2022-2023学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试题
注意事项:
本试题分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分。第1卷为选择题75分，第Ⅱ卷为非选择题45分，共120分。考试时间为120分钟。
第l卷（选择题共75分）
一、听力（共四节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，请将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
Ⅰ.听下面5个句子，选择与你所听到的内容相符的图片。听完每个句子后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读一遍。（每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
Ⅱ.听下面5个句子，每个句子后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出能回答每个句子的正确答语。听完每个句子后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。（每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
6. A. It's cheap. B. It's beautiful. C. It's over there.
7. A. At the station. B. 18 yuan. C. Tomorrow morning.
8. A. Twenty minutes' walk. B. It's next to the zoo. C. By bike.
9. A. Yes, I do. B. Why do you think so C. She is a good girl.
10. A. He is outgoing. B. Because he is more outgoing. C. She is friendlier.
Ⅲ.听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读二遍。（每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
11. How will they go to the concert
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike.
12. What is Uncle John good at
A. Fishing. B. Boating. C. Swimming.
13. Where is Mr White
A. At school. B. In the hospital. C. A this home.
14. Whose birthday is it today
A. Ann's grandma's. B. Ann's grandpa's. C. Ann's father's.
15. When will the boy take part in the sports meeting
A. On Monday. B. On Sunday. C. On Friday.
Ⅳ.（每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段短文，短文后有五道小题。短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
16. How old is Paul
A. 28 years old. B. 35 years old. C. 38 years old.
17. Where did Woody sit at primary school
A. In front of Paul. B. Next to Paul. C. Behind Paul.
18. What sport did Paul do well in at primary school
A. Football. B. Volleyball. C. Basketball.
19. How often do Paul and Woody meet each other now
A. Almost once a month. B. Almost twice a week. C. Almost every day.
20. What is Woody like
A. Serious. B. Funny. C. Quiet
二、英语知识运用（共两节，满分15分）
第一节 单项填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
21. — Do you know young man with glasses
—Yes. He's Mr. Hunt and he's doctor at Green Hospital.
A. the; the B. a; a C. the; a
22. She was surprised to find Tim learned lots of words singing English songs.
A. by B. for C. about
23. Hey, Jimmy! Don't play with your phone when you walk. It's very .
A. interesting B. dangerous C. difficult
24. Oh, I ate for breakfast this morning so I feel very hungry now.
A. something B. anything C. nothing
25. — Do you like swimming in your free time, Jill
— No, I'm not interested in sports. My are singing and dancing.
A. talents B. programs C. hobbies
第二节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，然后从各小题所给的（A、B、C）三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Dear Mike,
I am having a party for my13th birthday. Can you come 26 my party It will be 27 wonderful party. You can 28 to some pop music and you will also 29 a big birthday cake. I think it's much bigger 30 your backpack, It is as big as a desk. Have you ever seen a cake 31 this one It will 32 a special party, too. It's also a ball(舞会). You can dance to the nice music. 33 you'll have to bring a partner. The party will begin at 7:00 pm. 34 Friday. Welcome to my house. You will enjoy 35 ! Don’t forget to bring your partner!
Love,
Steve
26. A. at B. to C. in
27. A. a B. an C. the
28. A. say B. sing C. listen
29. A. watch B. see C. look
30. A. as B. like C. than
31. A. as B. for C. like
32. A. is B. be C. am
33. A. Although B. But C. Because
34. A. at B. in C. on
35. A. yourself B. your C. yours
三、阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Do you want to know what our life will be like in the future Let's have a look. You may get a surprise. You will go to the kitchen when you are hungry. You will give orders to the kitchen robot. The robot will cook the food for you in a few minutes. Then it will bring it to you.
In the kitchen you will find a special food machine. The food machine will tell you what your body needs. It will help you eat healthily. The food machine will be connected with(连接)the kitchen robot. The robot can get messages from the food machine. After having a meal, you can go to your home office. You will work at home and you don't need to go out to work any more.
You will have a special information screen. You can get any information on the screen. When you receive a message from a friend in America, your information screen will be turned on automatically(自动地).Your friend's face appears on the screen. Then you can talk to your friend easily.
