成都市蓉城名校联盟2022-2023学年高一下学期期中联考
英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1～5：CCABB 6～10：CABAA 11～15：CBACA 16～20：BCBCA
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21～23：DCD 24～27：DBBA 28～31：CBAD 32～35：CBAC
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36～40：FEBGC
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41～45：ADBCD 46～50：CABBB 51～55：CACAD
第二节 语法填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. arriving 57. options 58. developed 59. is based 60. a
61. to praise 62. quickly 63. which 64. as 65. having
评分标准: 有任何错误, 包括用词错误、单词拼写错误 (含大小写) 或语法形式错误, 均不给分。
第四部分 任务型阅读 (满分20分)
第一节 (每小题1分，共10分)
66. done 67. politely 68. hopeful 69. went 70. unsure
71. had fallen 72. impatient 73. untouched 74. thoughtful 75. push
评分标准: 有任何错误, 包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或语法形式错误, 均不给分。
第二节 （共10分）
76. He must be feeling so worried/upset/anxious/nervous that “here comes another person who will push me for doing his work first.” （3分）
77. I might say to him, “Sir, you please have your tea; I am not in a hurry.” He might look up at me for the first time, give me a rare smile and say, “Thanks, but it is an everyday affair with me; you are not in a hurry but somebody else will come who will be in a hurry.” and then continue his work at hand.（3分）
78. I would learn to be more communicative, understanding / thoughtful / empathetic and friendly with people who help me with my work, putting myself in others’ shoes and be thankful that they are there for me, not taking their work for my convenience for granted.（4分）
评分标准: 学生言之成理，符合语境可给分。
第五部分 写作 (满分20分)
参考范文：
Dear Kevin，
Learning that you are interested in “China-Chic Diet” culture, I’m very glad to introduce more to you. In recent years, with the development of Chinese economy and recognition of local brands, China-Chic food culture is increasingly popular, which is a combination of Chinese traditional diet culture and fashion.
But nowadays “pseudo China-Chic” is emerging, among which copying is one serious problem. For example, after some dim sum styles went viral last year, the “Dim sum style” spread all over the country. Meanwhile, for lack of relevant cultural meaning and creativity, fake China-Chic “only has a shell but no soul”.
Therefore, measures must be taken. First, follow our own catering tradition and culture, allowing for the product itself, its quality and local conditions; Second, focus on innovation, trying to create unique Chinese fashion diets.
With all these done, I’m sure our China-Chic catering culture will last long.
Looking forward to hearing from you. Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
评分标准
一、各档次语言要点配分参考标准：
档 次 要点数 要点分 语言要点表达情况划档依据
第五档 5 18～20 语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档 4 14～17 语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
第三档 3 10～13 语言有一些错误，尚能表达。
第二档 2 5～9 语言错误很多，影响表达。
第一档 1 0～4 只能写出与要求内容有关的一些单词。
总体评分原则：评分时，先根据文章所表达的内容和语言质量初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
二、内容要点认定及计分参考标准：
1．“国潮饮食”文化盛行（阐述清楚、表达正确，计4分）；
2．“伪国潮”现象：（1）抄袭严重，千篇一律（阐述清楚、表达正确，计4分）；
