other person know you are paying close attention through eye contact, body language and occasional brief comments such as, “That sounds fun.” When friends share details of hard times or difficult experiences, be empathetic, but don’t give advice unless your friends ask for it.
Show that you can be trusted. Being responsible, reliable and dependable is key to forming strong friendships. 38 . Follow through on commitments you’ve made to your friends. When your friends share confidential information, keep it private.
39 . Building a close friendship takes time — together. Make an effort to see new friends regularly, and to check in with them in between meet ups. You may feel awkward the first few times you talk on the phone or get together, but this feeling is likely to pass as you get more comfortable with each other.
Manage your nerves with mindfulness. You may find yourself imagining the worst of social situations, and you may feel tempted to stay home. Use mindfulness exercises to reshape your thinking. Each time you imagine the worst, pay attention to how often the embarrassing situations you’re afraid of actually take place. 40 .
Investing time in making friends and strengthening your friendships can pay off in better health and a brighter outlook for years to come.
A. Value the time spent with friends
B. and more often you should receive
C. Create more opportunities with friends
D. Ask what’s going on in your friends’ lives
E. and other times you’re on the receiving end
F. Keep your appointments and arrive on time
G. You may notice what you fear usually doesn’t happen
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 （共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was 4 years old, my aunt put a pair of headphones around my ears one day. For the first time I listened to classical music. My first experience with it was 41 . The moment she put those headphones on, I stopped everything and stared 42 out into the universe, 43 by what was going on between my ears.
44 her, I had an early enjoyable experience with classical music that 45 my life path. I started taking piano lessons and composing my pieces of music at 9. In high school I
46 a band with my best friends playing and recording music and it had become a huge part of my life and 47 .
None of these, though, would have much story 48 without some complications. In college, I started ballroom dancing, and all of us began to pursue our individual life 49 . Music took a 50 seat until one day in 2017.
It was a usual Sunday afternoon and I played a bit on the piano, but this time was a little
51 . Somehow, something out of nowhere 52 me and I was motivated for action. How could I have given up on music I went online immediately to buy some such 53 .
as micophone stands, a mixer and some good microphones to start recording. The things you don’t do today will end up being the 54 of tomorrow.
So I started playing with 55 , writing and posting my own pieces showing my inner thoughts online. In a few months, I had dozens of pieces published and my 56 was on fire.
As more people began to listen to my music, I got 57 feedback. They said my music made them think and relax. I told them that I could 58 . For some it was even good sleep aid or a good way to 59 stress from a hard day at work. I began to realize that my music wasn’t just for me — it could heal and 60 others in a meaningful way.
41. A. meaningful B. magical C. painful D. terrifying
42. A. unwillingly B. firmly C. unbearably D. blankly
43. A. fascinated B. encouraged C. bored D. frightened
44. A. Along with B. But for C. Thanks to D. As for
45. A. followed up B. blocked up C. cleared up D. set up
46. A. supported B. formed C. followed D. quitted
47. A. family B. identity C. studies D. challenge
48. A. map B. elements C. value D. fun
49. A. paths B. facts C. events D. attitudes
50. A. middle B. front C. back D. window
51. A. urgent B. difficult C. strange D. different
52. A. struck B. disturbed C. annoyed D. shocked
53. A. instruments B. facilities C. videos D. studios
54. A. regrets B. tasks C. expectations D. failures
55. A. patience B. joy C. emotion D. satisfaction
56. A. creativity B. curiosity C. courage D. desire
57. A. negative B. satisfying C. demanding D. professional
58. A. review B. remark C. relax D. relate
59. A. bear B. stop C. relieve D. spot
60. A. teach B. affect C. surprise D. help
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Less than a century ago, patients requiring a blood transfusion (输血) 61 (be) in a race against time. There was no 62 (organize) network for people to donate blood, and because blood was difficult 63 (preserve), there was no way to store it for future use. Patients had to find their own blood donors before it was too late.