36. What is the second paragraph about
A. It's about healthy food. B. It's about the kitchen robot.
C. It’s about a nice kitchen.
37. According to the passage, will tell you what your body needs.
A. the kitchen robot B. the food machine C. the information screen
38. What does the underlined word “receive” mean in Chinese
A.丢失 B.复制 C.接收
39. You can see your friend's face .
A. on the wall B. on the screen C. on the Internet
40. What's the best title for the passage
A. Our life in the future B. A food machine C. A special information screen
B
Seven Stories Seven Stories is a great place for your kid's special birthday party. Opening time: Tuesday~Saturday:10: 10 a.m. ~9: 00p.m. Sunday: 10: 00 a.m.~8: 00 p.m.
★To book(预订) a party, please call us at 330-1095 between 10: 00 a.m. and 5: 00 p.m. ★Book a party at least three weeks before it. ★10 to 20 kids per party. ★13 dollars per kid. ★The price includes(包括) the room, the party host and food for every kid.
41. Seven Stories is .
A. a bookshop B. a storybook C. a place to have birthday parties
42. You can make a call to book a birthday party at .
A. 8: 30 a.m. B. 9: 30 a.m. C.11: 00 a.m.
43. If Kate's birthday is on December 25th, her family should book the party on .
A. December 3rd B. December 9th C. December 15th
44. If Mr. Hunt wants to book a party for 12kids, how much should he pay
A. $120. B. $156. C. $170.
45. Which of the following is TRUE
A. Seven Stories is closed every Tuesday.
B. The number of the kids at the party should be less than 15.
C. People can book a party by calling.
C
Dear Land,
How are you Now I’d like to tell you something about our school's talent show last week. It was a great success. There were twenty acts. Eliza was the best act. She played the piano beautifully. Steve and his dog were the funniest. We couldn’t stop laughing when we were watching their performance. They sang acute song together. And Vera was the most creative act. She played the guitar upside down. But Dennis was the worst act. He couldn’t juggle at all.
Can you tell me something about your school Please write soon.
Yours,
Lisa
46. How was the talent show last week
A. It was very successful. B. It was very dull. C. It was very creative.
47. Who was the best performer in last week's talent show
A. Land. B. Eliza. C. Vera.
48. Who sang acute song
A. Eliza. B. Steve. C. Steve and his dog.
49. The underlined phrase “upside down” means “ ”in Chinese.
A.从头到尾 B.自上而下 C.倒立
50. According to the passage, Land maybe a .
A. student B. worker C. writer
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题共45分）
四、任务型阅读（共5个小题，每小题2分，满分10分）（把答案写在后面答案卷的指定的位置上）
Because of COVID-19, students in China spent almost half a year at home. The new term begin in September and (A) 他们都返回了学校. What did schools do to keep the students safe (安全的) at school
Chen Lihua, a student in Beijing, said, it was difficult for primary school students to wear masks(口罩) for a long time. So (B) the school tried its best for make students go outside and takes off their masks as often as possible. The school moved music, art and science classes outdoors(户外).Between indoor classes, there was a 20-minute break.
Liu Ziyi, a fourth-grade student in Beijing, said she felt safe at school. Two of her classmates go till on Tuesday, and teachers sent them to hospital quickly. The other student didn't go back to the classroom until they knew that the two students just had a cold. “I think teachers are caring much about students' heath. They told us to was hour hands and have a good habit,” she said.
任务一用英语回答问题
51. What does Chen Lihua think is difficult for primary school students
52. What happened in Liu Ziyi's school on Tuesday
53. Why does Liu Ziyi feel safe at school.
任务二 将（A）句完成英文翻译
54. they all .
任务三 将（B）句译成中文
55. 。
五、综合填空选择合适的单词并用其正确形式完成短文。（10分）
pour，butter，add， be，mix，teaspoon，cut，delicious，into，how
Dear Maria,
How is it going I'm in a middle school here. There 56 thirty classes in this school, I'm in Class 3, Grade 8.Yesterday I had a bowl of noodles with 57 soup in a restaurant. After the meal, an old man taught me 58 to make this kind of soup. Now let me tell you how to make it.
First 59 up two onions and three tomatoes. Heat about three teaspoons of 60 in a pan and then put the onions and tomatoes in it 61 them together and cook them for about 5 minutes.