（2）缺乏内涵，无真正的文化传承，无创意，“只有外壳没有灵魂”（阐述清楚、表达正确，计4分）；
3．如何拯救“国潮饮食”文化：（1）传承（阐述清楚、表达正确，计4分）；
（2）创新（阐述清楚、表达正确，计4分）。
三、扣分参考依据:
1．考生所写内容与试题提示无关，不给分；
2．其表达未能达成正确句意的，不给分，如：写出了主语或谓语等关键词，但未能达成符合要点要求、意义正确的句子；
3．句子结构完整，但关键点出现错误或漏掉部分关键词，扣半个要点分，如：主谓一致错误，或关键词拼写错误（如主语，关键性名词等），或谓语动词时态/语态错误等；
4．凡使用铅笔答题，或答题中使用了涂改液或不干胶条，一律不给分；
5．拼写与标点符号是体现语言准确性的一个方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写均可接受。凡多次出现非关键性单词拼写错误或其它同类错误，原则上每4处扣1分；
6．文章内容要点全面，但写出了一些多余内容（连接或过渡词句不在此列），原则上不扣分；凡书写超出规定的答题区域，全卷不给分；
7．词数少于80或大于120，扣2分；
8．书写潦草凌乱、但基本不影响阅卷的，酌情扣卷面分1～2分。
答案解析
阅读理解
A
主题语境：人与社会
语篇类型：应用文
语篇导读：推荐四个美丽的海滩。
21. D 细节理解 根据题干中untouched 定位Nungwi中“about 30 untouched beaches”得出答案。
22. C 细节理解 根据Sun Island中“... has become a favorite with ocean lovers drawn by the thought of sleeping over the water.”得出答案。
23. D 目的意图 根据第一段最后一句话“If you are beach lovers, the following ones are worth your visit”得出答案。
B
主题语境：人与自我
语篇类型：记叙文
语篇导读：“我”在圣诞节前患Omicron以及康复的经历。
24. D 细节理解 根据第一段第二句话“I’d been wanting to go holiday shopping ever since China eased its COVID-19 response measures in early December 2022, going to supermarkets to get ready for the big holiday.”得出答案。
25. B 细节理解 根据第四段中“I decided to take the path of traditional Chinese medicine. With the help of this ancient form of treatment, plenty of rest and plenty of water, I made a speedy recovery.”得出答案。
26. B 推理判断 根据第五段中“After feeling much more like my normal self again”和“I felt a sense of relief”得出答案。
27. A 推理判断 根据作者治愈Omicron的经历以及最后一段“When we meet with trouble, embrace it and get through it”得出答案。
C
主题语境：人与社会
语篇类型：说明文
语篇导读：颜色对挑食者的影响。
28. C 细节理解 根据第三段中“but did not influence the non-picky group”得出答案。
29. B 细节理解 根据第三段中“The picky group thought that the snack served in the red bowl was least desirable”和第五段中“while the color red is usually connected with stop.”得出答案。
30. A 词意推测 根据第六段中前两句话“Supermarkets use similar psychology (心理学) to catch people’s attention. Children’s cups are colorful by design to entice kids, to give them a sense of safety and to make it fun for them to drink something.”得出答案。
31. D 推理判断 根据第六段中最后一句话“When advertisers want customers to buy chips or food, the packaging (包装) tends to use warm and inviting colors that remind people of their childhood.” 得出答案。
D
主题语境：人与社会
语篇类型：说明文
语篇导读：ChatGPT对未来教育方向的影响。
32. C 推理判断 根据第三段中“The world rewards you for what you can do with what you know”得出答案。
33. B 推理判断 根据第五段中最后一句话“while ChatGPT goes a step further and analyzes a search before providing a single answer”得出答案。
34. A 主旨大意 文章的说明对象是Chat GPT对未来教育方向的影响。
35. C 文章出处 根据文章的说明对象是Chat GPT对未来教育方向的影响得出答案。
七选五
主题语境：人与自我
语篇类型：说明文
语篇导读：关于如何度过艰难的时期的五点建议。
36. F 上下文语境和句间逻辑 根据上句“Sometimes you’re up, sometimes you’re down.”以及下句Here’s how to make getting through hard times less difficult与答案中“support and guidance”相衔接得出答案。
37. E 段落首句与下句“But I am saying you have to eventually adjust your mood and start moving forward.” 构成并列结构。
38. B 小标题 根据本段内容得出答案。
39. G 段尾句 紧扣小标题，与上句紧密衔接。
40. C 上下文语境和句间逻辑 紧扣小标题，与下句“This will give yourself much confidence when you realize that you’ve already made so much progress...”紧密衔接。
完形填空
主题语境：人与自我
文章体裁：记叙文
语篇导读：作者讲述了他多年来坚持跑马拉松的励志故事。
