四川省内江市名校2022-2023学年高一下学期期中考试英语试卷(PDF版含答案,无听力音频有文字材料)

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名称 四川省内江市名校2022-2023学年高一下学期期中考试英语试卷(PDF版含答案,无听力音频有文字材料)
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资源类型 教案
版本资源 外研版(2019)
科目 英语
更新时间 2023-04-29 22:44:33

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参考答案
1~5 BABAA 6~10 BCAAB
11~15 CACBB 16~20 CCABB
阅读:
21-23:BDA
24-27:CBAD
28-31:BBCC
32-35:CBAC
36-40:GFDAC
41-45: CDABA 46-50: CBACB 51-55: CAABD
.organized 57.are 58.that 59.appearance 60.equally 61. a 62.It 63.survival 64.of 65.to make
作文:
Planting Trees for our Future
National Tree Planting Day is held on March 12 every year, when millions of volunteers, both young and old, plant trees in schools, parks, city gardens and the countryside.
As we all know, trees are very important not only to the environment but also to humans. From improving air quality to fighting against climate change, trees play a vital role. In addition, they provide habitats and food for many species of wildlife.
Therefore, we each should do our bit by participating in voluntary tree planting activity. With perseverance and accumulated efforts, we will be able to make the environment better.
One possible version 2:
Planting Trees for our Future
National Tree Planting Day takes place on March 12 every year, when millions of volunteers, both young and old, plant trees in schools, parks, city gardens and the countryside.
As is known to us, trees are very significant to the environment and humans. They play a vital role in enhancing air quality and battling against climate change. Besides, trees supply habitats and food for numerous species of wildlife.
Thus, we each should take an active part in voluntary tree planting activity to do our bit. With perseverance and joint efforts, we will be able to make the environment better.
One night we were sleeping in the bed room when I heard some strange noise. I thought it was Max running and hitting something, so I kept lying in the bed and made an attempt to fall asleep again. However, the noise became louder and louder, which had already annoyed me. Swiftly I got up from my bed. I opened the door and found Max was running around the living room, trying to let all the things fall down. These abnormal behaviors really confused me while it also made me a little afraid.
At that time,Max ran towards me. He firmly grabbed my trousers and motioned me to the kitchen. As I approached the kitchen, I could obviously smell a strong burning scent and instantly knew what had happened. When I saw the fierce fire in the kitchen, I dashed into my children’s room like an arrow, waking them up at my maximum voice. Rushing out of the house together, I called 911 and asked our neighbors for help at the same time. Fortunately both my family and my house were saved. Thanks to our smart Max, we did escape from death.
备注:
阅卷分配:平均分配。
周瑞,杨莉不参加阅卷
听力原文
Text 1
W: If I were you, I would take a plane instead of a train. It will take you a long time to get there by train.
M: But flying makes me so nervous. And it is not that safe by coach.
Text 2
M: Your husband likes watching soccer so much that he’s almost like a lover of it.
W: I can’t understand why he is so crazy about soccer. He can’t help but watch TV during meals or before bed. When a soccer game comes, he doesn’t even eat or sleep.
Text 3
W: Did you hear that Helen got that modeling job! She’s going to be walking down the catwalk.
M:Wow, that’s great! All that walking practice really paid off. And for once she won’t be complaining about being so tall.
Text 4
M: I threw out the cake that was on the table. You shouldn’t leave food out for so long—it was green!
W: Oh, no! You shouldn’t have thrown that out. Ask me next time! It wasn’t bad. It was a vegetable cake!
Text 5
W: I’m sorry, but I need to return this hamburger. It’s totally raw in the middle.
M: Oh, I do apologize, madam. I’ll have the cooks make you a new one right away.
W: Actually, I think I’ve lost my appetite(没有食欲).
Text 6
M: You must be Sara. It’s nice to meet you. I’ve heard of you from my colleague, Kim.
W: Nice to meet you, too.
M: What’s your favorite steps
W: It’s hard to say. But I do love waltz very much.
M: How about cha-cha
W: To tell the truth, I don’t like it.
M: Really You must like tango, right
W: Oh,it’s really beautiful, but I just can’t dance it well.
M: Don’t be so modest. I’m sure you can dance it very well. Let’s dance it now.
W: OK. I’ll have a try.
