榆林市2022-2023学年高一下学期7月期末考试
英语试题
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共10页, 全卷满分150分, 答题时间为120分钟；
2. 答卷前, 考生务必将自己的姓名和准考证号填写在答题卡上。
3. 回答选择题时, 选出每小题答案后, 用2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需 改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时, 将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试 卷上无效。
4. 考试结束后, 监考员将答题卡按顺序收回, 装袋整理；试题不回收。
第一部分：听力(共两节, 满分30分)
做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完
每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19. 15. B. 9. 18. C. 9. 15.
答案是C。
1. Why does the woman feel sad
A. Her holiday is canceled. B. She'll leave the town. C. The weather isn't sunny.
2. What will the woman do for the man
A. Update online news.
B. Keep the classes in order.
C. Make up for his missed lessons.
3. Where will the man sit
A. Behind the woman. B. Next to the woman. C. Next to the woman's friend.
4. How did Anna solve her problem
A. She lent some books to others.
B. She left some textbooks at home.
C. She put her books in a suitcase.
5. When did Sue leave home
A. At 4:30. B. At 5:00. C. At 5:15.
第二节 (共15小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选 出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟；听完后, 各小题将给 出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6. What does the man like doing
A. He likes going shopping. B. He likes making things. C. He likes making friends.
7. How much did the man save
A. $ 50. B. $100. C. $ 150.
听第7段材料, 回答第8、9题。
8. What is Josh fond of
A. Piano and rock music. B. Rock and pop music. C. Pop music and violin.
9. Where is Henry from
A. Australia. B. Africa. C. America.
听第8段材料, 回答第10至13题。
10. Where does the conversation happen
A. On the phone. B. In Miss Li's home. C. In an office.
11. How does Tom feel at first
A. Worried. B. Excited. C. Tired.
12. What does Miss Li advise Tom to do
A. Correct the mistakes. B. Talk with his parents. C. Be more careful next time.
13. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. An exam. B. A student. C. A song.
听第9段材料, 回答第14至17题。
14. Why does Andrew suggest Sandy's Restaurant
A. It has good food. B. It's near his home. C. It has large outdoor space.
15. What does the woman promise to do
A. Hold a birthday party,
B. Write a list of invitations,
C. Ask for her parents' permission.
16. How long will the party last
A. One hour, B. Three hours, C. Five hours.
17. What will Andrew do this afternoon
A. Send the invitations. B. Make a list of songs. C. Get some drinks.
听第10段材料, 回答第18至20题。
18. What percentage of fresh water resources have humans already used
A. 45% 。 B. 54%, C. 70%,
19. What is the goal of the campaign organized by the United Nations
A. To transport fresh water to some parts of the world.
B. To develop more water recycling systems in poor countries.
C. To get more people to use water in environmental-friendly ways.
20. What is the passage mainly about
A. How much water was used.
B. Ways of recycling fresh water.
C. Concerns about water issues.
第二部分：阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题, 每小题2. 5分, 满分37. 5分)
阅读下列四篇短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出最佳选项。
A
Famous Food Festivals Around the World
Food festivals are held all around the world every year, and people from different parts come to these festivals in large numbers to satisfy their taste buds(味蕾).
The Galway International Oyster(牡蛎)and Seafood Festival
Galway, Ireland
September 26 to September 29, 2023
This is the world's longest running oyster festival, first appearing in 1954. Apart from the excellent seafood that is served, the festival also features some exciting events such as oyster-eating contests, live music, tasting parties, etc.
The International Mango Festival
New Delhi, India
June 30 to July 2, 2023
This festival is a celebration of everything about mangoes. It features different kinds of mangoes and various food items that are made from them. The festival also holds a number of special events such as mango- eating competitions, mango-tasting events, quiz competitions, and plenty of traditional and folk performances.
The Garlic(大蒜)Festival
The Isle of Wight, England
August 17 to August 18, 2023
This is one of the largest events that the Isle of Wight hosts each year, and it shows recipes made from garlic. Some foods made out of garlic and garlic beer are available there. The festival also features live music and a country fair.