41. A 考查形容词。由前文“my first marathon… I started too fast”和后文“Then, seven years ago, when I was 43. I went to a talk by someone who had just done the Sahara Desert… and pledged (发誓) I would run it, too.”可知作者开始跑得不轻松、难受，后面受到激励才愿意继续跑下去的，故选A。
42. D 考查名词。根据后文“I would run it, too.”结合上下文，做报告的这个人应该是刚参加过撒哈拉沙漠的马拉松赛跑，race赛跑，速度竞赛；竞争，角逐。故选D。
43. B 考查过去分词。A. discouraged泄气的，心灰意冷的； B. inspired受激励的，被鼓舞的；C. relieved安心，释然，放心的，如释重负；D. irritated被激怒的，恼怒的，根据上下文，听了报告后，受到鼓舞，所以发誓也要去跑，故选B。
44. C 考查动词。根据前文，在参加了纳米比亚沙漠的超级马拉松后，想知道接下来自己究竟能够做什么，故选C。
45. D 考查固定短语。根据前文，父亲当过兵，因癌症去世，想为军人慈善事业筹款应是为了纪念父亲，故选D。
46. C 考查动词短语。根据后文的“On the first day, I ran for around six to seven hours, eating along…，”作者为了为军人慈善事业筹款，参加了这个挑战。故选C。
47. A 考查名词。作者一路吃是为了获得更多的能量，故选A。
48. B 考查动词。我的右跟腱撕裂(tore)了，应该是减慢了速度，故选B。
49. B 考查名词复现。根据上文“My father, a former soldier, had just died of cancer and I wanted to raise money for a soldiers’ charity 45 ”，故选B。
50. B 考查动词。到了第26天，情况变得更糟了。我不得不走完这一天，花了将近11个小时，故选B。
51. C 考查动词。根据上下文，我不能失败，假如我退出/放弃，痛苦会停止，但我会终身后悔，以及后文“On May 20, I finished, four days after my 50th birthday,”故选C。
52. A 考查动词。解析同51，故选A。
53. C 考查形容词比较级。根据上下文，我多年来坚持跑马拉松，所以现在我的身体比我生命中的任何时候都要健壮，故选C。
54. A 考查形容词。从“Anyone can do this. I’m not a superhuman.”以及全文可知，我是意志坚定的，坚决的，有决心的，并且已经计划好了下一件要做的事。故选A。
55. D 考查过去分词。have sth. done中过去分词作宾补，表示被动的含义，“使某事被做”，根据上下文，我已经计划好了下一件要做的事，故选D。
语法填空
主题语境：人与社会
文章体裁：新闻报道
语篇导读：本文主要讲述随着兔年到来，2023年春晚官方标志和吉祥物形象“兔圆圆”的诞生（这是春晚40年历史上第一个通过大数据分析生成的知识产权吉祥物）以及中国兔文化。
56. arriving 考查非谓语动词。考查with+宾语+宾补，新年到来，这里arriving作的是介词with后宾语Chinese New Year的宾语补足语，和宾语之间是主动、进行的关系，故用arriving。
57. options 考查名词。根据前文countless，应该是不计其数的选择(option)，故用名词复数options。
58. developed 考查非谓语动词。通读全句，这是春晚40年历史上第一个通过大数据分析生成的知识产权吉祥物。本句主句It is…，因此develop在这儿应是及物动词， 意为“研发，产生”， 表被动，应该使用过去分词作定语限定修饰the first intellectual property mascot，故用developed。
59. is based 考查谓语动词的形式。纵观全句：“ …and combines… and then (it is) completed using 3D modeling technology,”这是由两个and连接的并列句，有三个并列的谓语动词；同时，以……为基础，应该使用be based on…， 故用is based。
60. a 考查冠词。 因为前面提到了gongbi， 这是中国绘画中严谨的写实主义手法(a careful realist technique in Chinese painting)， 是中国绘画的一种手法，故用不定冠词a。
61. to praise 考查非谓语动词。根据全句，人们常说“动若脱兔”来称赞人们动作敏捷。本处应用不定式表目的，故用to praise。
62. quickly 考查副词。此处要用副词修饰moving，动作敏捷， 行动迅速，故用副词quickly。
63. which 考查定语从句。因为先行词是“a smart rabbit always has many holes”这件事情，且在非限制性定语从句中作主语，故用关系代词which。
64. as 考查介词和固定搭配。see A as B，把A看作B。过去的人们也把兔子看作是一个好兆头，故用介词as。
65. having 考查非谓语动词。全句：他们相信多生孩子能给他们带来好运和幸福。本处用having more children作宾语从句的主语，故用having。
听力原文
Text 1
W: What were you doing at this time last night
M: I was watching the football match.
W: I thought you went to see your brother.
M: I wanted to, but it was a very important match. I couldn’t miss it.
Text 2
M: I need some advice.
W: That’ll be five dollars for one question, sir, or ten for two. If you ask three, the rate goes down to four dollars each.
Text 3
W: Wow, I just put gas in my car, and it was so expensive! How can you pay that much all the time
M: I know, it’s much more expensive in the city. I seldom drive here because of it.
Text 4
W: I had my hair cut today. And you didn’t even notice that I changed my hair.
M: I noticed. I just forgot to tell you how nice your hair looks today.
