内蒙古大学满洲里学院附属中学2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试英语试题（含答案，无听力音频无听力原文）

内蒙古大学满洲里学院附属中学2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试
英语
注意事项：
1、本卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟，答题前，先将自己的姓名，班级，考号填写在试题卷或答题卡上的指定位置。
2、选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3、填空题和解答题的作答：用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
第一部分　听力 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where are the speakers
A. In a TV studio. B. In a travel agency. C. In a hotel.
2. What does the man think of the woman’s dress
A. Cheap. B. Beautiful. C. Unique.
3. Which subject did Tom do best in
A. Chinese. B. Math. C. English.
4. What does the man suggest the woman do
A. Read the school magazine. B. Help him with an article. C. Join the school band.
5. When does the woman usually do the cleaning
A. On Saturday mornings. B. On Saturday evenings. C. On Sundays.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What is the woman doing
A. Complaining about the delay.
B. Doing a survey on airports.
C. Asking for information.
7. Which of the following places opens at 10:00
A. The restaurant.
B. The duty-free shop.
C. The currency exchange office.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What is playing on the radio station now
A. Commercials. B. A talk show. C. A music program.
9. What do we know about the man
A. He hates to spend much time on news.
B. He prefers detailed news stories.
C. He often listens to news broadcasts.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Family life. B. A weekend plan. C. Their new hobbies.
11. What do the children like to do now
A. Play with their friends.
B. Stay at home with parents.
C. Spend more time on movies.
12. Where does the woman suggest having fun next weekend
A. In the park. B. In the cinema. C. At her home.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. What is greatly valued in the company
A. Employees’ qualities.
B. Employees’ appearances.
C. Employees’ physical conditions.
14. What does the man need to do before work
A. Study the policies and practices.
B. Listen to customers’ concerns.
C. Have a medical examination.
15. What is unnecessary for the man
A. Buying an insurance. B. Being on time for work. C. Working on weekends.
16. What will the man do
A. Go on his questions.
B. Expect the woman’s reply.
C. Write down personal information.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. When will It’s My Opinion be broadcast
A. At 8:30. B. At 10:30. C. At 11:30.
18. What songs will be broadcast on Radio 3
A. American songs. B. Brazilian songs. C. Italian songs.
19. What’s the program about on Radio 2
A. Music. B. Sports. C. News.
20. Where can the audience enjoy the London Pop Spectacular
A. On Radio 4. B. On Radio 3. C. On Radio 1.
第二部分　阅读　(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.0分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Top Festivals In Europe
Carnival of Venice
Dates: 12 Feb, 2023—1 Mar, 2023
The Carnival of Venice, which began in 1979 as an effort to revive the culture of this city, is one of the best festivals featuring masks. Each year, almost 3,000,000 people attend this 20-day-long biggest festivals in Europe. There is a water parade, a grand ball with old and modem music, and a popularity contest for best mask design.
Glastonbury Festival
Dates: 22 Jun, 2023—26 Jun, 2023
Of all the famous European music festivals, the Glastonbury Festival has a special place. Held in Somerset, England, since the 1970s, the festival is a major part of the British culture. Major pop act performers are invited to perform and headline. The festival sees as much as 175,000 people in attendance and is the world’s largest greenfield festival.
Tomorrowland
Dates: 22—24Jul, 2023 & 29—31Jul, 2023
For the music lovers, Tomorrowland is one of the largest electronic music festivals which takes place in Belgium. The festival is hosted at the town of Boom, Belgium. First organized in 2005, this festival has become an annual tradition which is visited by people from far and wide.
Sziget Festival
Dates: 10—15 Aug, 2023
The Sziget Festival is one of the best cultural festivals in Europe. Started in 1993 and hosted in an island of Budapest, this festival gives an amazing holiday, with around 400,000 fans from around 70 countries. The festival features the non-stop party and amazing live concerts.
21. What can people do in the Carnival of Venice
A. Swim in the river. B. Design different masks.
C. Attend music contests. D. Watch pop performances.
22. Which of the festivals has the shortest history
A. Tomorrowland. B. Sziget Festival.
C. Carnival of Venice. D. Glastonbury Festival.
23. What do the four festivals have in common
A. They each have a parade. B. They take place in summer.
C. They are British festivals. D. They are related to music.
B
An embroidered (刺绣的) butterfly made by Liang Zhongmei is so lifelike that it could easily be mistaken for the real thing. It looks as if it could flap its colorful wings and fly free from its white cloth background.