M: Oh,you dance it so well.
W: Thank you for your compliment(赞美).
M: I think I’m your lucky fellow.
Text 7
M: Please give me a piece of New York Daily.
W: You are late. The last piece has sold out.
M: Really Is there Wall Street Journal,please
W: There are several, take a piece. The crash appears in the headline. It is famous for offering disastrous stories.
M: I have a long flight for ten hours. I need to choose a magazine.
W: There are various magazines in the rack.
M: Give me the latest issue of National Geographic.
W: That’s the top magazine in America and is popular with young people. OK. It is totally 30 dollars.
M: Here you are.
W: Have a nice trip.
Text 8
W: Have you got that guide book to Indonesia handy
M: Sure, what do you need to know
W: Well, what about currency Should I change my money at a bank or at the airport
M: Oh, it says you’d better not change it at the airport or at the travel agency. It seems you get a bad rate of exchange those ways. They suggest changing money at a state bank.
W: That’s good to know. Does it say anything about the hotels
M: Yes. They say they’re excellent, and not expensive. But you are advised to book hotels at least a week in advance.
W: That’s what I’ve heard. It’s October 24th, and there’s a week to enjoy my holiday. I have to book a hotel today. What does it say about shopping
M: They say it’s a great place to buy wood carvings and paintings.
W: Well, if the time permits, I’ll go there to have a look. And is there any mention of tours
M: Yes. It says there’s a fascinating tour to a volcano just out of Jakarta.
W: Well, I’ll be sure to go there. I’m looking forward to seeing the volcano for myself.
Text 9
M:We will take the children to climb up the hill tomorrow. Let’s get something at the supermarket.
W: Yes, we can have a picnic on the top of the hill.
M: What should we buy
W: Let me see. We should go to buy some fruit first.
M: Remember the camping last weekend It was heavy and not convenient to carry them for a long way.
W: How about taking some chocolate It is light and sweet. Children love it.
M: Good idea. We can buy some bread and nuts for children.
W: Yes. Look, peanuts, biscuits, chocolate, canned goods, anything else
M: That’s enough for kids. Oh, get some drinks.
W: Orange juice. Two bottles. And I’ll buy some milk for kids. Oh, and your favorite beer.
M: Thanks, darling. You must forget that I have to drive back home, just remember to take my favorite peanuts.
W: Yes. Shall we buy some plates It will be used during our picnic.
M: OK. Four plates. We can buy some pizza tomorrow morning.
W: Let’s go to queue up. There are so many people in the lines.
Text 10
W: Do you want lovely and attractive clothing at low prices Are you tired of wearing the same boring clothes every day Do you want to look smarter and more energetic
We can tell you where you find what you want. Best Clothing Shop has opened two new branches in the downtown area! Our shopping environment is more friendly and enjoyable than those in the suburbs. Our low prices mean you don’t have to be wealthy to look great.
Suits, jeans, shirts and dresses of various styles are on sale from tomorrow, and it lasts a week till next Friday. If you are one of the first ten lucky shoppers this weekend, you will receive a discount card. So come this Saturday to one of our new branches and get the fantastic clothes you have always wanted!内江名校 2022—2023 学年(下)高 2025 届半期考试
英语学科试题
考试时间:120 分钟 满分:150 分
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 5小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 7.5分)
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最
佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题
和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How will the man travel
A. By plane. B. By train. C. By coach.
2. What does the woman say about her husband
A. He is a big fan of football.
B. He often helps cook meals.
C. He eats much before sleep.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A walking holiday. B. Helen’s new job. C. A customer complaint.
4. Why was the cake green
A. It was made from vegetables.
B. It was decorated with green color.
C. It was on the table for a long time.
5. What does the woman probably want to do
A. Get her money back. B. Buy a new hamburger. C. Talk to the cook.
第二节(共 15小题,每小题 1.5分,满分 22.5分)
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个
选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个
小题,每小题 5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第 6和第 7两个小题。
6. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Colleagues. B. Strangers. C. Good friends.