W: Oh, really Do you like it
M: Yeah. It’s much better than before.
Text 5
W: Do you know where to find the rice, honey I didn’t see any when we were going through the store, and I don’t know where to look for it.
M: Yes, I know where it is. If we need it, I can go get a bag for the house.
Text 6
W: Tom, I’m home! What happened to my apartment What a mess!
M: Oh, hi, sis! I thought you weren’t coming back until tomorrow.
W: Yeah, I can tell. Just look at this mess! You said you’d keep an eye on things while I was away on vacation. I should have known better!
M: I just had a few friends over for a little party last night, that’s all. But don’t worry. I’ll have it all cleaned up in a minute!
W: Just start cleaning and stop talking. Hurry up!
Text 7
W: Lovely day, isn’t it
M: Oh yes, beautiful.
W: You’re not English, are you
M: No, I’m from Italy. But my father was born in England, and my mother comes from Japan.
W: How long have you been learning English
M: For three years now.
W: Wow! Your English is so good. How long are you going to stay in England
M: Another six months, then I’m going back to Italy. Actually, I have been here for four years.
Text 8
M: Do you want to go Christmas shopping this weekend
W: Sure. I have school on Friday, and on Saturday, I’m going with mom to see Jimmy in a play. Sunday works, though.
M: Sunday is fine. I need to get mom, dad, and Jimmy each Christmas presents.
W: What about a present for me
M: I’ve already got a present for you!
W: Okay, good. I only need to get mom a present. I’ve gotten presents for everyone else in the family. Do you think I can drive on Sunday
M: I guess you can drive my car, but just don’t drive too fast!
W: Hey, I’m a good driver!
Text 9
W: Ronald, I heard you have moved to a new house in the suburbs. How do you like traveling a long distance to work every day Don’t you find it boring
M: It was sleepy at first, especially getting up an hour before my 6:30 train. But now that I’m used to it, it’s interesting.
W: Don’t you think it’s a waste of time How do you pass the time
M: Ah, that’s a good question. In the morning, I just sit and read the papers to catch up on the news. On the way home at night, I relax with a good book or chat with friends or even have a game of bridge.
W: I suppose you know a lot of people on the train now.
M: Yes, I made some new friends yesterday. Last week, I came across a couple of old school friends, and we spent the entire journey in the bar.
W: It sounds like you had a good time!
Text 10
John Roger Stephens, born on December 28th, 1978, better-known by his stage name John Legend, is an American singer, songwriter, and actor. He has won nine Grammy Awards, one Golden Globe, and one Academy Award. In 2007, Legend received the special Starlight Award from the Songwriters Hall of Fame. He is one of the four children in his family. At the age of four, he performed in the church. He began playing the piano at age seven. While in college, Legend was introduced to Lauryn Hill by a friend. Hill hired him to play the piano on Everything Is Everything, a song from her album. He finished college in 1999, and after that he began producing. writing, and recording his own music. He released two albums of his own. He chose his stage name from an idea that was given to him by the poet J. Ivy. And that’s how John Legend’s career was born.成都市蓉城名校联盟2022-2023学年高一下学期期中联考
英 语
考试时间120分钟，满分150分
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必在答题卡上将自己的学校、姓名、班级、准考证号用0.5毫米黑色签字笔填写清楚，考生考试条形码由监考老师粘贴在答题卡上的“条形码粘贴处”。
2.选择题使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上对应题目标号的位置上，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后再填涂其它答案；非选择题用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡的对应区域内作答，超出答题区域答题的答案无效；在草稿纸上、试卷上答题无效。
3.考试结束后由监考老师将答题卡收回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What did the man do last night
A. He played football. B. He visited his brother. C. He watched a match.
2. How much does it cost to ask three questions
A. $15. B. $14. C. $12.
3. What is the topic of the conversation
A. The price of gas. B. Buying a car. C. Driving in the city.
4. What does the man say about the woman’s hairstyle
A. He thinks it looks worse than before.
B. He likes her new hairstyle better.
C. He didn’t notice the change.
5. Where are the speakers probably
A. At home. B. In the store. C. In the restaurant.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Where did the woman just come back from
A. A party. B. Her brother’s apartment. C. A vacation.
7. What will the man do next
A. Clean the room. B. Visit some friends. C. Talk with his sister.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What do we know about the man
A. He is a local person here.
B. He comes from Italy.
C. His father is a Japanese.
9. How long is the man going to stay in the country
A. Six months. B. Three years. C. Four years.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. When will the speakers go shopping
A. On Sunday. B. On Saturday. C. On Friday.
11. Who does the woman need to buy a present for
A. Jimmy. B. The man. C. Her mother.
12. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Father and daughter.
