内 江 市 高 中 2024 届 零 模 试 题
英 语
(考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
注意事项:
1.本试卷由四个部分组成。其中,第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题,第三部分
的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。
2.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
3.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;
回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转
涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选
项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读
下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is Mr. Jones now?
A. At home. B. At the Health Center. C. At his office.
2. How many marks did John get on the TOEFL test?
A. 650. B. 605. C. 537.
3. What do we know about Tom?
A. He gets nervous very easily.
B. He is not an experienced speaker.
C. He hasn’t prepared his speech well.
4. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Husband and wife. C. Doctor and patient.
5. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. Hobbies. B. Music. C. Plays.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分,满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项
中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,
每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
请听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. How much did the woman pay for the dress?
A. $ 60. B. $ 90. C. $ 120.
7. Why did the woman buy the dress?
A. To wear it to work. B. To attend a party. C. To give it to Lisa.
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书
请听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What is the man doing?
A. He is making a flash.
B. He is being interviewed.
C. He is playing computer games.
9. What do you think will happen after the conversation?
A. The woman will call Mr. Taylor.
B. The woman won’t make the website.
C. The woman won’t get in touch with Mr. Taylor.
请听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. What does the man like most about the university?
A. The swimming pool. B. The school gym. C. The playground.
11. Where is the man’s father now?
A. In Toronto. B. In Sydney. C. In Canberra.
12. What is the woman’s major?
A. Business. B. Law. C. Math.
请听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Where will the woman go on Friday?
A. To Peking University. B. To the cinema. C. To the man’s home.
14. What kind of film does the woman like?
A. Action films. B. Science fiction films. C. Comedies.
15. What time did Star Wars start?
A. At 11?00 pm. B. At 9?00 pm. C. At 2?00 pm.
16. What will they do first on Saturday evening?
A. Buy the tickets. B. Watch the film. C. Have a drink.
请听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. What value does June learn?
A. Having friends. B. Helping others. C. Being confident.
18. Which book is about China’s changes?
A. June’s New Shoes. B. Dreams of Joy. C. For the Children’s Hour.
19. Who chose the stories for the book For the Children’s Hour?
A. Two teachers. B. A group of girls. C. A mother and her sister.
20. Who wrote the book Fifty Famous Stories Retold?
A. James Baldwin. B. Robin Hood. C. Julius Caesar.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将
该项涂黑。
A
Imperial Bricks
Imperial (皇家的)bricks were made completely for imperial buildings,especially palaces,in
the Ming and Qing Dynasties. Mainly made in Suzhou,the bricks were transported through the
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Grand Canal to Beijing. They have a fine quality,and are strong and hard. They have a pure blue?
green color like a mirror and produce a metal sound when knocked. Given their high cost,they are
properly called the golden bricks. The craft (工艺品)has been on the national?level intangible
cultural heritage(非物质文化遗产)list since 2006.
Peking Duck
Peking duck has been a famous dish from Beijing since the imperial times,characterized by its
delicious skin and meat. The cooked duck is cut into pieces and eaten with green onion,cucumber
and sweet bean sauce,often with pancake rolled around fillings. It was selected as a national?level
intangible cultural heritage in 2008.
Shadow Play
Shadow play(皮影)is an ancient form of storytelling that uses flat cut?out figures or shadow
play between a source of light and a screen. Various sight effects can be achieved by moving both
the dolls and the light source. It is popular in many places along the Grand Canal,including Hebei
and Zhejiang. In 2011,Chinese shadow play was listed on the UNESCO Representative List of the
Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
Kunqu Opera
Kunqu Opera,one of the oldest existing forms of Chinese opera,came from Kunshan of what is
now Suzhou city in Jiangsu province. Using emotional lines from poetry classics and through sweet
and beautiful singing,it made progress in the lower reaches of the Yangtze River,and naturally
reached other parts of the country via the Grand Canal.
21. Which makes Imperial Bricks get the name of golden bricks?
A. Their color. B. Their value.
C. Their shape. D. Their history.
22. Where did the lines of Kunqu Opera come from?
A. Classic poems. B. Ancient stories.
C. Theater writers. D. Famous magazines.
23. What is a cultural heritage of the world’s level according to the text?
A. Kunqu Opera. B. Peking Duck.
C. Shadow Play. D. Imperial Bricks.
B
The two men’s yellow running vests(运动背心)were the same in every way except one.
“GUIDE”was written on one of them. On the other was a different word “BLIND”,which belonged
to Tony Duenas,a 53?year?old man who was left blind because of a sudden accident in 2009.
Then came the day that changed Duenas’life forever. It was November 2014,and Duenas was
walking to a bus stop when a jogger on the street suddenly stopped him and asked a simple question.
“Can you run?”