In 1937, after inventing a technique for preserving blood for up to 10 days, physician Bernard Fantus set up 64 nation’s first “blood bank” at Chicago’s Cook County Hospital. At about the same time, surgeon Charles R. Drew figured out a method for separating plasma (血浆) 65 whole blood, and found that if whole blood wasn’t necessary, blood transfusions could be 66 (successful) performed with plasma alone. Plasma could be dried for long-term storage in blood banks. As World War II 67 (break) out, Drew and the American Red Cross launched a program to collect donated plasma in the U.S. and ship it to Britain, essentially 68 (create) a national system for blood donation. During the war, he worked with the Red Cross to set up “bloodmobiles” — mobile blood donation centers
69 made sustaining blood banks more 70 (practice).
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2．只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
My father is a teacher. He is the man who lead our family. My mother is a housewife doing her housework based at the schedule she’s comfortable with. She is the one who understands me best, always share things with me. I love my family because they are the jewels of their life. They do what they can meet my needs, which makes me love and respect my parents considerable more. We play game every night and discussed various topics to spend quality time together. I give a respect and pay the highest regard to my family not only because they are my family, and for their incredible sacrifices for me.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，你的英国朋友Mike来信表示对中国古典音乐很感兴趣。请给他回信，内容包括：
1．你对中国古典音乐的认识；
2．你是否喜爱中国古典音乐以及原因。
注意：
1．词数100左右；
2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Mike,
Yours,
Li Hua成都市蓉城名校联盟2022-2023学年高二下学期期中联考
英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1～5：BCBCA 6～10：CABAC 11～15：BACCB 16～20：ACABA
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
21～23：DBD 24～27：DAAC 28～31：ACBB 32～35：ACBB
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
36～40：EDFCG
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
41～45：BDACD 46～50：BBCAC 51～55：DABAC 56～60：ABDCD
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
61. were 62. organized 63. to preserve 64. the 65. from
66. successfully 67. broke 68. creating 69. which/that 70. practical
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
(
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)