B. Brother and sister.
C. Classmates.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. When does the man get up every morning
A. At 5:30. B. At 6:00. C. At 6:30.
14. How does the woman like traveling a long distance to work every day
A. It’s interesting.
B. It’s sleepy.
C. It’s a waste of time.
15. What does the man do on the train in the morning
A. He reads the news.
B. He chats with friends.
C. He reads a book.
16. When did the man come across some old friends
A. Yesterday. B. Last week. C. A couple of weeks ago.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. How many Grammy Awards has John Legend won
A. One. B. Six. C. Nine.
18. At what age did John Legend begin playing the piano
A. Four. B. Seven. C. Eight.
19. What did John Legend do in 1999
A. He met Lauryn Hill.
B. He wrote his first song.
C. He finished college.
20. Who gave John Legend his stage name
A. A poet. B. His college teacher. C. A famous songwriter.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Beaches are great places for fun and relaxation of the travel world. These slivers of sand against the ocean make you realize that “real life” occasionally needs escaping. If you are beach lovers, the following ones are worth your visit.
Playa Paraiso
One of the wonderful beaches in the world is Playa Paraiso in Cuba’s finest beach island Cayo Largo. The weather is usually calm and the sea here remains shallow most of the year. Most people go to Playa Paraiso to enjoy calm water to swim or simply relax on the beach.
Nungwi
Nungwi is considered to be the most beautiful beach of Zanzibar. The island has long been loved by adventurous travelers for its mysterious old Stone Town and about 30 untouched beaches. The blue waters and coral (珊瑚) around Nungwi are home to many marine creatures.
Maya Bay
Maya Bay is a white sand beach hugged by steep cliffs. Coral reefs make it an excellent spot for snorkeling (浮潜). This strikingly beautiful beach has got more attention after featuring in the Leonardo DiCaprio film The Beach, but it’s still worth visiting for the dramatic setting and snorkeling opportunities.
Sun Island
Recognized as the world’s best beach, Sun Island is located on a beach lover’s paradise, Maldives. This diamond in the middle of the Indian Ocean has become a favorite with ocean lovers drawn by the thought of sleeping over the water. Nearby coral reefs attract thousands of tropical fish, snorkelers and divers. But you don’t even need to snorkel to enjoy the scenery — parts of the reef are visible from the beach, so clear is the water.
21. If you are fond of untouched beaches, which one will you choose to travel
A. Playa Paraiso. B. Maya Bay.
C. Sun Island. D. Nungwi.
22. What is special about Sun Island
A. It has many diamonds.
B. It has calm weather and shallow water.
C. Visitors can choose to sleep over the water.
D. To appreciate the coral reefs, you have to snorkel in the sea.
23. What’s the purpose of the text
A. To compare four beautiful beaches.
B. To encourage people to have a holiday.
C. To introduce the best beaches in the world.
D. To recommend some wonderful beaches.
B
Christmas has come and gone once again. I’d been wanting to go holiday shopping ever since China eased its COVID-19 response measures in early December 2022, going to supermarkets to get ready for the big holiday.
My mom was a single parent in New York City, the US. During the Christmas holiday, she would always make sure our home had a real festive feel to it — and she’d always make sure to get a real tree. We’d decorate it with ornaments and lights on the morning of December 25. And I always knew presents awaited. Over the years, I’ve never forgotten these happy moments.
I first arrived in China in late 2008 and have since settled down in Shenyang, capital city of Liaoning Province in the northeast. Even though Christmas is not an official holiday in China, many shop windows will feature seasonal decorations and some locals will buy Christmas gifts for their families and friends.
Unfortunately, I tested positive for Omicron (奥密克戎) on December 13th, 2022, and had almost all the symptoms (症状). I figured this would be the end of my holiday. As I knew my body preferred natural herbs, I decided to take the path of traditional Chinese medicine. With the help of this ancient form of treatment, plenty of rest and plenty of water, I made a speedy recovery. It seemed Christmas had not been lost, after all.
After feeling much more like my normal self again, I went to the cinema to watch the latest action-adventure film, Avatar: The Way of Water. When I saw the fantasy epic on the big screen, I felt a sense of relief, like the movie theater was the only world that existed at that very moment.