Next, 62 some water. When the water boils, whisk(搅动) the egg whites and pour them 63 the pan. After one or two minutes, add one 64 of salt. Now the soup is OK.
Finally, 65 the soup over the noodles. How delicious! I'm sure that you will enjoy them, too.
I’m looking forward to hearing from you soon.
Yours,
Sally
六、写作（共2小题，计25分）
第一节 信息填表（5分）
Sam's birthday is coming this Sunday. He is going to having a birthday party at this house this Sunday evening. Before the party, he has many things to do. First, he needs to call his friends to invite them to the party. Next, he is going to the supermarket on Sunday morning. He has to buy some drinks and snacks. Then, on Sunday afternoon, he has to help his mother cook food for the party. After the party, he has to do the dishes, clean the living room and take out the trash(垃圾): What a busy day he is going to have!
When What to do
Before the party 66 his friends
Buy some 67 and snacks
Help his mother 68 for the party
After the party Do the 69
Clean the 70
Takeout the trash
第二节 书面表达（满分20分）
如你是李华，你刚刚搬了新家，为了庆祝乔迁之喜，你准备周日上午十点举办一个派对， 你想邀请你的好友Karen来参加， 请给她发一封邀请函。
要点:
（1）邀请原因，派对时间及地点；
（2）活动安排；
（3）期待回复。
要求: 80词左右，信的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Karen,
Yours,
Li Hua2022-2023学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语参考答案及评分细则
第Ⅰ卷（选择题 共75分）
听力（1—20每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 ABBAB 6-10 BBAAA 11-15 BABBC 16-20 CCACB
二、语言知识应用（共15题；每小题1分，满分15分）
第一节 单项填空（每小题1分，满分5分）
21-25 CABCC
第二节 完形填空（10分）
26-30 BACBC 31-35 CBBCA
三、阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
36-40 BBCBA 41-45 CCABC 46-50 ABCCA
第II卷(非选择题 共45分)
四、任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
51. To wear masks（口罩）for a long time.
52. Two of her classmates got ill.
53. Because teacher cares much about about students’ health and help them to have a good habit.
54. went back to school
55. 学校尽了最大努力让学生走出（教室）。
【评分说明】 1．本题每小题 2 分，满分 10 分，回答问题用完整的句子或短语均可；2．以上仅提供了参考答案，凡答案符合题意，又无语法错误的都给分； 3．答案有语法或拼写错误的，每个扣 0.5 分，每小题扣完 2 分为止。
五、综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
56. are 57. delicious 58. how 59. cut 60. butter
61. Mix 62. add 63. into 64. teaspoon 65. pour
【评分说明】1．本题每小题1分，满分10分；2．凡与本答案不符者不得分。
六、写作（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 信息填表（每小题1分，共5分）
66. Call 67. drinks 68. cook 69. dishes 70. living room
【评分说明】1．本题每小题1分；2．凡与本答案不符者不得分。
书面表达(满分20分）
Dear Karen,
I just moved into my new house at 5 London Road. I’m going to have a housewarming party. It will be at 10:00 a.m. on this Sunday morning. I would like to invite you to the party. You don’t need to bring any food or drinks. I am serving you a big lunch. After the meal, we can talk with each other or watch TV. We can also play games. I think we will have fun. Please reply to me by this Friday and let me know if you can come to the party.
I’m looking forward to hearing from you.
Yours,
Li Hua
评分说明：本题共20分，评分可分为四个档次：
A：符合写作要求，短文通顺完整，基本没有语法、拼写错误，书写工整，得16—20；
B：符合写作要求，短文基本通顺完整，有少量语法、拼写错误，书写较工整，得11—15；
C：基本符合写作要求，但不够通顺完整，语法、拼写错误较多，书写不够工整，得6—10；
D：不符合写作要求，短文不通顺、不完整，有大量语法、拼写错误，书写潦草，6分以下。（1、空白卷或仅抄写试卷中与本话题无关的句子或书写极其潦草，无法辨认，得 0 分； 2、仅抄写所给提示词，根据书写是否工整规范，得 1-2 分； 3、除提示词外又写了部分与本话题有关的单词、短语或个别句子，根据书写是否工整规范，得 3-5 分。）
注：在符合本题写作要求的前提下，考生可以适当发挥；如果观点新颖、见解独到，可适当提高分数。