The Crave Sydney International Food Festival
Sydney, Australia
October 1 to October 31, 2023
This festival attracts a number of famous international chefs each year as visitors to experience the best of Australian food. From fine dining at famous restaurants to street food to cooking classes, this event has a lot in store for a visitor.
21. Where should you go if you want to enjoy mangoes
A. Galway. B. Sydney. C. The Isle of Wight. D. New Delhi.
22. Which of the following is TRUE about the Garlic Festival
A. It lasts for about a month.
B. It's the largest event in England.
C. Visitors can enjoy special garlic beer.
D. It only features live music.
23. A chef is advised to take part in __________ according to the passage.
A. the Garlic Festival
B. the Crave Sydney International Food Festival
C. the International Mango Festival
D. the Galway International Oyster and Seafood Festival
B
Four schools from Beijing were in Hull to put on a show.
The schools, all from the Fengtai District in Beijing, have close ties to the city. Groups of students from Beijing and Hull regularly visit each other as part of a cultural and educational exchange programme.
Today's special performance at Hull City Hall included various forms of traditional Chinese music, dance and acrobatics(杂技).
Lewis Anderson, 26, started learning Chinese at the age of 13 and acts as a translator and organiser when the Chinese students visit the UK. He also currently studies at a university in China.
He said, "Cultural exchanges are really important because children start to appreciate everything in life. They start to learn that there isn't only their view on things and they start to look at other cultures and appreciate their history and beauty. For example, when Hull students visit China, they might visit the Great Wall and enjoy traditional dancing and opera, and then they come home and think 'What do we have that is the equivalent(相等的东西)of that 'and they look at all the different things that we have and it starts to open their minds. "
The Chinese students are on a 12-day visit to the UK, visiting eight different cities, including four days in Hull. As part of their visit to Hull, they were invited to visit various museums, galleries and tourist sites in the city.
Lewis said, "The children love exploring Hull because it's rich in history and everywhere you look it's old, beautiful and attractive. "
At Hull City Hall the Chinese students performed a traditional Peking Opera, which combines music, vocal performance, dance and acrobatics. The performance is famous for featuring fantastic costumes and dazzling make-up.
24. What did Lewis think of cultural exchanges
A. They benefit students in their development.
B. They should get more public attention.
C. They inspire more children to study in China.
D. They bring tradition to life.
25. Which of the following best describes the students' visit to Hull
A. It put them on the road to explore the nature.
B. It was a month-long tour.
C. It changed their attitudes to the costumes.
D. It was a journey into history.
26. What did the students do at Hull City Hall
A. They only told Chinese stories to the locals.
B. They performed Peking Opera.
C. They taught the locals Peking Opera.
D. They introduced their schools to the locals.
27. What is the text
A. A diary. B. A play review. C. A news report. D. A school notice.
C
On March 22, 2021, the journal Nature Ecology & Evolution published a new map of undiscovered species. This new effort is of great importance for Walter Jetz, a study co-author and professor at Yale University, US. "At the current pace of global environmental change, there is no doubt that many species will die out before we have ever learned about their existence and had the chance to consider their fate, "Jetz said.
Less than a decade ago, Yale researchers mapped out the world's life. Now Yale researchers have launched a more ambitious project—creating a map where life has yet to be discovered, whose goal is to help support biodiversity(生物多样性)discovery and preservation across the globe. According to the researchers, "Conservative estimates suggest only 13 to 18 percent of all living species have been identified, although this number could be as low as 1. 5 percent. "In the rapidly changing global environment, researchers are racing against time to discover the remaining species.
"Finding the missing pieces of the Earth's biodiversity puzzle is therefore crucial to improve biodiversity conservation worldwide, " explained the lead author Mario Moura, a biologist at the Federal University of Paraiba in Brazil. The map of undiscovered life is based on a model estimating where unknown species likely exist today, based on environmental, biological and sociological factors. The most undiscovered vertebrates(脊椎动物)—potentially 25 percent of all future discoveries—are expected to live in Brazil, Colombia, Madagascar and Indonesia. Tropical forests in these countries need protection and we must stop deforestation(滥砍滥伐)rates to discover our biodiversity.