This 55-year-old embroiderer from Guizhou Province was born in a closed and underdeveloped village deep in the mountains, where most residents live by farming or as migrant workers (农民工). Losing her left arm at a very young age meant she could not feed herself, but she refused to become downhearted, and learned embroidery from her mother diligently and determinedly.
After producing several works featuring butterflies and goldfish, she won many national professional skills awards in 2011 among people with disabilities. In 2012, she opened her workshop, with embroiderers putting their designs on the shelves to sell to locals, but business was poor.
However, Liang’s career prospered after an online commercial order. Now, clothes, ties, paintings and handicrafts produced by the workshop are sold to consumers worldwide via e-commerce platforms, with profit reaching from 300,000 yuan to 500,000 yuan annually.
As the number of orders rose, Liang employed more workers, offering jobs to more than 100 female embroiderers in the neighborhood. She has also organized training courses for jobless women. “Thanks to the online buyers, our products sell well, which has changed our lives and brought us income and dignity,” Liang said.
Wang Danqing, an online seller, has worked with Liang’s team since 2015. She said, “Many young consumers prefer products with cultural elements and personal appeal. Only by combining embroidered designs with modern
life can cultural heritage be seen , loved , protected and passed down.”
24. What do we know about Liang Zhongmei
A. She was brought up in a well-off environment.
B. She made a fortune when her business began.
C. She became world-famous after winning awards.
D. She was strong-willed while learning embroidery.
25. Which of the following can replace the underlined word in paragraph 4
A. Went wrong. B. Took off.
C. Held steady. D. Broke down.
26. What can we learn from Wang Danqing’s words
A. New designs need to be integrated into the products.
B. Expanding the range of product sales online is crucial.
C. It is Liang’s duty to pass on the embroidered technique.
D. Products with personal elements are favored by the youth.
27. What is the main idea of the text
A. Online shopping gains popularity in China.
B. Young people take a great interest in embroidery.
C. Disabled Liang achieved success by trading embroidery online.
D. Liang became an expert in embroidery despite her disability.
C
Harvesting fruit is a very precise operation. The fruit must be picked when it is perfectly ripe. But with pickers in short supply in recent years, growers needed to quickly find another way to harvest their crops. Tevel Aerobotics Technologies came to the farmers’ rescue with the Flying Autonomous Robots (FARs) that can help pick fruit.
“Not finding enough fruit pickers is every farmer’s biggest concern,” Yaniv Maor, Tevel’s founder and CEO said. Ask any farmer, anywhere in the world and they’ll tell you they don’t have the people. Food consumption is increasing, but labor availability (劳动力可用性) is decreasing. If pickers are not available, fruit will go bad on the trees. The flying robots will work day and night in almost any weather, without taking a break, to pick as much ripe fruit as possible.
Maor set up Tevel in 2017 and developed the technology after seeing young Israelis pick fruit and get tired after a few hours. He realized that there had to be a better way, so he began developing the software and artificial intelligence (AI) that are needed for the smart robot pickers. “We have to teach the robots about the structure of each fruit, how to access the fruit and how to rotate (转动) it and disconnect it from the tree,” Maor said.
The flying robots circle round trees and pick only the ripe ones with a twist (扭动) of their integrated grasper arms. The robots are fitted with cameras that use AI to assess the size and color of the fruit so that only the ripe ones are picked. The cameras also ensure that the robots’ paths are not blocked.
The robots are currently picking Asian pears in Israel. In 2022, the FARs were used in pilot programs in Italy to pick peaches and other fruits, as well as in the US. They are not a replacement for labor, instead, they are a solution for the inadequate human pickers. In the future fewer people will work in picking and more will work in managing the robots, analyzing the data and making decisions.