7. What kind of dance are the speakers doing
A. Waltz. B. Cha-cha. C. Tango.
听下面一段对话,回答第 8和第 9两个小题。
8. What does the man fail to get
A. New York Daily.
1
B. Wall Street Journal.
C. National Geographic.
9. Why does the man buy those
A. To kill time. B. To plan a trip. C. To collect stories.
听下面一段对话,回答第 10至第 12三个小题。
10. Where will the woman exchange currency most probably
A. At the airport. B. At a state bank. C. At the travel agency.
11. When does the woman plan to go for a holiday
A. On October 17th. B. On October 24th. C. On October 31st.
12. What is the woman sure to do
A. Go to see a volcano. B. Buy some paintings. C. Learn wood carvings.
听下面一段对话,回答第 13至第 16四个小题。
13. What are the speakers going to do tomorrow
A. Go camping. B. Go hiking. C. Go climbing.
14. What does the man think of taking fruit
A. Useless. B. Inconvenient. C. Necessary.
15. What does the man remind the woman to buy for him
A. Beer. B. Peanuts. C. Orange juice.
16. How many plates will the speakers take
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
听下面一段独白,回答第 17至第 20四个小题。
17. Where are the new branches opened
A. In the suburbs. B. In the old town. C. In the city center.
18. What does Best Clothing Shop sell
A. Beautiful and cheap clothing.
B. Classic second-hand clothing.
C. Expensive but attractive clothing.
19. When will the sale end
A. Next Thursday. B. Next Friday. C. Next Saturday.
20. What will a luck shopper receive this Saturday
A. A free shirt. B. A discount card. C. A wonderful gift.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分 50分)
第一节(共 15小题, 每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C和 D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题纸
上将该项涂黑。
2
A
Throughout the past year, we followed some interesting new inventions in the field of
artificial intelligence (AI). Here is a look back at some notable AI developments in 2022.
Meta’s speech-to-speech translation
Facebook’s parent Meta said it had built a technology tool to directly translate between
English and the Hokkien language, a spoken language without a widely used written form.
Meta said it trained its AI models on written text examples from Mandarin Chinese. In
addition, developers used an encoding (编码) tool designed to compare spoken Hokkien to similar
English text.
Method to identify Parkinson’s disease
Researchers announced a new AI method to identify Parkinson’s disease. The system works
by measuring a person’s breathing patterns during sleep. With just one night of sleep, the Al
system was able to correctly identify Parkinson’s up to 86 percent of the time. With 12 nights of
data, the rate went up to 95 percent.
Tool to interpret pig emotions
Researchers announced they had created a technology tool that uses pig sounds to interpret
different emotions.
The tool is based on thousands of recordings collected from more than 400 pigs throughout
their lives. The scientists developed an AI-driven algorithm (算法) to identify a series of emotions
pigs could be experiencing. It is expected to lead to further systems farmers can use to improve
the productivity and well-being of their animals.
Tool to fill in missing words in ancient writings
Researchers - led by Alphabet’s AI company DeepMind - said they developed an AI system
to help fill in missing words in ancient writings. The tool, called Ithaca, is designed to help
historians repair the writings and identify when and where they were written.
The team said that when historians work on their own, the success rate: for repairing
damaged writings is about 25 percent. But when humans teamed up with Ithaca to assist in their
work, the success rate jumped to 72 percent.
21.Which can be used for cross-cultural communication
A.Tool to interpret pig emotions.
B.Meta’s speech-to-speech translation.
C.Method to identify Parkinson’s disease.
D.Tool to fill in missing words in ancient writings.
22.Who will most probably be interested in Ithaca
A.A farmer. B.A doctor. C.A zoologist. D.A historian.
23.What do the inventions have in common
A.They are AI-driven technology tools. B.They are developed by Facebook.
C.They aim to promote productivity. D.They focus on health issues.
3
B
On February 13, 2023, Wu Yibing made history, beating John Isner in a thrilling three-set
final at the Dallas Open to become the first man from China to win an ATP title.
Brought to a tennis court for the first time at just five, originally encouraged by his parents as
an exercise to lose weight, Wu soon had his talent discovered by his provincial junior team,
starting a journey that would change the face of men’s tennis in China. In 2017, Wu Yibing shot to
prominence after winning the US Open boys’ tournament(锦标赛)at 18 to become the first
Chinese to win a major junior title, raising high hopes for the “Wonder Boy” to change the fortune
of Chinese men in a sport long dominated(支配) by women’s success on the pro stage.