The man’s name was Ray Alcanter,a longtime marathon runner who had guided a visually
impaired (有视觉障碍的)old woman before she retired from this activity.
Before then,distance running hadn’t crossed Duenas’mind. But Alcanter explained to Duenas
how the process worked. The two would run side by side,each holding the end of a foot?long rope.
Alcanter would act as Duenas’eyes,warning him of danger and keeping him on course. But Duenas
would be running for himself with less help and more freedom.
“It’s all about trust,”Alcanter said.
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Duenas was still unsure but interested enough to give Alcanter his phone number. Two weeks
later,Alcanter and Duenas planned their first run around a park. As they started the four?mile
route,light rain began to fall. A cool,gentle wind brushed Duena’s face. He could feel the earth
flying by beneath his feet with his eyes filled with tears.
What the guides,including Alcanter,did was more than helping Duenas train. They became
his close friends who treated him as more than someone simply with a disability. They pushed him to
shorten his marathon time and sent him gifts once he began to swim.
“Having guides is the ticket to our freedom,”Duenas said. “To be able to do marathons,half?
marathons,everything. They’re gold.”
24. What should Ray Alcanter be able to do as a guide for Duenas?
A. Lead the way for the blind. B. Organize a marathon.
C. Repair sports facilities. D. Communicate in body language.
25. What did the first run bring to Duenas?
A. A sense of loss. B. A sense of safety.
C. A sense of freedom. D. A sense of helplessness.
26. What can best describe Alcanter?
A. Talented. B. Trustworthy. C. Generous. D. Modest.
27. What can be the suitable title for this text?
A. A Path to a Balanced Life B. A Secret to Freedom
C. A Journey to Marathon D. A Guide to a Renewed Life
C
Teens who have good,supportive relationships with their teachers enjoy better health as adults,
according to research published by an American research center.
“This research suggests that improving students’relationships with teachers could have positive
and long?lasting effects beyond just academic success,”said Jinho Kim,a professor at Korea
University and author of the study. “It could also bring about health implications in the long run.”
Previous research has suggested that teens’social relationships might be linked to health
outcomes in adulthood. However,it is not clear whether the link between teen relationships and
lifetime health is causal(因果的)—it could be that other factors,such as different family
backgrounds,might contribute to both relationship problems in adolescence and to poor health in
adulthood. Also,most research has focused on teens’relationships with their peers(同龄人),
rather than on their relationships with teachers.
To explore those questions further,Kim analyzed data on nearly 20,000 participants from the
Add Health study,a national study in the U. S. that followed participants from seventh grade into
early adulthood. The participant pool included more than 3,400 pairs of siblings(兄弟姐妹). As
teens,participants answered questions,like “How often have you had trouble getting along with
other students and your teachers?”As adults,participants were asked about their physical and
mental health.
Kim found that participants who had reported better relationships with both their peers and
teachers in middle and high school also reported better physical and mental health in their mid?20s.
However,when he controlled for family background by looking at pairs of siblings together,only the
link between good teacher relationships and adult health remained significant.
The results suggest teacher relationships are more important than previously realized and that
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schools should invest in training teachers on how to build warm and supportive relationships with
their students. “This is not something that most teachers receive much training in,”Kim said,“but
it should be.”
28. What does the underlined word “implications”in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Recipes. B. Benefits. C. Habits. D. Risks.
29. What is paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. Poor health in adolescence. B. Factors affecting health in adulthood.
C. Teens’relationships with their peers. D. Limitations of the previous research.
30. What does Kim’s research show?
A. Positive student?teacher relationship helps students’adult health.
B. Healthy peer relationships lead to students’academic success.
C. Good family background promises long?term adult health.
D. Good adult health depends on teens’good teachers.
31. Where does this text probably come from?
A. A term paper. B. A medical report.
C. A health magazine. D. A family survey.
D
ChatGPT,a new chatbot model developed by US?based AI research laboratory OpenAI,has
quickly become a hit globally due to its advanced conversational capabilities.
It can write emails,computer codes,even academic papers and poems,and has passed a
number of tests within seconds. Academicians worldwide are discussing whether AI should be used
in education. Some universities have banned it. The New York City’s Department of Education,for
example,banned the chatbot from its public school devices and networks,with some people warning
that it could encourage more students to cheat,especially in exams.
Many more welcome this app, claiming that, like most technological advances and
groundbreaking innovations in history,ChatGPT is a powerful tool for the development of higher
education.
Embracing AI as early as possible is advisable. Higher education institutions should make
preparations for including AI in their syllabus (教学大纲). They can start by offering related
courses,because by understanding how it works,they can make better use of it. Besides,students
with good knowledge of AI are more competitive when it comes to getting a good job,as an
increasing number of jobs are being done by computer programmes. AI?powered education
technologies can be adopted to make the learning experience more suitable for each student based on
his or her strengths and weaknesses. As for professors,AI can free them from doing some dull tasks
so they can concentrate on teaching and interacting with students.