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
Dear Mike,
How’s everything going Having known that you are fond of classical Chinese music, it is with great pleasure that I am writing to share something about it with you.
Classical Chinese music is closely connected to Chinese poetry, so it’s not surprising that most classical pieces have very poetic titles. Besides, classical Chinese music and traditional Chinese painting are like twin sisters. The empty spaces in Chinese art give life to the whole painting and they allow people come into the picture, like a dialogue. The same is true for classical Chinese music.
As for me, I enjoy listening to classical Chinese music, like enjoying a beautiful poem and painting. It gives life to me and offers relief from the cares of the day . I wonder if you feel the same. I am looking forward to hearing from you again.
Yours,
Li Hua
书面表达评分标准
一、总体评分原则：评分时，先根据文章所表达的内容和语言质量初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
二、评分时，文章应包括以下三个要点：
1．恰当的开头和结尾（说明写信目的）；
2．对中国古典音乐的认识；
3．是否喜爱以及原因。
三、归档与打分
第五档（21～25分）
1．完全表达出所有内容要点，表达充分，完全达到预期的写作目的。
2．表现出很好的语言能力，意义表达准确流畅，词汇丰富，句式多样，语言地道。有少许小的语言错误，但不影响意义表达。
3．语篇结构完整，有效地使用了衔接手段，全文连贯。
第四档（16～20分）
1．表达出所有内容要点，表达较为充分，达到了预期的写作目的。
2．表现出较好的语言能力，意义表达基本准确流畅，用词与句式有一定的变化。有少许语言错误，但不影响意义表达。
3．语篇结构基本完整，能较好地运用衔接手段，全文连贯。
第三档（11～15分）
1．表达出所有内容要点，表达基本清楚，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
2．表现出的语言能力一般，句式结构单一，词汇使用有限，语言错误较多，并在一定程度上影响了意义表达，但关键意义能表达出来。
3．语篇不够连贯。
4．考生如果表达出所有语言要点，原则上不降入第二档。
第二档（6～10分）
1．部分表达出内容要点。
2．表现出的语言能力较差，语言错误较多，严重影响了意义表达，仅少数句子能表达意义。
3．语篇结构混乱。
第一档（1～5分）
表现出的语言能力较差，基本上无完整句子，仅有一些单词与试题要求的内容相关。
注意：
1．考生如果写出三个完整的要点，原则上定为第三、四档，即11～20分之间。语言错误相对较多，则属于第三档，即在11～15分之间；语言错误相对较少，但多数为简单句，则属于第四档，即在16～20分之间。如果考生使用了很多高级表达，且句式多样，则为第五档，即在21～25分之间，另外，满分需慎重。
2．考生如果写出了全部要点，原则上分值不少于11分。若实在无句子，则降一两分。
3．考生所写内容与试题提示无关，不给分。
4．词数少于80或大于120词，扣2分。
5．拼写与标点符号是体现语言准确性的一个方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写均可接受。
答案详解
A篇
本文是一篇应用文，主要介绍的四本有关人际关系的畅销书。
21. D。根据第一段最后一句话Here are the best relationship books on the market, according to a licensed mental health counselor.可知，本文主要是想推荐给读者四本关于人际关系的畅销书，所以答案选D。
22. B。根据本文第三段的This book, written by award-winning author Marc Reklau, provides 62 simple strategies (策略) to help you improve your social skills in everything from first impressions to deeper relationships. With a variety of strategies available, you can choose the ones that are best suited for your needs.两句话可知，本书最大的亮点就是给人们提供提升社交技能的策略，所以答案选B。