It is an experience that gives me something to share. When we meet with trouble, embrace it and get through it. I would like to wish all of you a very happy Christmas and a wonderful 2023.
24. What did the author plan to do before December 13th, 2022
A. He tested positive for Omicron.
B. He planned to settle down in Shenyang.
C. He planned to decorate the tree on the Eve of Christmas.
D. He was going to make some preparations for the coming Christmas.
25. Which of the following did NOT help the author recover from Omicron
A. Having plenty of rest.
B. Buying Christmas gifts for families and friends.
C. Drinking a lot of water.
D. Taking traditional Chinese medicine.
26. What can we infer from Paragraph 5
A. Christmas was lost for the author.
B. The author recovered both physically and mentally.
C. The author was frightened by the movie.
D. The movie theatre was the only world that existed.
27. Which word can best describe the author according to the text
A. Optimistic. B. Friendly.
C. Extraordinary. D. Negative.
C
Color may influence the way food tastes for picky (挑剔的) eaters, according to a new study published in the journal Food Quality and Preference.
Stafford’s research team did an experiment with about 50 participants, who were mostly young adults around 20 years old. The study divided the individuals into picky and non-picky eaters, based on their responses to a certain measure. Both groups then tasted the same snacks served in red, white and blue bowls.
The results showed the color of the bowls influenced how the picky group perceived (感知) the saltiness and desirability of the foods — but did not influence the non-picky group. The picky group thought that the snack served in the red bowl was least desirable and the snack was higher in saltiness in the red and blue bowl — compared with the white bowl.
“Picky eating usually starts in childhood,” Dr. Lama Bazzi said. She explained that if picky eating is not solved properly as a child, it can be developed later into certain eating disorders.
All of this is because of a sense of control and a sense of safety. So when talking about the colors of the bowls in the research study, it probably has to do with what makes that person feel safe, such as what colors are connected with safety. The colors blue, green and purple are considered “safer” colors, while the color red is usually connected with “stop”.
Supermarkets use similar psychology (心理学) to catch people’s attention. Children’s cups are colorfully designed to entice kids, giving them a sense of safety and making it fun for them to drink something. When advertisers want customers to buy chips or food, the packaging (包装) tends to use warm and inviting colors that remind people of their childhood.
Stafford noted that the research is primary, yet the data may help picky eaters to eat various food.
28. What do we know about the experiment
A. The participants were all young adults.
B. Different snacks were served in different colors of bowls.
C. Color of the bowls didn’t influence the non-picky group.
D. The picky group thought the snacks in the white bowl saltier.
29. What color might help lose weight according to the text
A. Blue. B. Red.
C. Green. D. Purple.
30. What does the underlined word “entice” in Paragraph 6 mean
A. Attract. B. Force.
C. Admit. D. Warn.
31. Why do advertisers use warm and inviting colors for packaging
A. To remind people of their childhood.
B. To give people a sense of safety.
C. To solve people’s eating disorders.
D. To attract people to buy goods.
D
“The arrival of ChatGPT will push educators to focus more on teaching subjects that technology is not good at.” Andreas Schleicher said, who is director of education and skills for the Organization of Economic Co-operation and Development. He welcomes this development and thinks it gives people the chance to concentrate less on tasks that technology can also do well.
The future is not about technology vs humans. The future is about integrating technology with humans. ChatGPT pushes us to think harder of what makes us human.
“The world no longer rewards you just for what you know. Baidu knows everything. The world rewards you for what you can do with what you know, and ChatGPT pushes us to work harder on this. If students are only as smart as a smartphone, it means educators are not doing enough. People should focus on developing human skills that actually are important, such as imagination and creativity.” Schleicher said in an interview with China Daily on the sidelines of the World Digital Education Conference.
The arrival of artificial intelligence (AI) really pushes people to think hard about what education is and the purpose it serves, as well as what knowledge, skills, attitudes and values humans have that complement (补充) artificial intelligence.
ChatGPT is not connected to the Internet, so it can’t replace search engines. Search engines such as Google or Baidu simply extract (提取) knowledge, while ChatGPT goes a step further and analyzes a search before providing a single answer.
As a device, ChatGPT is going to make learning much more interesting and powerful, but as a purpose and objective, humans need to work very hard to win that race with technology.