In 2018, Wu won his first ATP Challenger title in Shanghai. However, the bitterly
competitive nature of men’s pro tennis hit the rising Wu with a tough reminder after multiple
injuries — to his elbow, lower back, shoulder and wrist— forced him to be away from the ATP
Tour for close to three years.
He made his return last year and won three ATP Challenger titles before qualifying for the US
Open. “Looking back, I feel like I wouldn’t have been here if not for the ups and downs over the
past few years. I take all the hardships and struggles as an asset(资产) that helps me mature
mentally now,” said Wu. “Of course there were a lot of doubts because I had operations and the
recovery wasn’t going well. The championship today was a payoff for all the hard work and
everyone who’s supported me along the way.”
24. What do the underlined words “shot to prominence” in paragraph 2 probably mean
A. Lost weight. B. Came back to the top.
C. Became famous instantly. D. Dropped out of the competition.
25. Why was Wu absent from the ATP Tour for nearly three years
A. He wanted to change his career.
B. He suffered from serious physical injuries.
C. He didn’t stand out in training for the match.
D. He can’t deal with the pressure of the ATP Tour.
26. What can we learn from Wu Yibing’s statement
A. No cross, no crown (王冠). B. Well begun is half done.
C. More haste(匆忙), less speed. D. Time waits for no man.
27. Which of the following is the best title for the text
A. The Development of Chinese Tennis B. The Power of Difficulties for Athletes
C. The Pioneer of Chinese Tennis Sport D. The First Chinese Male Winner of ATP Title
4
C
According to a recent report, in the US alone, 27 million tons of plastic ended up in landfills
in 2018, but only 3.1 million tons were recycled. Worldwide the numbers are similarly bad, with
just 9% of plastic being recycled. The statistics (统计数字 ) are even worse for certain types of
plastic. For example, out of 80,000 tons of polystyrene(聚苯乙烯)containers produced in the
United States, only a small amount (less than 5,000 tons) was recycled.
Now, researchers at The University of Queensland have found a species of worm with a taste
for polystyrene could be the key to plastic recycling. The superworm can eat through polystyrene,
thanks to a bacterial enzyme in their gut. To study how superworms react to purely plastic food,
researchers broke up 135 of the creatures into three teams: one was fed only wheat bran, another
was fed only plastics, and the third was given nothing.
“We found the bran-fed worms have been significantly healthier than the plastic-fed or
hungry worms, more than doubling their weight over the three weeks they have been observed.
Though the plastic-fed worms made less impressive gains, they still put on more weight than the
hungry worms,” Dr. Rinke said. “This suggests the worms can get energy from plastics, most
likely with the help of their gut microbes(微生物).”
Researchers used a technique called metagenomics to find several encoded enzymes with the
ability to reduce polystyrene. The long-term goal is to engineer enzymes to reduce plastic waste in
recycling plants.
“Superworms are like mini recycling plants, eating the polystyrene and then feeding it to the
bacteria in their gut,” Dr. Rinke said. It’s hoped this bio-upcycling will promote plastic waste
recycling and reduce landfills. Researchers said they aim to grow the gut bacteria in the lab and
further test its ability to reduce polystyrene. Then they can look into how to improve this process
to a level required for an entire recycling plant.
28. What problem do the statistics in paragraph 1 indicate
A. Landfills are poorly managed.
B. Plastics are recycled at a very low rate.
C. Many plastic containers are of poor quality.
D. It takes a long time for plastic waste to break up.
29. How do researchers conduct the study on superworms
A. By collecting data. B. By making a comparison.
C. By introducing a concept. D. By referring to a previous study.
30.What can we infer from Dr. Rinke’s words
A. Plastic-fed worms had a decline in weight.
B. Superworms showed little interest in wheat bran.
C. Superworms could survive on only eating polystyrene.
D. Bran-fed worms had a longer lifespan than plastic-fed worms.
31. What do researchers plan to do
A. Conduct experiments on other worm species.
B. Improve gut bacteria’s ability to reduce plastics.
C. Apply the bio-upcycling technology to recycling plants.
D. Raise superworms in a big way to solve plastic pollution.
5
D
The Indian government may use 3D paintings as virtual speed breakers(减速带) on major
highways and roads, in order to check speeding and careless driving, and finally make its deadly
roads a little safer. “We are trying out 3D paintings used as virtual speed breakers to avoid
unnecessary requirements of speed breakers,” India’s transport minister Nitin Gadkari wrote.