23. D。根据本文最后一段的There are nine different personality types with up to 27 subtypes to help you understand yourself — aiding in connection with those closest to you.可知，此本书能够帮助你了解自己，所以答案选D。
B篇
本文是一篇记叙文，讲述的是想法很多却不会与人沟通的Mary通过老板的正确引导，找到了发挥自己特长的路的故事。
24. D。根据本文第一段的It wasn’t that she didn’t have anything to say — far from it. Mary’s mind was constantly racing with ideas and observations, but no matter how hard she tried, she just couldn’t seem to get the words out.两句话可知，Mary不是没话说，而是不知如何表达，所以答案选D。
25. A。根据本文第三段的“I’ve noticed that you’ve been struggling a bit lately. It seems like you’re having a tough time communicating with customers. I hear that you’re proficient at writing. So why not join our Advertising Department Besides, I have another suggestion…”可知，老板发现她工作得很不开心，根据她的性格特点，希望她可以做更擅长的工作，由此摆脱工作给她带去的烦恼，同时给她建议（让她去参加写作比赛），总体来讲，老板是关心她的近况和长远发展，所以答案选A。
26. A。根据本文第五段的She had always been a talented writer, and she knew that she had the potential to create something truly special. So she set to work, pouring her heart and soul into her essay. The words started flowing, and Mary found herself writing with a newfound sense of clarity and purpose.三句话可知，她深知自己的写作潜能，并且全身心投入到写作中去，她在写作时充满确定感和目标感，由此可见，她的状态是对自己非常的自信，所以答案选A。
27. C。根据文章大意，本文主要讲述的是想法很多却不会与人沟通的Mary通过老板的正确引导，找到了发挥自己特长的路的故事，C的意思是：在一个方面失去（Mary不会和人交流），在另一个方面赢回（她把说不出口的想法写在了文章里并且大获成功），符合文义，所以答案选C。
C篇
本文是一篇说明文，介绍的是自然界和实验室中的克隆，以及克隆动物、克隆技术的运用。
28. A。根据第二段的第二句话Single-celled organisms like bacteria make exact copies of themselves each time they reproduce.可知，单细胞生物体可以天然进行克隆复制，所以答案选A。
29. C。根据划线词后面的句子In each attempt, there can be genetic mistakes that prevent the clone from surviving.可知，在每一次尝试时，都有可能出现基因错误，从而阻止克隆体存活下来，所以说很难生产一个成功的克隆体，所以答案选C。
30. B。根据本文最后一段话大意，克隆胚胎可以得到治疗疾病的干细胞，克隆家畜可以得到更多牛奶和肉，还可以克隆已故的宠物，由此可知，本段主要讲的是克隆技术的运用，所以答案选B。
31. B。根据文章大意，本文介绍的是自然界和实验室中的克隆，以及克隆动物、克隆技术的运用，所以隶属科学板块，因此答案选B。
D篇
本文是一篇议论文，讨论的是工作中的热情的利弊。
32. A。根据第二段的最后一句话It finds that the number which mentions “passion” rose over time, from 2% in 2007 to 16% in 2019.可知，在工作简历中提到自己热爱工作的比例从2007年到2019年上涨了14%，这些数据也说明，对工作的热情越来越被认可和需要，所以答案选A。
33. C。根据第四段的大意可知，热情可以影响判断，它会让公司奖励忠诚更胜于能力，热情的员工不一定工作做得好，甚至当热情的员工走下坡路的时候，被提拔的可能性都会更大，由此可知，热情的员工可能会被不恰当地提拔，所以答案选C。
34. B。根据本文最后一段大意可知，有热情是好的，但是当你发现自己凌晨四点、节假日还在工作，或者被指派一些工作以外的事情，你的状态就不健康了，由此可知，作者对于工作中的热情持有的态度是理性客观的，所以答案选B。
35. B。根据本文大意可知，本文讨论的是工作中的热情越来越受到关注和它的利弊，所以答案选B。
七选五
本文是一篇说明文，介绍的是滋养友谊的一些方法。
36. E。此题考查的是句间关系，上半句和下半句之间的关系是并列关系：有时你是给予帮助的一方；有时你是接受帮助的一方，所以答案选E。
37. D。此题考查的是句间关系，上半句和下半句之间的关系是承接关系：询问朋友生活的现状，然后在听朋友回答的时候，通过眼神、肢体语言、偶尔简短的评论，诸如：听上去挺有趣的，让朋友知道你在认真倾听，所以答案选D。