Since we cannot avoid ChatGPT and other AI?powered applications from entering the field of
higher education,we should make collective efforts to ensure they have a positive impact on society
and the future of education. Despite AI helping make learning much more interesting and enjoyable,
humans need to work very hard to win the race with technology.
32. Why do some higher education institutions forbid ChatGPT?
A. ChatGPT can write emails and computer codes quickly.
B. Some professors might not perform their duties properly.
C. Students might seek help from it in completing the exams.
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D. Students would have conversations with each other via it.
33. What is the author’s attitude towards AI applications in education?
A. Fearful. B. Disapproving. C. Uncertain. D. Supportive.
34. How can AI benefit students of higher education?
A. It personalizes students’learning experience.
B. It offers students an increasing number of jobs.
C. It equips students with competitive skills to cooperate with humans.
D. It handles uninteresting tasks so students can better focus on learning.
35. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. We should guard against AI apps.
B. AI will be more widely used in education.
C. The future of education relies on AI apps.
D. Humans will be left behind by technology.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余
选项。
Travel is an important part of your life,and it will make a comeback soon. Here are the most
powerful benefits of traveling,including health,happiness,and more!
36 From running to get to airports and train stations to hiking along the beach to get some
vitamin D,there are some reasons why travel is beneficial to your health. According to a study,
travel decreases the risks of heart attacks and makes your brain healthy.
Travel can contribute to your happiness. 37 If you can go out and escape from your work,
lessons or any other things possibly weighing you down,you will surely have a smile on your face.
Travel will also leave you with a longer?lasting sense of happiness.
Travel relieves stress and anxiety. According to a trial conducted by Austrian researchers and
published in the International Journal of Environmental Research and Public Health,one of the great
travel benefits is that it can reduce stress level and anxiety. Even just one short vacation has positive
effects on your emotions. 38
Travel enables you to experience new things. When you travel,you are stepping outside your
comfort zone,for one thing. 39 Even if your destination is relatively nearby (across the country
rather than internationally),you can learn something new.
Travel can improve your creativity. Are you a student,artist,writer,photographer,advertising
manager,or video game designer struggling with coming up with your next great idea? 40 So
head on to book some international flight tickets if you’re considering improving your creativity.
A. Travel makes you healthy.
B. Travel can improve brain activity.
C. An outing enables you to get away from daily things.
D. You are still experiencing new things,for another thing.
E. And the good effects last quite a while after you get home.
F. Don’t come up with new ideas on the journey to foreign countries.
G. No matter who you are,travel can help you become more creative.
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第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1. 5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的
最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
My most extreme case of envy happened at camp this summer with a girl named Megan Martin.
We 41 on the first day of archery(射箭) 42 . Most of us in my group had completely
missed our 43 . Except Megan. No matter the activity,Megan was the best. And by best,I
44 beyond the best!
45 the people who get all braggy(自夸),Megan was modest and 46 . So I felt extra
terrible the way I did. Then,one day at lunch,Megan sat down next to me. And then she told me
a(n) 47 riddle,I laughed heartily. And then we spent a lot of time telling 48 . Later I
knew we both had five?year old twin brothers. And it wasn’t the only thing we had 49 !The
more we talked,the more I realized how 50 it was that I’d been 51 energy feeling envious
when I could have been building a 52 .
Megan told me that she 53 she had my creativity in telling stories. That comment 54
me. Hearing that I couldn’t get over how good she was at everything,Megan 55 and suggested
we invent a machine that would let people 56 skills for a little while. It was a(n) 57 idea
and we spent the rest of lunch 58 the details of the invention.
It’s probably impossible not to feel a tiny bit envious at least once in your life. But try to
remember that you have your own 59 unique that makes you special. And I know for a fact that
putting more energy into 60 thing like building friendship,and less energy into negatives thing
like feeling envious,helps make for happier days all round.
41. A. discussed B. acknowledged C. met D. accompanied
42. A. report B. visit C. certificate D. practice
43. A. turns B. targets C. chances D. lessons
44. A. envy B. attain C. announce D. mean
45. A. Unlike B. Regardless of C. As well as D. Besides
46. A. shy B. brave C. friendly D. rude
47. A. exciting B. amusing C. moving D. scary
48. A. jokes B. dreams C. tricks D. lies
49. A. in mind B. on purpose C. at hand D. in common
50. A. admirable B. stubborn C. ridiculous D. desperate
51. A. gathering B. saving C. wasting D. compensating
52. A. friendship B. family C. home D. team
53. A. thought B. wished C. imagined D. guaranteed
54. A. congratulated B. frightened C. convinced D. astonished
55. A. sympathized B. laughed C. complained D. scolded
56. A. trade B. train C. forget D. purchase
57. A. ambiguous B. fantastic C. accessible D. troublesome
58. A. turning off B. making out C. putting off D. working out
59. A. tiresome B. sincere C. awesome D. abnormal
60. A. positive B. public C. voluntary D. interesting
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第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chagan is located in the Qianguo county,Northeast China’s Jilin Province. Every year,
fishermen struggle with the freezing cold weather,biting winds and deep snow to search for an
underwater fortune at Chagan, 61 freshwater lake in the country. The lake is the only place in
China 62 you can still find fishermen using an ancient fishing method.