The optical illusions( 视 觉 错 觉 ) are supposed to encourage drivers to slow down
automatically. Earlier, India had ordered the removal of all speed breakers from highways, which
are considered to be a safety hazard for high-speed vehicles. India has the highest number of road
accident deaths in the world. According to the World Health Organisation, over 200,000 people
are killed by road accidents.
The use of optical illusions as speed breakers was first pioneered in the American city of
Philadelphia in 2008, as part of a campaign against speeding motorists. The technique has also
been tried out in China to create floating 3D crossings. In India, cities such as Ahmedabad and
Chennai have already experimented with 3D zebra crossings in the last one year. In Ahmedabad
for instance, a mother and her daughter, both artists, have painted 3D crosswalks in the first few
months of 2016. The artists say their motto is “to increase the attention of drivers”, and that the
concept has been successfully tested in accident-prone zones on a highway.
However, critics argue that once drivers know that these speed breakers are visual illusions,
they may ignore them. Others also point out that India’s decision does not consider the safety of a
large number of pedestrians. In the end, the new policy may be just one step towards improving
road safety.
32.Why are 3D paintings used on main highways and roads
A.To make the surroundings more beautiful.
B.To attract the attention of tourists.
C.To reduce the rate of traffic accidents.
D.To show the advanced technology.
33.Which of the following words is closest to the meaning of “hazard” in paragraph 2
A.Reminder B.Threat C.Regulation D.Theory
34.What can we learn from Paragraph 3 and 4
A.The use of optical illusions as speed breakers is controversial(有争议的) in India.
B.Philadelphia is the second place to use virtual speed breakers in the US.
C.The idea tested in Ahmedabad recently has been a failure.
D.The new policy of 3D zebra crossings must be carried out.
35.What do we know about 3D zebra crossings from the text
A.They can immediately lower the death rate.
B.They have been widely used in India so far.
C.They are designed to increase drivers’ attention.
D.They are welcomed by both drivers and pedestrians.
6
第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多
余选项。
Museums become the next stop many students want to visit at their leisure.____36____
However, the experience of visiting a museum could be quite disappointing if not done right, even
for the experienced museumgoers.
____37____. No matter how much you’re enjoying yourself, many museums can take hours,
days, or even weeks to fully explore. If you try to put it all in, you will get worn out to the point
that you won’t really be seeing anything. Pick a few paintings and explore them in a detailed way,
and your museum experience will be more relaxing.
Have you ever started your visit by waiting in line in front of the museum for a few hours just
to get in And that’s the sad reality when visiting many of those world-famous museums. Thus, be
smart to browse the instructions for visiting and book in advance online. ____38____.
What if you don’t like some museums Then don’t visit them! I’m not a massive fan of parks,
so I would hardly ever end up in any park while travelling. ____39____Do they have a nice
collection of an art style you love Just ask yourself and visit the museum website to see what the
highlights are.
There is nothing worse than impolite manners while visiting. We’ve all witnessed that guy
being yelled at by the security for touching or taking flash photos. ____40____.Otherwise, not
only will you absolutely get embarrassed by security guards, but you can actually ruin artworks!
All of these ground rules are often neglected by us. Bear them in mind before setting off, and you
will enjoy your museum tour!
A.It’s the same with the museums
B.But most of them do it all wrong
C.If you haven’t, don’t let it be you
D.That way you can have an easy access
E.The first step is to research how to enjoy everything
F.Sometimes you may sigh museum tiredness is a real thing
G.Generally, there is no right or wrong way to visit a museum
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 30分)
第一节 完型填空(共 15小题;每小题 1分,满分 15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C和 D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处
7
的最佳选项。
When things around the house stop working, people probably just throw them away. There
are many 41 for this trend. In some areas, it’s difficult to find people who can make repairs,
and 42 things can be expensive. Also, some small appliances are so cheap that it’s easier
to 43 buy a new one.
Martine Postma decided there must be a better way. Her 44 was Repair Cafés: places where
people can take damaged or torn items. There they will find tools, 45 and volunteer experts to
help with repairs.