38. F。此题考查的是段内结构，本段的主题句是：让人知道你是可以被信任的，它是建立好的友谊的关键，接下来的三个句子就是三条建议：赴约和准时、信守承诺、为朋友保密，所以答案选F。
39. C。此题考查的是段内结构，通过分析剩余句子的含义可得知：建立亲密的友谊需要共度时光，定期见朋友，两次见面的中间问候朋友，这么做，刚开始的几次你会觉得有点尴尬，但是时间久了你就会觉得很自然，所以本段的主题是：要找空和朋友一起度过一些时光，所以答案选择C。
40. G。此题考查的是句间关系，上半句和下半句之间的关系是承接关系：每次你往坏处想的时候，想想看有多少次你担心的尴尬时刻真实发生了，你就会注意到，你所害怕的其实一般都没有发生，所以答案选G。
完形填空
本文是一篇记叙文，讲述的是作者如何爱上音乐和在音乐之路发展的故事。
41. B。根据文章的主旋律可知，作者第一次听到古典音乐就爱上了音乐，再根据第42题所在的句子：我停下了一切动作，和第45题所在的句子中的关键词：enjoyable，由于作者当时只有四岁，又是第一次听音乐，不可能是：有深意的meaningful，所以答案选B“神奇的”。
42. D。作者在四岁第一次听到如此神奇的东西，反应应该是凝神听痴了，所以答案选D“空空地”。
43. A。作者听到神奇的古典乐，完全被这音乐给迷住了，所以选A。B“鼓舞”，言之有过，第一次听，不存在是否受到鼓舞。
44. C。由于我的aunt，我有了第一次与古典乐的亲密接触，所以答案选C“多亏了”。A：与aunt一起，B：“要不是”（如果选择此项，后面的句子应该用虚拟语气），D：对于我的aunt来说。
45. D。古典音乐奠定了我的人生道路，所以答案选D“建立”。A“追随”，B“阻碍”，C“清除”。
46. B。我开始上钢琴课，并在9岁时自己谱写曲子，在高中时，我和最好的朋友组建了乐队，玩音乐，录制音乐，所以答案选B“形成，组建”。
47. B。这一切变成了我生活和对自己的身份认定中一个巨大的组成部分，所以选B“身份，特征”。
48. C。但是这一切如果没有一些复杂的经过，就不会有那么多故事价值，所以答案选C。A“故事框架”，B“故事元素”，D“故事情节”，显然价值比情节更有意义。
49. A。在大学的时候，我开始学习交际舞，我们大家都开始追求自己个人的人生轨迹，所以答案选A“轨迹，道路”。D“人生态度”，此处从事音乐之路是作者的发展路线，而不是一种态度。
50. C。音乐一直坐在（我人生之列车的）后座（因为我放弃玩音乐很久了），直到2017年的一天，所以答案选C。
51. D。那是一个普通的周日下午，我弹了会儿钢琴，但是这一次有点不同以往（一些想法突然冒了出来），所以答案选D。
52. A。不知怎的，不知道来自哪里的一些东西突然击中我的心弦，我想采取行动。所以答案选A“击中”。B“干扰”，C“使得心烦”，D“使得震惊”。
53. B。我怎么会放弃了音乐？我马上上网买了一些（录制音乐的）设备诸如麦克风支架，混音器和一些好的麦克风，开始录制音乐。所以答案选B“设备”。
54. A。今天不去做的事将会变成明天的遗憾，所以答案选A“遗憾”。
55. C。因此，我开始倾入感情进行创作，并把表达了自己内心想法的创作作品发布在网上，所以答案选C。
56. A。几个月之后，我发布了很多作品，我的创作力在燃烧。所以答案选A。
57. B。随着越来越多的人听我的音乐，我得到令人满意的反馈。所以答案选B。
58. D。他们说我的音乐让他们思考和放松。我告诉他们，我可以产生共鸣理解他们，所以答案选D。
59. C。对于一些人来说，我的音乐甚至能辅助他们入睡，或者作为一个让他们释放一天繁重工作压力的方式。所以答案选C“释放”。
60. D。我开始意识到，我的音乐不仅仅是为我一个人而作，它能够以一种有意义的方式治愈和帮助他人，所以答案选D。
语法填空
本文是一篇说明文，介绍的是血液运输得以实现的历史。
61. 本题考查的是动词的时态，答案为were。
62. 本题考查的是词性变化，答案为organized。
63, 本题考查的是非谓语动词，答案为to preserve。
64. 本题考查的是冠词，答案为the。
65. 本题考查的是介词，答案为from。
66. 本题考查的是词性变化，答案为successfully。
67. 本题考查的是动词的时态，答案为broke。
68. 本题考查的是非谓语动词作状语，答案为creating。
69. 本题考查的是定语从句，答案为which/that。
70. 本题考查的是词性变化，答案为practical。
听力材料
Text 1
W: Excuse me, how can I find the book called The Class of 1998
M: Oh, I’m afraid it was sold out.
W: It’s all right. Thank you!
Text 2
M: How did your dancing lesson go today
W: Exciting! But it was hard work. I really need a rest now.
M: Yeah, I can see that. Go and get relaxed.
Text 3
M: How much is that in total
W: $100. But if you have a membership card, I can give you a 20% discount.
M: Great! This is my membership card.
Text 4
M: Jane, I’m going out for a while.