"It is a fascinating project that allows us to better know biodiversity patterns on the planet, "Moura said. "We hope to motivate citizen scientists and biodiversity enthusiasts about the importance of species discovery and ignite (点燃) discussions and agreements from those responsible for decision-making and conservation planning
28. Why is the new map so important
A. It is helpful for us to protect the air.
B. It will prevent most species dying out.
C. It helps improve biodiversity conservation only in some countries
D. It helps support biodiversity discovery and preservation across the globe.
29. What may Yale researchers agree with
A. Only 23 percent of all living species have been identified
B. It is a race against time to discover the remaining species
C. Many species will go extinct after we have ever learned about them
D. The new map is based on a model estimating where the world's plants exist now
30. What does the underlined word "crucial" mean in Paragraph 3
A. Significant. B. Useless C. Scary D. Closing
31. What may be talked about in the following paragraph
A. The importance of species discovery
B. The impact of deforestation on undiscovered species
C. The more specific things we can do to help species discovery
D. The development of Nature Ecology & Evolution
D
The artificial intelligence tool ChatGPT can offer everything from answers to basic general knowledge questions, to writing essays and poems. Ask ChatGPT to write about the history of the French Revolution or Battles of Hastings, and it will provide a perfect essay in less than a second. It's such a powerful tool openly accessible to any student for free. However, AI-based plagiarism( 抄 袭 )or so called “AIgiarism” is fast taking off across student populations internationally, ringing alarm bells in schools and universities around the world
The developers OpenAI have since decided to prevent the misuse of its technology. The company is developing a system, water marks, for identifying those who cheat by submitting essays written by ChatGPT. By using the system which changes certain works into a recognizable pattern, the machine written text could be identified by anyone looking for the signs. These changes would not be noticeable to the reader. The researchers say that by setting up this kind of security system, it could prevent the technology from being misused for whatever reason. Such measures will also prevent an overdependence on the tool, which still has a long way to go before improving its accuracy, due to the fact that it collects the information from all over the internet. The CEO of OpenAI, Sam Altman, said in a statement that it would be a mistake to depend on it for anything important at this stage.
Schools also in turn have tried to take matters into their own hands, with many across Europe and the US updating their policies to warn of punishments for those who are caught using the program improperly.
Other schools have limited internet network access to ChatGPT on campus. Examiners have the sense to identify essays written by ChatGPT by a lack of emotion or personal experiences in them. This ability is a human advantage—AI will struggle to copy.
32. Why does the author mention French Revolution and Battles of Hastings
A. To explain what they are. B. To introduce the history of France.
C. To show the power of ChatGPT. D. To make a comparison between them.
33. What can we learn about the system mentioned in Paragraph 2
A. It will make ChatGPT helpless for people.
B. It will probably prevent an overdependence on ChatGPT.
C. The readers are worried about the system's future.
D. It has successfully recognized essays written by ChatGPT.
34. What can we know about AI according to the last paragraph
A. AI is able to match humans.
B. AI has no ability.
C. AI has an advantage over humans.
D. There is something that AI can't copy from humans.
35. What can be the best title for the passage
A. Actions Against the Misuse of ChatGPT
B. ChatGPT Is Forbidden
C. All the Systems of OpenAI
D. ChatGPT—A Powerful Tool
第二节(共5小题, 每小题2. 5分, 满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Many people find it hard to get excited about learning new vocabulary because they believe it is only about rote memorization(死记硬背) . 36. _____________ Whether you're learning a new language or improving your current one, there are a variety of tools you can use to help you really learn, not just memorize new words.
★Integrate ( 融入 )the new words into your environment.