Postma's first Repair Café opened in 2009 and was a huge 46 . News of the café spread,
and people began asking how they could 47 their own. In 2011, Postma established the
Repair Café Foundation. This 48 organization provides guidance to those hoping to begin their
own neighborhood repair group. Today, there are roughly 2,000 Repair cafés around the world.
Everything is free, but donations are greatly 49 .
The cafés not only provide help with repairs, they also 50 community ties. Postma has often
heard visitors say, “This is the kind of world I want to 51 !” In addition, valuable 52 is
passed along and preserved.
In an interview, Postma described how 53 it is watching people who really want to help one
another. Postma summed up the 54 of Repair Cafés best in the following words: “Everyone is
a/an 55 and a receiver.”
41. A. benefits B. chances C. reasons D. goals
42. A. throwing B. buying C. making D. fixing
43. A. just B. even C. ever D. seldom
44. A. achievement B. solution C. curiosity D. result
45. A. resources B. money C. chances D. rooms
46. A. luck B. fame C. success D. attempt
47. A. buy B. start C. make D. find
48. A. nonprofit B. business C. culture D. chain
49. A. responded B. suggested C. appreciated D. refused
50. A. test B. strengthen C. build D. earn
51. A. praise B. pass by C. live in D. discover
52. A. knowledge B. lesson C. habit D. instruction
53. A. exciting B. tiring C. surprising D. embarrassing
54. A. custom B. mission C. journey D. experience
55. A. host B. owner C. organizer D. giver
8
第二节 语法填空(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
You may like reading novels for fun. But you need to get 56. (organize) if you are reading
a novel for school. Here 57. (be)a few tips.
First, pay attention to characters. What do they do in the novel What do they want
Everything 58. _is about a character can help us to understand him, from his 59.
(appear) to the kind of food he eats.
Besides, the order of the story and the plot are 60. (equal) important. Make sure that as
you read, you make 61. quick note of what happens in each chapter. This will help you
bring the things you have noticed about the character, setting, language and so on together. It's
also an enormous help for you to retell the story after you have read it.
Next, themes. They are ideas that a novel explores. 62. is a must to get the hang of the
theme, if you want to fully appreciate the novel. Perhaps love is a major theme, or justice, or
63. (survive).
Furthermore, novels are made up 64. language. Writers use language in a special way
65. (make) their novels work. They may use metaphors, invent symbols, or show different
characters’ personalities through their speech styles.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分 15分)
你校英文报将以“三月十二日中国植树节(National Tree Planting Day)”为主题,举行征文
比赛。请写一篇短文投稿,内容包括:
1. 简要介绍植树节;
2. 说明树木的重要性;
3. 呼吁履行植树义务。
注意:
1. 写作词数应为 80左右
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Planting Trees for our Future
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第二节 读后续写(满分 25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The Dog Who Saved Our Family
We met Max at the pickup area of Alaska Airlines five years ago. He was a standard
poodle(狮子狗 )born on Valentine’s Day in 2017, and came to us in a small blue box. We had
adopted him from an out-of-state raiser who posted the news on the social network. Our only
request was that he have a calm behavior, able to bear the pushing and hugging of our
eight-year-old daughter and six-year-old son.
We were a sweet little family: me, my husband, and our children, Sophie and Jake. But for
years I’d felt as if we wouldn’t really be complete until we had a dog. Also, my husband worked
in a business company and had to travel some 200 days a year for his job, and I knew I’d feel safer
with a large animal sleeping by the door.
When we opened the box, the last piece of our puzzle fell into place. With his black hair and
intelligent eyes, Max was beautiful. He was so small that he fit into the palm of my hand, his big
paws lapping over the sides. He was also a little bit scared. As I pulled him close, I felt his heart
pound and wondered if we’d done the right thing, taking him from his mother. But it was too late.
Sophie and Jake were already fighting over who would hold him next and who should have the
right to take a bath for him.
Over the following months, we spent endless hours watching Max play with his Kong toy or
roll around the living room floor. Like most poodles, he was smart. He mastered house-training
quickly and never chewed on our furniture or shoes. He considered himself one of us.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为 150左右
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
One night we were sleeping in the bedroom when I heard some strange
noise.__________________________________________________________________________
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At that time, Max ran towards me._______________________________________________
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