W: But you have an appointment with Mr. Douglas at 3 o’clock.
M: Well, please make it another day.
Text 5
W: David said he would quit his job at our school.
M: Really Why would he do that
W: His friend started a firm in London. She wanted David to help her.
Text 6
W: I’m going out for shopping. Do you need anything
M: Oh, yeah. I can’t find my umbrella. Can you buy one
W: Shouldn’t it be in the cupboard
M: I just checked. It wasn’t there.
W: Impossible. That was where I usually put it. Did you check the balcony
M: Yes, of course, I couldn’t find it. Well, just get a new one then.
Text 7
M: Hi, Lucy. How was your weekend
W: Great! You know, we went mountain climbing in the forest park. The air was so different from the city, cool and fresh.
M: Sounds great!
W: Yeah, there wasn’t a cloud in the sky and we could see from miles from the top. What about you What did you do
M: Busy packing.
W: Oh, yes, of course! I forgot you and Jenny are moving into a new house. It’s on Wednesday, isn’t it
M: Yeah, two days after. I didn’t realize there are so many things to do.
W: Can I help out with anything
M: Um, it would be nice if you could take care of Henry for a couple of days.
W: Henry
M: Yes, my dog.
W: Oh, sure, no problem. You just focus on the move.
Text 8
M: Hello, can I speak to Mr. Stone, please
W: Hello, but I’m afraid Mr. Stone is in a meeting until lunchtime. Can I take a message
M: Well, yes. I’d like to make an appointment to see him. It’s Harrison White here.
W: Just a second, Mr. White. I’ll look in the diary. So... when is convenient for you
M: Sometime today, if possible. I hear he’ll be away tomorrow.
W: Yes, that’s right. He’ll be on a business trip for a week.
M: I need to talk about my new program with him before he leaves. It’s urgent. So would this afternoon be OK
W: Let me see...OK. Mr. Stone is free this afternoon after 3:00.
M: Well, 3:00 is a bit difficult. But I could make it after 3:30.
W: So, shall we say a quarter to four this afternoon in Mr. Stone’s office
M: That’s great. Thanks.
Text 9
W: Hello
M: HI, Cindy. This is Jake Lee at Fix-it Corporation. How are you today
W: Oh, hi, Jake. I’m fine. How are you
M: Good. The reason I’m calling is that we’d like to offer you the position you were interviewed for last Thursday.
W: OH, that’s great! I was really impressed with Fix-it.
M: I’m glad to hear it. And we’ll prepare to offer you a starting salary of $55,000.
W: I see. And ...vacation time
M: Oh, you get one day per month in your first year. That is you’ll have 12 days in your first year, and then increase if you stay longer with the company.
W: What would be my job title
M: You’d be a junior specialist. And you’d be working under Monica Stansfield, the department manager.
W: OK...Is the salary negotiable at all
M: Well, this is typical for new staff.
W: I see...
M: Why don’t you think about it I’ll need to hear back from you by Wednesday. Will that work
W: Sure, no problem. I’ll let you know Tuesday afternoon.
Text 10
Hello, everybody. Today I’d like to share with you something about John Audubon. John was born on April 26th,1785. He spent much of his childhood in France where he spent many hours each day outdoors painting pictures. At the age of 18, he moved to the United States. Well, actually, John began his life in the US as a businessman. However, instead of taking care of his business, John was often off exploring nature. At first, John spent his time hunting for fun. Then he found that the animals around were very beautiful, and he particularly enjoyed observing the birds he saw. He began studying them, trying to learn the differences between the birds and noticing their different behaviors. Therefore, he painted the birds he observed a lot. In 1819, John realized that he didn’t have enough money to pay his bills. He was very upset that he couldn’t earn enough money to support his family. So he spent time improving his painting skills and began to sell his paintings. He discovered that he could earn some money while doing something he really enjoyed. We are lucky now to have so many paintings of American birds by John Audubon.