32. What may Schleicher agree with
A. ChatGPT is fighting against humans.
B. Students are just as smart as a smartphone.
C. People who can do with their knowledge will be more successful.
D. ChatGPT pushes educators to concentrate more on subjects technology is good at.
33. What’s the advantage of ChatGPT over Google and Baidu according to the passage
A. ChatGPT has connection to the Internet.
B. ChatGPT has the function of analysis.
C. ChatGPT is a more powerful search engine.
D. ChatGPT knows more than Google and Baidu.
34. What can be a suitable title of this passage
A. ChatGPT to Influence Future Education
B. The Future Development of ChatGPT
C. The Development of Future Education
D. The Race between ChatGPT and Humans
35. In which section can you read the passage on a website
A. Tourism. B. Business.
C. Education. D. Amusement.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Simple Things You Can Do To Get Through Hard Times
Life is a series of peaks and valleys. Sometimes you’re up, sometimes you’re down.
36 . Here’s how to make getting through hard times less difficult:
● Stay positive
This may sound cliche (陈词滥调), but the thing about cliches is that they’re typically
true. 37 . But I am saying you have to eventually adjust your mood and start moving forward. Staying positive is the key to getting through hard times.
● 38
When I find myself in the middle of an ugly situation, I like to pick everything apart and see what went wrong and what I could have done differently. I always end up learning something that helps me and I eventually get a really clear picture of what I need to do to make sure I’m not in the same situation again. Or if I do find myself in a similar situation, I know what to do to minimize the difficulty of the situation.
● Focus on what you can control, not what you can’t
Some situations are beyond your control and no matter what you do, you can’t change a thing. You’re making yourself upset when you focus your time and energy on things you can’t control. You should focus on the things that are within your control. 39 .
● Realize you’ve come a long way
Sometimes we get so focused on the road ahead that we never look back to see what we’ve already traveled. 40 . This will give yourself much confidence when you realize that you’ve already made so much progress and the light at the end of the tunnel will get brighter.
● Be kind to yourself
You need to care for yourself to survive tough times. Take a walk through the park, enjoy a cup of coffee, read an amazing book, etc.
It doesn’t matter what you do, just do something that gets your mind and body engaged at a higher level than wallowing in self pity.
A. Avoid the hard times
B. Learn from the hard times
C. Write down everything you’ve already done
D. What you should do next is to go on travelling without thinking too much
E. I’m not saying that you can never have a bad day, or get a little discouraged
F. It’s during the difficult times that we need a little more support and guidance
G. Because that’s the only way you can make a change that’s actually going to help you
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I did my first marathon at 25. I started too fast and found it very 41 . Then, seven years ago, when I was 43, I went to a talk by someone who had just done the Sahara Desert
42 . I felt so 43 and pledged (发誓) I would run it, too.
A year later, I completed the 24-hour ultra-marathon in the Namibian desert. I
44 what on earth I could do next. My father, a former soldier, had just died of cancer and I wanted to raise money for a soldiers’ charity 45 . There are 66 cities in the UK, so I
46 a challenge — a 50 km marathon in each city, no rest days in between.
On the first day, I ran for around six to seven hours, eating along the way to get more
47 . On day two, I tore my right Achilles tendon (跟腱). I 48 my pace and thought about the soldiers’ 49 I was doing the run for. It was nothing compared with some of their injuries.
Then, on day 26, it got worse. I had to 50 through the day, which took almost 11 hours. I kept telling myself I couldn’t fail. If I 51 , the pain would have stopped, but I knew I would 52 it for the rest of my life. On May 20, I finished, four days after my 50th birthday.
I have a 53 body now than at any point in my life. Anyone can do this. I’m not superhuman. I’m just 54 , and I have the next thing 55 already.
41. A. painful B. harmful C. exciting D. inspiring
42. A. contest B. game C. match D. race
43. A. discouraged B. inspired C. relieved D. irritated
44. A. believed B. wandered C. wondered D. doubted
45. A. in his favor B. to his amazement C. to his satisfaction D. in his honor
46. A. tended to B. left behind C. participated in D. longed for
47. A. energy B. food C. belief D. spirits
48. A. wasted B. slowed C. forgot D. rushed
49. A. welfare B. charity C. happiness D. thoughts
50. A. sleep B. walk C. jump D. run
51. A. interacted B. responded C. quit D. delivered
52. A. regret B. involve C. define D. miss
53. A. worse B. lighter C. better D. luckier
54. A. determined B. happy C. ideal D. dedicated
55. A. displayed B. resisted C. requested D. planned
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Year of the Rabbit fell, with Chinese New Year 56 (arrive) on January 22 in 2023.