The lake nearly 63 (dry)up in the 1970s,and therefore fishermen were forced to give up
their annual fishing tradition and take on other tough jobs for survival. However,over the past
decades,these problems have been solved through projects that have allowed environmental 64
(protect),agriculture and tourism to develop at the same time. In 2013,Jilin started a river?lake
connection project, 65 (link)Chagan to surrounding lakes and rivers,making the lake’s water
even 66 (clean). In particular,the construction of a town with eco?friendly tourism 67
(help) development so far. The town offers accommodations,dining,sightseeing and other
businesses that have increased local incomes and made 68 more convenient for people to visit
the area than before. Farms and tourism projects that were 69 (previous) affecting the
environment have been removed or relocated. All of this was achieved 70 harming the lake or
the animal and plant life.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共
有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
I am interested at swimming very much. At first,I went swimming just to keep health. Now my
dream was to swim for my country in the Olympics. Though I feel boring,practicing in the pool,but
I still work very hard in order to realize my dream. Because my hard work,I have already come first
in much important competitions. In the competitions,I’ve made lots of friend and we’re very close.
It’s much easier to have friends,which are swimmers since they also have to get up early to practice
like you and they understand this kind of life.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华,你校将举办外国学生中文演讲比赛,请给你的英国朋友George写封邮件
邀请他参加。内容包括:
1. 比赛时间;
2. 演讲话题;
3. 报名方式。
注意:
1.词数100词左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
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内 江 市 高 中 2024 届 零 模 试 题
英语参考答案及评分意见
第一部分(本部分每题1. 5分,共30分)
1?5 CBBCA 6?10ABBCA 11?15 ABABB 16?20 CCBAA
第二部分(本部分每小题2分,共40分)
21?23 BAC 24?27 ACBD 28?31 BDAC 32?35 CDAB
36?40 ACEDG
第三部分
第一节(本节每小题1. 5分,共30分)
41?45 CDBDA 46?50 CBADC 51?55 CABDB 56?60 ABDCA
第二节(本节每小题1. 5分,共15分)
61. a 62. where 63. dried 64. protection 65. linking 66. cleaner
67. has helped 68. it 69. previously 70. without
第四部分
第一节(本节每小题1分,共10分)
I am interested at swimming very much. At first,I went swimming just to keep health . Now
in healthy
my dream was to swim for my country in the Olympics. Though I feel boring,practicing in the pool,
is bored
b\ut I still work very hard in order to realize my dream. Because ∧my hard work,I have alreadyof
come first in much important competitions. In the competitions,I’ve made lots of friend and we’re
many friends
very close. It’s much easier to have friends,which are swimmers since they also have to get up early
who
to practice like you and they understand this kind of life.
me
第二节
One possible version:
Dear George,
I’m writing to invite you to join us in the “Chinese speech contest for foreigners”to be held in
our school. The activity is scheduled in the lecture hall at 8:00 am. on July 20th.
The theme of the speech contest is “differences between eastern and western customs”,through
which the foreign students are bound to gain a better understanding of Chinese splendid traditional
culture and meanwhile strengthen their love of China.
Immensely fascinated by its mysterious culture and age?old history,you can undoubtedly give
us a wonderful and impressive performance. You’re expected to sign up for the contest at www.
chinese speech contest for foreigners. com.
I’d appreciate it if you could accept our invitation.
Yours
Li Hua
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(一)评分原则
1.本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,
确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于80和多于130的,从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文
的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(二)内容要点
1. 比赛时间;
2. 演讲话题;
3. 报名方式。
4.适当发挥。
(三)评分标准
第五档(21?25分):完全完成了试题规定的任务,完全达到了预期的写作目的
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备
较强的语言运用能力。
——有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
第四档(16?20分):完全完成了试题规定的任务,达到了预期的写作目的
——虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇
所致。
——应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
第三档(11?15分):基本完成了试题规定的任务,整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的
——虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
——应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6?10分):未恰当完成试题规定的任务,信息未能清楚地传达给读者
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
第一档(1?5分):未完成试题规定的任务,信息未能传达给读者
——明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
——语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
不得分(0分):未能传达给读者仟何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容
无关或所写内容无法看清。
零模英语试题答案第 2 页(共2页)
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