Hang large blank pieces of paper in places you frequent, like the bathroom or kitchen. Add new words and their meanings to the hanging paper as you see them. 37.___________You can also draw a small picture showing the meaning of the word beside it.
★38. ________________
You can write new words into sentences related to your own life. For example, if you want to learn to use the word "azure", a bright blue color, write it into several sentences that relate to your current situation: "My new cup is a beautiful azure color. "
★Turn learning into an educational game.
The more fun you can make your vocabulary learning time, the more likely you are to do it. There are a number of free vocabulary-learning games online. 39. _______________
★Revise the words.
40._____________. So even if you've got those words remembered, you still need a review. After revising them a couple of times, make sure you are confident with their use.
A. Make the new words part of your life.
B. That way you'll find yourself frequently noticing them.
C. Choose a book that you would like to read.
D. Make the most of these resources and you will make unexpected progress.
E. Not everyone has a great memory.
F. Luckily, that's far from the case.
G. You want to have somewhere to look up the meaning of the word.
第三部分：语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题, 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was in my college, I have a full class schedule and a part-time job. I 41 had time for exercise.
What's worse, I ate much fast food. Undoubtedly, I was 42 .
After graduation, I decided to go to the 43 . Together with a friend, I began to 44 regularly. I
was very satisfied. We went to the gym every day. My friend, however, became 45 . One day, he suggested that we take up a sport.
I was not 46 , so I didn't want to take up a sport. And no one was going to change my mind. However, after a few weeks, I stepped onto an outdoor racquetball( 壁 球 )court unwillingly. I hit the ball, sending it flying in every direction except for the direction that I had 47 .
But as I was beginning to feel comfortable, my 48 suggested we play tennis instead. Tennis I can't play tennis! I was strongly against my friend's new 49. However, weeks later, I found myself standing on a tennis court. Awkwardly, I 50 after every ball that he served to me, completely 51 about ninety percent of them, and hitting the rest into the woods and the other court.
The first few months were quite 52. But one day, as the ball came flying toward me, my racket and the ball finally met in what tennis players consider as the “sweet spot(最佳击球点) . ”I 53 in surprise as my return landed powerfully on the other side of the court, almost exactly where I had aimed. I finally learned how to play tennis!
Obviously, if I hadn't stepped outside of my comfort zone, I would have never 54 how much I enjoyed tennis. I began to try new things willingly with a sense of 55.
41. A. always B. seldom C. also D. still
42. A. overweight B. healthy C. grateful D. energetic
43. A. factory B. court C. gym D. frontier
44. A. work out B. look out C. figure out D. put out
45. A. generous B. annoyed C. relaxed D. bored
46. A. nervous B. athletic C. plain D. wealthy
47. A. forgot B. imagined C. wrote D. intended
48. A. graduate B. composer C. father D. friend
49. A. document B. suggestion C. blog D. performance
50. A. ran B. rapped C. tailored D. roasted
51. A. buying B. inventing C. selling D. missing
52. A. useful B. tough C. satisfying D. wonderful
53. A. decorated B. hired C. watched D. ignored
54. A. questioned B. argued C. discovered D. remembered
55. A. excitement B. humor C. responsibility D. sadness
第二节 语法填空(共10小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Take a walk down a street in China, especially around the Chinese New Year. Then you'll see beautiful hand-made sugar paintings on a stick for sale. This traditional Chinese folk art dates back 56.___________ the Ming Dynasty (1368— 1644).
It doesn't take much equipment to sugar paint. 57_______ (make) such an artwork, the artisan scoops (舀) up the melted sugar and forms designs on the metal. Before the liquid sugar becomes hard, a wooden stick is placed in 58.________ middle to turn it into a lollipop(棒棒糖)to be separated from the metal.
I haven't seen many people eat their sugar paintings. Perhaps it's because they're 59._______ (work) of art for our admiration. Perhaps because we have much tasty sugary food, the taste of sugar paintings no longer 60. _________ (excite) us. But during the Ming Dynasty, only the rich 61. __________ powerful could afford them. During the Qing Dynasty, sugar paintings were created freehand. And sugar paintings 62.__________ (become)popular since then.
This art form is a part of Chinese history and proof of its people's creativity. Sugar painters 63. _________ (invite) to take part in cultural events both within China and abroad nowadays. Online, there are even toys 64.__________ (create)for kids like a 3D pen. Of course, anyone 65. _________ is interested can have a try. After all, you're combining a delicious treat and art.
第四部分：写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
假设你是李华, 请用英语给从中国太空站(Tiangong Space Station)凯旋归来的宇航员们写一封 信。内容包括：
1. 对他们为太空事业做出的成就感到骄傲；
2. 询问在太空站时的生活、工作情况；
3. 表达关心和祝愿。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节, 以使行文连贯。
Dear astronauts,
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 (满分25分)
阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Phil was a successful businessman. One day, he went for a lunch at a new restaurant. While waiting or his meal, Phil looked at the people in the park. Suddenly, a young boy's face caught his attention.
"Wait, do I know him " he wondered. He walked out of the restaurant. When he approached the little boy, he saw the boy begging for money. When Phil saw the boy turn towards him, "Yes, I know him!" Phil thought. Phil knew the boy and his mother very well.
Phil was in his senior year when Melissa, the boy's mother, joined the university as a teaching assistant. She net Phil when his teachers wanted to make him leave the university because of his poor performance. Melissa stood up for him and asked his teachers to give him one last chance.
Phil agreed to study under Melissa's guidance and was amazed to see how she taught him the knowledge ne couldn't follow earlier. He considered her as his mentor(导师)and respected her a lot.
After graduating, Phil set up his company and applied the knowledge that Melissa had taught him. He quickly made huge profits and was always grateful to Melissa.
"Hey! What happened to your mom "Phil asked the boy.
"She hasn't been feeling well for the past year, " the boy replied while he tried to recognize Phil. "The doctors says she needs immediate surgery(外科手术), but we can't afford it. "
"I'm so sorry to hear that, "Phil said.
"We sold everything we owned, " the boy said. "We paid for her first operation, but now we have nothing. She needs another surgery as soon as possible. "
"I can't believe this, "Phil said while holding back his tears. "Can you take me to the hospital I want to meet your mother. "
注意：
1. 续写词数应为120左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The boy agreed and jumped into Phil's car.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
Phil sat in the waiting room beside the boy while the doctors performed Melissa's surgery,
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________榆林市2022-2023学年高一下学期7月期末考试
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分：听力(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分7. 5分)
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A
第二节 (共15小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分22. 5分)
6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. C
16. B 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C
第二部分：阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题, 每小题2. 5分, 满分37. 5分)
A)21. D 22. C 23. B
B)24. A 25. D 26. B 27. C
C)28. D 29. B 30. A 31. C
D)32. C 33. B 34. D 35. A
第二节 (共5小题, 每小题2. 5分, 满分12. 5分)
36. F 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. E
第三部分：语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题, 每小题1分, 满分15分)
41. B 42. A 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. B 50. A
51. D 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. A
第二节 语法填空(共10小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分15分)
56. to 57. To make 58. the 59. works 60, excites
61. and 62. have become 63. are invited 64. created 65. who
第四部分：写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
参考范文：
Dear astronauts,
Hearty congratulations on the successful mission and your triumphant return! I'm really excited to
tell you how proud I am for your remarkable accomplishments made in China's space expeditions.
With great curiosity about your life and work in Tiangong space station, I am writing to enquire about your first-hand experience. How long did it take to adapt to the weightless environment Was it possible to make video calls to your families on a regular basis Additionally, impressed by your interaction with us students in "Tiangong Class", I cannot help admiring your pioneering work, wondering what it takes to be a qualified astronaut. I should learn from you, especially your perseverance, resilience and diligence.
Wish you a life of happiness and prosperity.
Yours,
Li Hua
评分标准：
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分, 按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时, 先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或 调整档次, 最后给分。
3. 词数少于100或多于120的, 从得分中减去2分。
4. 评分时, 应注意的主要内容为：内容要点应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的 连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面评分时, 应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、 美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差, 以至影响交际, 将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档：(14—15分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务, 覆盖所有内容要点, 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇, 语法结构或 词汇方面有个别错误, 但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言应用能力, 有 效地使用语句间的连接成分, 使全文结构紧凑, 完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档：(11—13分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉1、2个次重点, 但覆盖所有主要内容。应用的语法结构 和词汇能满足任务的要求。语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确, 少量错误主要是因尝试较复杂语 法结构或词汇所致。应用了简单的词句连接成分, 使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档：(8—10分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉了一些内容, 但覆盖所有主要内容。应用的语法结构或 词汇方面有错误, 但不影响理解。应用了简单的语句间连接成分, 使全文的内容连贯。整体而言, 基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档：(5—7分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容, 写了一些无关内容。语法结 构单调、词汇项目有限。有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误, 影响了对写作内容的理解。较少使用 语句间的连接成分, 内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传递给读者。
第一档：(1—4分)
未完成试题规定的任务。明显遗漏主要内容, 写了一些无关内容, 原因可能未理解试题要求。 语法结构单调, 词汇项目有限。有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误, 影响了对写作内容的理解。缺 乏语句间的连接成分, 内容不连贯。信息未能传递给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息；写作内容与题目无关或无法看清楚。
第二节 (满分25分)
参考范文：
The boy agreed and jumped into Phil's car. Phil tried his best not to ery on the way to the hospital, but he couldn't help it. He was shocked to learn about Melissa's illness. After parking the car, Phil followed the boy to the hospital room and talked to the doctors about the woman's condition. "Ms. Melissa needs immediate surgery, "the doctor said. "We will begin the surgery as soon as we are ready. ”Phil nodded and told the doctors he would pay for the surgery.
Phil sat in the waiting room beside the boy while the doctors performed Melissa's surgery. Hours later, a team of doctors and nurses came out of the operation room and told Phil everything was fine. When Melissa gained awareness, her son hugged her, "Mom, do you know who paid for your surgery " Melissa turned her eyes to Phil. "Phil Is that you " she smiled. "Yes, Ms. Melissa, " Phil smiled back. "Your favorite student is here!" With hands holding together, they talked about their past good days happily.
评分标准：
一、评分原则：
1. 总分25分；按5档给分；
2. 评分时, 先根据所给短文的内容和语言初步确定所属档次, 然后以该档次要求来衡量、确定 或调整档次, 最后给分；
3. 词数少于120词, 总分扣除2分；
4. 主要从以下4个方面考虑：
a. 与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
b. 内容丰富性；
c. 语法结构及词汇的丰富性和准确性；
d. 上下文连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号准确性也是评分的一个重要方面；
6. 若书写较差, 分数降低一档。
二、读后续写评分档次标准：
第五档(21— 25分)
与所给短文融洽度高, 与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；内容丰富；所使用语法结构和词汇丰 富、准确, 可能有些许错误, 但完全不影响意义表达；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分, 使所续写短 文结构紧凑。
第四档(16— 20分)
与所给短文融洽度较高, 与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；内容比较丰富；所使用语法结 构和词汇较为丰富、准确, 可能有些许错误, 但完全不影响意义表达；比较有效地使用了语句间的连 接成分, 使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11— 15分)
与所给短文关系较为密切, 与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；写出了若干有关内容； 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求, 虽有一些错误, 但不影响意义的表达；应用简单的语句
间连接成分, 使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6— 10分)
与所给短文有一定的关系, 与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；写出了一些有关内容； 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限, 有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误, 影响了意义的表达；较少使用语句
间的连接成分, 全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档(1 — 5分)
与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差；产出内容太少；语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限, 有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误, 严重影响了意义的表达；缺乏语句间的连接成分, 全文内容不连贯。
0分
白卷、内容太少无法判断或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
听力材料
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完 每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
(Text 1)
M:Hi, Julia. Are you here on holiday
W:Yes, it's a beautiful town and it's so sunny here. So sad it's my last day here.
(Text 2)
M:I'm worried about the classes I missed when I was away.
W:Don't worry. I will try to help you with what we've been learning.
M:That's very kind of you.
(Text 3)
M:Excuse me. May I sit next to you
W:Im sorry, but I'm saving this seat for my friend. There is another seat behind us.
M:OK. I will just sit there.
(Text 4)
M:I like your suitcase, Anna. I didn't know you were going away. Have a nice trip!
W:I'm not going away. I'm going to school. My textbooks are so heavy that my regular bags give me shoulder problems.
(Text 5)
M:I wonder if Sue will be here by five.
W:Her father said she left home at half past four. She should be here at a quarter past five.
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选 出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟；听完后, 各小题将给 出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话, 回答第6、7题。
(Text 6)
W:What's this supposed to be
M:It's my new bookcase. I just have to put it together.
W:Why didn't you buy one which was ready
M:To begin with, I like making things.
W:I know, but this is a lot of work. Is it worth it
M:Of course! I saved $ 50.
W:Sounds great.
听下面一段对话, 回答第8、9题。
(Text 7)
W: So Josh, I know that you like playing the guitar.
M:Yeah.
W:What kind of music do you love
M:Mostly, I play rock but sometimes, I play pop music as well.
W:Cool. So who is your favorite artist
M:My favorite artist at the moment is Henry.
W:Okay. Where does he come from
M:He comes from America.
听下面一段对话, 回答第10至13题。
(Text 8)
M:This is Tom. May I speak to Miss Li
W:Tom Glad to hear your voice.
M:Miss Li, I wonder if the result of the last math exam has come out. You know I do well in math,
but I was so careless that I made many mistakes this time. Now I'm really stressed out.
W: Just take it easy, Tom! The result hasn't come out yet. As soon as it comes out, I'll tell you. Maybe you didn't do so badly.
M:I hope so. What if I get a bad grade I feel nervous about it.
W:Don't worry. It doesn't matter. You know the mistakes you made. Pay more attention next time.
M:Thanks a lot, Miss Li. You always give us much encouragement.
W:I'm glad to hear that. Cheer up.
M:I will. See you next week.
W:Have a nice day! Please give my regards to your parents. See you.
M:Thank you so much.
听下面一段对话, 回答第14至17题。
(Text 9)
W:So, where are we going to have the party, Andrew Your home
M:It's an outdoor party. Sandy's Restaurant near our school has an outdoor space big enough for a
barbecue party.
W:lf we hold it in a restaurant, then we have to buy food from the restaurant. That would be expensive. We don't plan to spend much money, you know that.
M:What about your home, Jane
W:Well, I need to ask my parents first. I just had a birthday party last week, so I hope my parents
will permit it this time.
M:Thanks, Jane. We will do the clean-up after the party. When shall we have the party, then
W: I think Saturday evening is perfect. It's usually from 6 pm to 9 pm.
M:OK. Then we can settle everything else for the party, including the food to bring, the music and
the games.
W:I've made a list with more than a hundred songs.
M:I'll send the invitations to our friends this afternoon, and I hope our friends will reply soon.
听下面一段独白, 回答第18至20题。
(Text 10)
As is known to all, water use is essential everywhere. However, it is said that we humans have
already used 54% of all the fresh water in rivers, lakes and underground. There are some estimates that this rate will reach 70% by 2025. Fresh water is necessary for life on Earth. People need water for everyday activities and to produce food. Water is also important for energy production and the health of Earth's environmental systems. The United Nations is organizing a series of events to increase concerns about water issues. A goal of this campaign is to build support for policies to use water more wisely. Another goal is to get more people to use water in ways that will not hurt the environment. The world population is more than 8 billion. What worries us people is that more than 1 billion lack safe drinking water. More than 2 billion suffer from disease linked to dirty water. And, more than 2 billion live without waste treatment systems.