After gathering countless audiences’ favorite 57 (option) and through systematic and informative big data research, the 2023 Spring Festival Gala official logo and mascot (吉
祥物) image, “Tu Yuanyuan,” was born. It is the first intellectual property (知识产权) mascot
58 (develop) through big data analysis in the 40-year history of the Spring Festival Gala.
The overall image 59 (base) on the characteristics of the Chinese white rabbit and acombines the aesthetic (审美的) style of gongbi, 60 careful realist technique in Chinese painting, and then completed using 3D modeling technology.
In Chinese culture, rabbits are quiet, smart and agile (敏捷的). Many Chinese idioms speak of these features. For example, people often say dongruo tuotu 61 (praise) people for moving 62 (quick). Jiaotu sanku means that a smart rabbit always has many
holes, 63 makes it hard for people to find it. The rabbit also stands for the moon. People used to believe a rabbit was living on the moon. The rabbit is called the Jade Rabbit or the Moon Rabbit. It is the pet of the moon goddess Chang’e.
Rabbits can have a lot of babies in a short time. In this way, people in the past also saw the rabbit 64 a good sign. They believed 65 (have) more children could bring them good luck and happiness.
第四部分 任务型阅读 （共两节，满分20分）
It was New Year’s Day, the first day of the year. Lucky for me, it was a day off, so I was thinking about getting my bank work out of the way. The bank person, an elderly gentleman with a white beard, was, as usual, curt (简短失礼的,简略的) to my polite “Happy New Year.” He nodded and I sat in front of him.
Minutes passed but nothing happened.
Then very uncertain and embarrassed, I put my form and booklet (小册子) in front of him. He was busy filling up entries in his register (登记簿). After a few minutes he took my form and from his cabinet he took out a very thick file from which he started filling in my details. I sat there wondering why we had computerized banking if we were still filling in forms and registers.
After waiting for a few more minutes, in which I showed all signs of being impatient, I asked him if my work was done. The moment I uttered the words, I felt as if a bombshell had fallen on him. He shouted, “Nothing is done, it will take time!”
Just then I saw his morning cup of tea which had been lying there for the last ten minutes, untouched. The tea had turned almost cold while he was doing his work. Suddenly I felt what this man, who had been working at this counter for the last God-knows-how-many years, must be feeling when customers like me come who are always in a hurry to get their work done.
第一节 根据文本内容从方框中选择恰当的词并用其正确形式填入文本图示中，每词限用一次，有两词为多余选项 （共10小题；每小题1分，共10分）
(
polite
sure
angry
hope
go
fall
push
think
touch
do
patient
shout
)
On New Year’s Day, I went to get my bank work 66 and said “Happy New Year” to the bank person 67 . I felt 68 .
Minutes 69 by but nothing happened. I put my things before him, 70 and embarrassed.
After a few more minutes, I asked him if my work was done but he shouted at me as if a bomb 71 on him. I became 72 and worried.
Just then I saw his morning cup of tea lying there for the last ten minutes, 73 . Suddenly I felt what this man must be feeling, realizing I should be 74 and not 75 him so hard.
第二节 根据文本内容回答下列问题（共10分）
76. What must the bank person be feeling when customers like me come （3分）
77. What might I say to him then How might the man respond （3分）
78. What would I learn from this incident at last （4分）
第五部分 写作（满分20分）
近几年，“国潮饮食”(“China-Chic Diet”)文化盛行，但“伪国潮”(“pseudo China-Chic”/ “fake Guochao”)现象时有发生，餐饮国潮风还能坚持多久？假定你是李华，你的加拿大朋友Kevin对此很感兴趣，他给你发来邮件询问相关信息。请你给他回复一封邮件，内容包括：
1．“国潮饮食”文化盛行；
2．“伪国潮”现象：（1）抄袭严重，千篇一律；（2）缺乏内涵，无真正的文化传承，无创意，“只有外壳没有灵魂”；
3．如何拯救“国潮饮食”文化。
注意：1．词数100左右；开头和结尾已写好，不计入总词数；
2．参考词汇：餐饮文化diet culture/food culture/catering culture。
Dear Kevin,
Learning that you are interested in “China-Chic Diet” culture, I’m very glad to introduce more to you.
With all these done, I’m sure our China-Chic catering culture will last long.
Looking forward to hearing from you. Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