28. Why are the FARs developed
A. To meet the shortage of pickers to pick fruit.
B. To improve the software and AI for smart robots.
C. To help farmers keep the fruit in perfect condition.
D. To relieve farmers from the tiredness of picking fruit.
29. What can we infer from paragraphs 2 and 3
A. Maor developed the FARs out of curiosity.
B. The FARs can produce more fruit for food consumption.
C. Labor shortage is an urgent problem in every country.
D. The FARs can work without stop in almost any weather.
30. What does paragraph 4 mainly talk about
A. How the robots work. B. What the robots consist of.
C. Why the robots are useful. D. Where the robots are used.
31. What is the author’s attitude towards the FARs
A. Doubtful. B. Positive. C. Worried. D. Unclear.
D
There’s no doubt that football is the global sport. Though basketball, tennis, and other sports are popular too, nothing comes close to football. Being played in every country in the world, football provides dozens of superstars. The numbers are greater when compared to any other sport, and this drives the popularity of football up. Have you ever wondered when the sport started and became popular
Football has its origin (起源) in China and has a history of more than 2,000 years. However, modern football originally appeared in Britain in the 19th century. Folk football matches had been played before in many cities and towns, but never on a professional level.
Football became a winter sport game played in different schools. The rules were carried out by each school, and this made it difficult for players to play an official game with each other. It all changed in 1849 at the University of Cambridge that invented a set of standard rules known as the Cambridge rules of football. From that moment, a new star sport was born.
By the early 20th century, football had spread all across Europe. In 1904, FIFA was set up. There are seven original members, including France, Denmark and Spain, FIFA became the governing body for many associations in Europe.
England’s international success improved the popularity of the sport in the country. The league (联赛) in Britain was set up in 1992. From the 1990s, it became a truly impressive piece of football organization, becoming the world’s top football league in the process.
Football is obviously the most popular sport in the world. It is impossible for any other sport to take its place, especially with leagues spending billions of pounds every year to stay in the focus.
32. What is the author’s purpose of writing paragraph 1
A. To describe the level of football.
B. To introduce the topic of the text.
C. To debate the main idea of the text.
D. To introduce famous football leagues.
33. Where did modern football first start
A. In China. B. In France.
C. In Britain. D. In Spain.
34. Why was it difficult to play an official game before 1849
A. The rules always changed.
B. There were no common rules.
C. The season made players hard to win.
D. Officials made players misunderstand the rules.
35. How is the text mainly developed
A. By time order. B. By space order.
C. By listing numbers. D. By giving examples.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.0分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
After entering high school, you must wonder how to study well. Here are some good skills for you.
Go to class
If you want to do well at school, going to class is the first step in studying well. If you miss classes, you will miss what the teacher thinks is important; as a result, you’ll miss what is the most likely to end up on the test. ____36____
Take good notes
Try not to write down everything. ____37____ Write down unfamiliar terms (术语). After class, review your notes as soon as possible. You can fill in details that you missed and review the material while it is still fresh on your mind.
____38____
If you are struggling in class, talk to your teacher. He or she may be able to give you more help before or after class. Most teachers have little sympathy (同情) for students who just become worried about failing during the last few weeks of the grading period.
Take part in class discussions
In order to learn more in class, it is helpful to take part in class discussions. Asking questions and having eye contact with your teachers and classmates can increase your focus during the class discussion. ____39____ This helps you make your point clear in class.
Form study groups
____40____ Make sure that everyone is familiar with the material because you do not want to spend time re-teaching material to people who do not understand it. Be careful! Sometimes group sessions (上课时间) can become chatting sessions.
A. Talk to your teacher if you need help.
B. Don’t be late for your class.
C. Get students together who want to do well in class.
D. All you need is to put down the main points in your own words.
E. If the material is difficult, you’d better read it before class.
F. You should write down all the new terms.
G. So if you want to study well, go to every class.
第三部分　语言运用　(共两节，满分30分)
第一节：完形填空(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A sudden illness took away most of Rebecca’s hearing when she was only six years old. Afterwards, she says her ____41____ went too. Unable to ____42____, she struggled to communicate with the great help of her family and friends. Rebecca felt lonely, but she did not ____43____ herself. She says her biggest concern was ____44____ to live like a normal person. She taught herself to read lips, and learned to speak confidently without being able to hear herself. ____45____, she found the right place to flourish (茁壮成长).
Today, working at the Qetan Sewing Center, Rebecca rediscovered something she greatly ____46____: a sense of belonging. “The center has a really ____47____ impact on me in terms of being able to meet people. The environment is ____48____, which helps you move forward,” says Rebecca.
