+山东省德州市宁津县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题(含答案听力原文)

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名称 +山东省德州市宁津县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题(含答案听力原文)
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2022-2023学年第二学期末七年级教学质量检测
英语听力材料
(一)录音中有五个句子,每个句子听两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
1.Whose wallet is this
2. Which club would you like to join
3. When is Bill going to watch a football match
4. Where's the bookshop, please
5.How much are the sports clothes
(二)录音中有三个句子,每个句子对应一幅图片,每个句子听两遍,然后选择与句子内容相对应的图片。
6. My father read newspapers in the morning.
7. We talked and laughed on the boat.
8. The little bed was very comfortable.
(三)录音中有五组对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
9. W: What did you do last weekend
M:I went to Dalian to visit my friend.
Q:Where did the boy go last weekend
10. W: What are you going to be when you're older, Thomas
M:I want to be a musician in the future.
Q:What does Thomas want to be in the future
11.M:Mum, today is Mother's Day. Here's your present.
W:What a lovely bear! Thank you, Mingming.
Q:What present does Mingming give his mother
W:What do you often do in your free time
M:I enjoy listening to music.
Q:What does the boy do in his free time
13.M:Excuse me, can you tell me the way to the zoo
W:Sure. It's a little far from here. You can take Bus No.308.
Q: Which bus can the man take to the zoo
(四)录音中有一段长对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
W:How are you
M:I'm fine,thanks.
W:Did you have a good weekend
M: Yes.I went to the cinema and watched a film.
W:Did you enjoy the film M:Yes.It was excellent.
W:What did you do after that
M:I went to have lunch in a restaurant.
W: That sounds nice. What was the food like
M: Delicious, but I didn't eat too much! What about you How was your weekend
W:Terrible! I fell off my bike.
M:Oh dear! I'm sorry to hear that. Are you all right
W: Yes, I'm fine now but my right leg ached for two days.
M:Oh my god. You must be careful from now on. Come and have lunch with me and forget about the weekend.
(五)录音中有三小段独白,听独白两遍后,根据独白内容,将信息配对。
18.I'm Wang Lin. I was born in a small town in 1991. When I was 13 years old,I moved to Shanghai with my parents.At the age of 19, I went to England to learn English. Now I am 25 years old.I work as a bank clerk in England and I'm living a happy life.
19. My name is Li Mei. I was born in a small village of Yunnan. At the age of 6, I went to primary school. When I was 12years old, I became a middle school student in No.2 Middle School. I moved to Guangdong with my parents and studied in the university at 18.
20. I'm Zhang Tao. I was born on 3rd March,1989 in a small town. I moved to the city with my parents when I was five years old. I started school in 1995,and finished school in 2010. I became a teacher at the age of 21.
(六)听力填表。录音中有一篇关于泰山之旅的短文,听短文两遍后,根据所听内容完成下面的表格,每空一词。
Last August, our class went on a trip to climb Mount Tai. Each student in our class took a bag with some food and water. We started at 12 o'clock at night. 3 hours later, we looked up and found there was still a long way to go. We were so tired that we didn't want to climb. So we stopped to rest, eat and drink. And then we went on.At 5:15am, we got to the top of the mountain. The sun started to come up. We were happy to see the beautiful sun.
听力部分到此结束,请同学们继续做其他试题。2022-2023学年第二学期末七年级教学质量检测
英语试题参考答案和评分标准
一、听力测试(共25小题,1-20小题,每小题1分;21-25小题,每小题2分,总计30分)
1-5. CACAC 6-8.CAB 9-13. BCACB 14-17.ABCB 18-20.CAB
21.August 22.night 23. water 24. Three/3 25. beautiful
二、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2.5分,计50分)
26-30. BACDB 31-35.DCCBD 36-40. ACBCD 41-45. BDCDA
评分说明:
1、1-20小题,每小题1分;21-25小题,每小题2分;与答案不符不得分。
2、26-45题,每小题2.5分;与答案不符,不得分。
三、短文还原(共5空,每小题2分,计10分)
46-50. CDABF
评分说明
1. 本题共5分,每空2分;
2. 与答案不符,不得分。
四、综合填空(共20空,每空1.5分,计30分)
51.supermarket 52. strawberries 53. online 54. almost 55. at
56. prices 57. out 58. something 59. size 60. sale
61.know 62.read 63.learning 64.to work/working 65. to have
66. found 67. must/can/will tell 68.is 69. becomes 70. will remember
评分说明
1、本题共10分,每空1.5分;
2、与所给答案不符,只要语法、意义、拼写(含大小写)正确,也可酌情给分。
五、阅读表达 (共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
71. Because it provides a way to get to website more quickly.
72. Shopping
73. On products
74. 二维码如此常见,以至于人们到处都可以扫描。
75. Yes, Ido. Because I can get to websites quickly./Yes, Ido. Because I think It’s convenient.
No, I don’t. Because I don’t think it is safe. (观点正确,表达无误,即可得分)
评分说明
1. 本题共10分,每小题2分;
2. 虽与答案表达方式不同,但与所给参考答案意思一致,无语言错误,也可酌情给分。
六、书面表达(共1题,计20分)
评分说明
要求考生用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语,完整准确地表达所提示的内容,并对开放性内容进行适当发挥,书写工整,分五档评分:
1.(18~20分)很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有的内容要点,结构完整,语句通畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法和词汇错误极少,书写规范。
2.(14~17分)较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有的内容要点,结构较为完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少,书写较为规范。
3.(10~13分)基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,书写基本规范。
4.(6~9分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点,结构不完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,影响理解,书写欠规范。
5.(0~5分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点,结构不完整,多数语句不完整或者意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。
My dream home
Hello, I’m happy to tell you something about my dream home.
My home is near a park. There are many flowers and trees around my community. People can hear birds singing in the trees. We can enjoy fresh air and clean street. I have a large house with 4 rooms. It is comfortable to live in it. I like the balcony best because I can enjoy the sunshine there. People in this community are kind and friendly. There are many volunteers. We not only get along well, but also help each other with all kinds of problems. People do different activities. Some people jog in the park to keep healthy. Some old people sing operas. Others do square dancing.
It is a good place. I hope my dream home can become a real one.2022-2023学年第二学期末七年级教学质量检测
英语答题卡 (


准考证号
条形码粘贴区(居中)
缺考
违纪
注意事项
1.
答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚,并认真在规定位置贴好条形码。
2.
选择题必须使用
2B
铅笔填涂;非选择题必须使用
0.5
毫米及以上黑色字迹的签字笔书写,要求字体公整,笔记清楚。
3.
严格按照题号在相应的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;
4.
保持卡面清洁,不装订,不要折叠,不要破损。
填涂样例
正确填涂
错误填涂
)
一、选择题
1 abcd 2 abcd 3 abcd 4 abcd 5 abcd 6 abcd 7 abcd 8 abcd 9 abcd 10 abcd 11 abcd 12 abcd 13 abcd 14 abcd 15 abcd 16 abcd 17 abcd 18 abcd 19 abcd 20 abcd
26 abcd 27 abcd 28 abcd 29 abcd 30 abcd 31 abcd 32 abcd 33 abcd 34 abcd 35 abcd 36 abcd 37 abcd 38 abcd 39 abcd 40 abcd 41 abcd 42 abcd 43 abcd 44 abcd 45 abcd
(1-20小题,每题1分;26-45小题,每题2.5分)
二、主观题
二、听力填表(共5小题,计10分) 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
三、短文还原(共5空,计10分) 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
四、综合填空(共20空,计30分) 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 五、阅读表达 (共5小题,计10分) 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
写作(共1题,计20分) My dream home Hello, I’m happy to tell you something about my dream home. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2022-2023学年第二学期末七年级教学质量检测
英语试题
本试题共150分。考试时间为120分钟。
答卷前务必将姓名、班级写在答题纸上。所有试题的答案都写在答题纸上,考试结束,试题和答题纸一并收回。
一、听力部分(共25小题,计30分;每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间)
I. 录音中有五个句子,每个句子听两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。(5分)
( )1.A.The girl. B.He is a student. C.Lingling's.
( )2.A. The Music Club. B.I want to be the PE monitor. C.I'm good at English.
( )3.A.By bike. B. At the school gate. C.Tomorrow evening.
( )4.A.It's opposite the bank. B.We can buy books. C.We bought our sports shoes there.
( )5.A.There're black and white. B. They're cheap. C. They're 200 yuan.
II.录音中有三个句子,每个句子对应一幅图片,每个句子听两遍,然后选择与句子内容相对应的图片。(3分)
6. _________ 7. __________ 8.____________ A B C
III. 录音中有五组对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。(5分)
( )9.Where did the boy go last weekend
A.To Beijing. B.To Dalian. C.To Shanghai.
( ) 10.What does Thomas want to be in the future
A. A movie star. B.A player. C. A musician.
( )11.What present does Mingming give his mother
A.A bear. B. A dress. C. A watch.
( )12. What does the boy do in his free time
A. Go shopping. B.Play basketball. C.Listen to music.
( )13. Which bus can the man take to the zoo
A.Bus No.138 B. Bus No.308 C. Bus No.318
IV.录音中有一段长对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题
的正确答案。(4分)
( )14. What did the man do at the weekend
A.He watched a film. B.He stayed at home. C.He watched TV.
( )15.How was the film
A.Boring. B.Excellent. C.Successful.
( )16. Where did the man have his lunch at the weekend
A.At home. B.At the school dining hall. C.In a restaurant.
( )17. What happened to the woman
A.Her bike was broken. B. She fell off her bike. C.Her arms ached.
V. 录音中有3小段独白,听独白两遍后,根据独白内容,将信息配对。(3分).
( )18.Wang Lin A.moved to Guangdong at 18
( )19.Li Mei B.finished school in 2010
( )20.Zhang Tao C.went to England to learn English at the age of 19
VI. 听力填表。
录音中有一篇关于泰山之旅的短文,听短文两遍后,根据所听内容完成下面的表格,每空一词。
The trip to Mount Tai
When Last 21.__________ We started at 12:00 at 22._________
What they took Each student took some food and 23.________
24.________hours later We stopped to rest, eat and drink.
At 5:15 am We got to the top and see the 25.________sun.
二、阅读理解(共20小题,计50分)
阅读下列短文,然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。
A
Body language is an important part of communication.If you want to communicate well,it's important to understand how to use your body to say what you mean,especially when you're in a foreign country.
If a person is bored,he won't look at the person who is talking to him.He will find other things to do.He may also keep looking at his watch or a clock. If a person is open to you,his arms and legs will not be crossed. And if a person is relaxed,you will know it by looking at his body,and even his breathing (呼吸) is slower.
Here are some examples of body language.
Body language Feeling
Sitting with legs crossed Closed
Sitting with legs apart (分开) Open,relaxed
Walking with hands in pockets and head down Sad
Putting hands to cheeks (脸颊) Think about something
Hands clasped (紧握) behind back Anxious or even angry
What can you do if you want to communicate well?    
Walk with hands in pockets. B. Use body language to say what you mean.
C. Speak in public. D. Say something slowly.
27. If a person is     he won't look at the person who is talking.
A. bored B. excited C. happy D. open
28. If a person is relaxed,    .
A. he will find other things to look at B. he will speak louder
C. his breath will be slower D. his breath will be quicker
29. Which of the following is NOT true?    
A.If a person walks with his head down,he may be sad.
B.When a person is angry,his hands clasp behind his back.
C.If a person sits with his legs apart,he may be open and relaxed.
D.If a person puts his hands to cheeks,he may want to sing a song.
30. What is the best title of the passage?    
A. Communication B. Body Language C. Some Feelings D. Health Problems
B
Summer holiday is coming. Some kids have already made great plans for the summer.
Travel for fun
Many teens say they will travel with their parents during the holidays. Fan Zhe from Yantai will go to Shanghai with his parents. "I will need a break, as I will be really tired of tests by that time," said Fan. Gao Yuan will spend his holiday far away from his parents. From August 10, the 15-year-old boy and 20 other students at Shanghai. Weiyu Junior Middle School will spend 18 days in Australia.
Summer studies
Some teens are spending the summer studying. Xing Wei from Tianjin and Zhou Xiaolin from Beijing have to go to math, physics and English classes. Their parents think this will help their future studies. But Xiaolin is unhappy, "I will spend my holiday playing with numbers. How boring!"
Plenty of activities
Li Yuanchen from Hefei will be doing all the usual things. "I'll be travelling a little bit, partying with friends and reading books," he said. Shanghai's Ma Jiameng said she will spend a lot of time with friends, doing different things. "We will do some drawing and go swimming. I will also write short stories," Jiameng said.
Summer is a great chance to do many things. Keeping fit is an easy and cheap way to have fun. Running, swimming and dancing are all great exercises. There is always volunteer work to do, too. Do something! Anything! If you don't, you'll be sorry when September comes.
31. Where is Fan Zhe going for the summer holiday
A. Yantai. B. Hefei. C. Tianjin. D. Shanghai.
32. How long will Gao Yuan stay in Australia
A. Two months. B. 20 days. C. 18 days. D. 45 nights.
33. How will Zhou Xiaolin spend her holidays this summer
A. She will write some short stories.
B. She will spend a lot of time with friends, doing different things.
C. She will have to go to math, physics and English classes.
D. She will spend her holiday in Australia.
34. How many people are mentioned in the passage
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
35. What is the writer's opinion according to the article
A. Summer holiday is the best time of the year.
B. Children should travel during the summer holiday.
C. Children must do a lot of volunteer work on holiday.
D. Children should do something interesting during their summer holidays.
C
One dark night,two blind (盲的) men were going home from work. "I need to buy some socks," said one of them suddenly. "Let's stop at the shop on the street." "OK," said the other, "I think I'll buy two or three pairs for myself,too. " They went to the shop.
"What size do you wear,sir?And what colour would you like?" asked the girl in the shop.
"Size Eleven. Give me one pair of black socks and two pairs of white,please," answered one of them. "And you,sir?" the girl asked the other man. "The same for me. I wear Size Eleven,too.So,the same colour and the same number," said the other man.
A moment later they were in the dark street. Each man took the socks he had bought. But just then,a boy riding a bicycle bumped (撞) into them. The blind men dropped (掉) all the socks on the ground! All the six pairs of socks mixed up.The boy quickly said sorry and left. The two blind men picked up all the socks,but they could not tell black from white. How could they be sure that they each got one pair of black socks and two pairs of white socks?They tried to ask for help,but there was no one else in the street.What could they do?
Soon they had a wonderful idea. Easily and quickly,each of them got just what they wanted on their own. How clever they were!
Can you guess how they solved their problem?
The two blind men bought some socks when they were    .
on their way home B. on their way to work
C. on their way to the shop D. on their way to the city center
37. What did each of the blind men want to buy?    
Two pairs of white socks and four pairs of black ones.
B. Four pairs of white socks and two pairs of black ones.
C. One pair of black socks and two pairs of white ones.
D. One pair of white socks and two pairs of black ones.
38. According to Paragraph 4,which is the correct order of the following sentences?   ①The socks were mixed up and the boy apologized.
②Two blind men solved their problem and got their own socks.
③A boy on the bike bumped into the blind men.
④Two blind men dropped their socks on the ground.
⑤Two blind men were in the dark street with their socks.
⑤④③②① B. ⑤③④①② C. ③④①⑤② D. ③④⑤①②
39. According to the story,which may be the best idea for the blind men to get their
own socks?    
They put all pairs of socks together and each of them picked 6 socks.
They went back to ask the shop assistant to separate ( 分开) them.
They separated each pair of socks and both took one sock from each pair.
They waited until someone told them the color of the socks and separated them.
40. The title of the passage should be_______    .
A.One Dark Night B.Two Good Friends C.Black and White D.Two Clever Blind Men
D
Vincent van Gogh, one of the best-known painters(油画家), was born in 1853 in Neherlands. When he was a young man, van Gogh traveled to France, England, and Belgium, but near the end of his life he moved to France.
van Gogh began to draw when he was a child, but he started to paint in his late twenties. His first really good paintings were dark(黑暗的). At that time, people were looking for bright and colorful art, so most of them didn’t want van Gogh’s paintings when he was alive(活着的).
When he moved to France, van Gogh saw new kinds of art. He liked what he saw so much that he started to paint with brighter colors himself right away. Later, he moved to the south(南部)of France, and the sunlight was very strong and bright there. The beauty and color of the place inspired him to paint it, and his paintings became full of bright colors and strong feelings. People started to like his new, bright paintings. He painted many of his best works in the last two years of his life. He was only 37 when he died(去世). Many years later, his works became famous.
Vincent van Gogh’s art was something new, a new way to see the world, and a new way to paint.
41.In the last few years of his life, van Gogh moved to ________.
A.Netherlands B.France C.England D.Belgium
42.van Gogh’s early good paintings were ________.
A.bright B.colorful C.strong D.dark
43.What does the underlined word “inspired” in Paragraph 3 mean in Chinese
A.赋予权力 B.赋予使命 C.赋予灵感 D.赋予名誉
44.Which of the following is TRUE
A.People liked van Gogh’s works all the time.
B.van Gogh started to paint when he was a child.
C.van Gogh didn’t like the bright colors of the place in France.
D.van Gogh drew many of his best paintings between 1889 and 1890.
45.In which part of the newspaper can we find the text
A.Art. B.News. C.Music. D.Sports.
三、短文还原(共10分,每题2分)
阅读短文,从短文下面的六个句子中选择五个还原到短文中,使短文通顺完整、衔接自然。
One of the favourite foods in the United States is the hamburger, a kind of flat round bread with fine-cut beef in between. 46.________. At fast food restaurants, people order their food, wait a few minutes to get it over the counter, and carry it to their tables themselves. 47._______ At some fast- food restaurants, people can order their food, pay for it and pick it up without leaving their cars.
48.______ Most of the restaurants sell hamburgers or other popular foods among Americans. In addition, there are many fast-food restaurants that serve Chinese food, Indian food, seafood and ice cream. The idea of a fast-food restaurant is so popular that nearly every kind of food can be found in one.
49._______ First, they are not formal restaurants. People wear any type of dress when they go to a fast-food place. Second, they are fast. People who are busy do not want to spend time preparing their food or waiting while someone else prepares it. 50.________ Finally, most food in a fast-food restaurant is not expensive. Therefore, people can often eat at a fast food restaurant without spending too much money, while they may not be able to go to more expensive restaurants very often.
A.There are many kinds of fast food restaurants in the United States. B.Fast food restaurants are popular because they show the American way of life. C.The favourite place to buy a hamburger is a fast food restaurant. D.People also take their food out of the restaurant and eat it in their cars or in their homes. E.Fast food is not very expensive for people to buy. F.In fast food restaurants the food is usually ready before the customer even orders it.
四、综合填空(共20 空, 每空1.5分,计30分)
A
阅读短文,从每个方框中的11个词汇中选择10个意义相符的词汇,必要时进行词形变化,填入空白处。
out sale strawberry almost at something size supermarket online over price
Do you often go shopping Here are some students’ answers.
Lisa: My mother has a big 51. ________. In it, I can always find my favorite food and fruit, such as biscuits and 52. _______. So I don’t need to go shopping.
Ben: I like 53. ________ shopping. I can buy 54.__________ everything on the Internet. I can shop 55. _____________ any time. Only a computer and a mouse are OK. I can compare the 56. __________ of the same product. What’s more, I don’t need to go 57.________________.
Tom: I think shopping is for mums. When I need 58. ________, mum always buys it for me. She knows what food I like and what 59. _________ I take.
Lily: I like shopping with my sister. Because she knows if there is a 60. ____________ today.
Everything is half price.
B
阅读下面的短文,根据短文内容,从下面方框内所给11个动词中选择10个意义相符的词,必要时进行词形变化(可添加助动词者情态动词),填入空白处。
Today, we all use Beijing Time. Do you 61.______how it was born(诞生)?Ye Shuhua is the"Mother of Beijing Time".
When she was young, she had great interest in science. She often62._____ many books and learnt a lot about stars. She thought 63.________was interesting for her and she had a good time,too. When she studied in the middle school,she always asked some questions.
In 1951,she was the only woman 64.______ in Xujiahui Observatory (天文台).After that,Ye decided 65. ______ some tests(测试) to keep time more accurately(准确的).In l966, she66.______ a way(方法)to set up(设置) China's universal time system(世界时系统).This 67.______ us the right time.
Ye Shuhua 68._____ the first women observatory director(女性天文台长)in China and she does great jobs for observatory.As a result, the name of an asteroid (小行星)is the same as her name.
Now Ye is 95 years old.She 69.______ a role model(榜样) for people.People 70._______ her forever(永远).
五、阅读表达 (共5小题,计10分)
阅读短文,根据题目要求完成各小题。
These days,people like to use smart phones to scan QR codes(扫描二维码). They love doing it very much because it is a good way to visit websites more quickly. By scanning QR codes, people can do lots of things, such as adding new friends, getting information, downloading (下载)Apps,shopping and so on. Now QR codes become so popular that people can scan them everywhere. Here are the results based on 100 questionnaires(调查问卷).
★The use of scanning QR codes
What do people scan QR codes for
★The places of scanning QR codes
Where do people scan QR codes
71.Why is the QR Code loved by many people
__________________________________________________________________________
According to the pie chart(饼状图),what do people scan QR codes mainly for?
___________________________________________________________________________
73. Where do people scan QR codes most?
___________________________________________________________________________
74.Please translate the underlined sentence into Chinese.
__________________________________________________________________________
75. Do you like scanning a QR code? Why or why not?
___________________________________________________________________________
书面表达。( 20分 )
宁津是我们的家园,近些年来发展迅速,越来越美丽,越来越宜居。假如你是宁津某中学一名七年级的学生,你们学校正在举办英语征文比赛,其主题为My dream home。请以此为题并根据以下要点写一篇短文,介绍你理想中的家园。
Environment(环境) near a park 2. many flowers, trees, birds 3. fresh air, clean street
House large, with 4 rooms, comfortable to live 2. like the balcony(阳台) best because…
Neighbours kind and friendly, many volunteers 2. help with all kinds of problems 3. …
Activities …
要求:
1.80词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数内)
2.要点齐全,可适当发挥;
3.条理清晰,语句通顺,意义连贯,书写规范;
4.文中不得出现真实姓名和校名。
My dream home
Hello, I’m happy to tell you something about my dream home. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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