Better still, Rebecca has also found a professional outlet. “I’ve always been ____49____ the arts. Drawing and logo design are major parts of our work. I _____50_____ this very much,” she says.
Rebecca says her _____51_____ of self-discovery is not yet over. Every day, she is seeking to _____52_____ herself. “Open your mind to the _____53_____. Take notice of the _____54_____ that you must take to achieve your goals. Keep an eye on your future.”
The way that Rebecca lives her life demonstrates this idea that you can _____55_____ your goals as long as you stay focused.
41. A. pressure B. happiness C. pains D. sadness
42. A. walk B. see C. speak D. listen
43. A. pity B. change C. blame D. fool
44. A. whether B. why C. how D. where
45. A. Finally B. Immediately C. Actually D. Certainly
46. A. greeted B. missed C. considered D. gathered
47. A. positive B. similar C. limited D. stressful
48. A. different B. supportive C. clean D. safe
49. A. satisfied with B. responsible for C. interested in D. fed up
40. A. hate B. defeat C. understand D. like
51. A. feature B. leisure C. journey D. business
52. A. improve B. express C. quit D. remember
53. A. truth B. choices C. program D. possibilities
54. A. conditions B. opinions C. actions D. advantages
55. A. forget B. achieve C. remove D. update
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A book club can be an enriching, satisfying way 56 (develop) new friendships and an appreciation for reading. Or it can be a big, fat failure. The direction it takes really depends on how it 57 (plan) and managed.
Right out of the gate, talk with potential members about what they want from a book club. If their interest is purely social, think about forming a group to do social 58 (activity) together, instead.
Davina Morgan-Witts, a book club expert at BookBrowse, conducted 59 survey in 2019 of thousands of book club members. In that survey, BookBrowse found that the longer a group spends talking about a book, the 60 (happy) they are in the club. In fact, 81 percent of those in book clubs that 61 (general) discussed a book for 75 minutes or longer marked 62 (they) as “very happy”, compared to just 55 percent in groups that discussed for 20 minutes or less!
“It’s not that they say social time is unimportant but it’s secondary,” Morgan-Witts explains. “It’s because of the open discussion and the sharing of opinions 63 the friendship forms.” If you want to discuss books without all of the small talk, she suggests 64 (turn) to a public library group. Those groups tend to be much more focused 65 book discussion, rather than the social element, she says.
第四部分 写作　(共一节，满分20分)
杭州2022年亚运会(The 19th Asian Games Hangzhou 2022)将于2023年9月23日至10月8日举行。假如你是李华，你想成为杭州亚运会的志愿者。请根据以下内容提示，用英语给组委员写一篇申请信。
内容提示:
1.个人信息;
2.你自身的优势;
3.期望给予考虑和回信
要求:
1.短文须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥;
2.语言表达准确，语义连贯、通顺;
3.词数100左右(开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数)。
Dear Sir/Madam,
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely ,
Li Hua
内蒙古大学满洲里学院附属中学2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试
英语答案
第一部分：听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，共30分）
1—5 CBBCA 6—10 CBBAA 11—15 ACACC 16—20 BACBC
第二部分：阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
21-25：BADDB 26-30:DCADA 31-35:BBCBA 36-40：GDAEC
第三部分：语言知识：
完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
41-45；BDACA 46-50: BABCD 51-55：CADCB
（二）语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
56：to develop 57：is planned 58：activities 59：a 60：happier
61：generally 62：themselves 63：that 64：turning 65：on
第四部分：书面表达（20分）
【参考范文】
Dear Sir/Madam,
I’m extremely delighted to hear that some volunteers are wanted in the 19th Asian Games Hangzhou 2022. I want to be a member of the volunteers , so I’m writing to apply for it .
First of all, Let me introduce myself. I'm a girl named Li Hua, a middle school student in Hangzhou. I was born in February, 2009. I think I can do a good job .This is because I've been learning English for many years.So I can express myself in English clearly. Besides, I love sports and I also do well in sports. I prefer this kind of job and experience.Finally,I'm outgoing and good at communicating with people.
I'm sure I am the right person you are looking for.I would appreciate it if I can be taken into consideration.I'm looking forward to your early reply!
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua