齐齐哈尔八校2022-2023学年高一下学期期末联考
英语试题
(考试时间:120分钟 满分150分)
注意事项:
1、本试题卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2、答题前,考生在答题卡上务必使用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚,并贴好条形码。请认真核准条形码上的准考证号、姓名和科目。
3、每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号,在试题卷上作答无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man give the woman
A. Money. B. Clothes. C. Books.
2. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Co-workers. C. Neighbors.
3. What are the speakers going to do next
A. Finish the project. B. Have a rest. C. Go to sleep.
4. Where is the American history class held probably
A. In Room 302. B. In Room 202. C. In the main hall.
5. What does the woman like about the new computers
A. They have faster Internet connections.
B. Students can watch videos on them.
C. The online resources are free now.
第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At an airport. B. At home. C. At an office.
7. What does the woman think of her trip
A. Enjoyable. B. Unexpected. C. Stressful.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. Why does the man talk to the woman
A. To measure his blood pressure.
B. To ask about his sleep problem.
C. To take tests for his heart disease.
9. What is the woman’s solution to the man’s problem
A. Drinking more water.
B. Reducing stress.
C. Trying a new medicine.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. How did the woman probably get to the man’s house
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By train.
11. What did the woman do yesterday
A. She went gift shopping.
B. She decorated her house.
C. She attended a party.
12. Where does the woman go to college
A. In Hangzhou. B. In Houston. C. In Shanghai.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What is the conversation mainly about
A. Family photos. B. Favorite bands. C. A music festival trip.
14. Who found Kyle
A. A cleaning lady. B. A food truck owner. C. A guard.
15. What color hat was Kyle wearing
A. Red. B. Yellow. C. Blue.
16. What advice did the guard give the woman
A. Holding her kids’ hands at all times.
B. Dressing her kids in brighter clothes.
C. Taking a photo of her kids in advance.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Why did the speaker go into the river
A. To get a piece of wood.
B. To catch a fish.
C. To swim.
18. What did Danny do when the speaker fell into the river
A. He jumped into the river.
B. He was too scared to move.
C. He ran to look for their father.
19. How old was Danny
A. Six years old. B. Eight years old. C. Ten years old.
20. Who finally saved the speaker
A. His father. B. A stranger. C. His brother.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Assistant Dog Minder needed for small Doggie Day Care
We look after dogs in West London - Hounslow. An assistant dog minder is needed at our Day Care Centre to play games, train and entertain dogs actively and lively all the time. Please bear in mind this is a physically demanding job. The right person will have the opportunity to get a dog first aid and dog training courses. This position starts with a 1 month trial period and possibly it will be a permanent position.
Requirements:
-Be over 18 and speak fluent English;
-Be 100% reliable and punctual
-Really LOVE dogs;
-Be Not allergic to animals;
-Be comfortable outdoors under any weather condition, especially when raining/windy;
-Be comfortable with cleaning up after dogs;
-Be a keen phone photographer and enjoy keeping clients up to date about the well-being of their pet(s)
-Be available at least 2 fixed days per week;
Opening Time: 11:00- 15:00 (You will work as a self-employed basis.)
Part-time hours: Up to 20 per week according to flexible schedule
Job Types: Part-time
Salary: 10~ 25/hour (Being paid weekly)
Benefits;
●On-site parking
●Training provided
●Dog First Aid Course paid for
Please send your CV and write a cover letter with a few sentences about your experience with dogs and also a bit about yourself. Please confirm that you are non-smokers; without this, your application is not considered.
21. What do we know about the assistant dog minder’s job
A. It provides flexible working hours. B. It’s mentally challenging.
C. It has a three-month trial period. D. Its payment is made every month.
22. What is required when you apply to be an assistant dog minder
A. Having a comfortable pet house.
B. Completing given training sessions.
C. Enjoying the outdoors in any weather.
D. Acquiring excellent photography skills.
23. If a dog minder works 20 hours this week, how much can he earn at most
A. 200 B. 300 C. 400 D. 500
B
It was bad enough when COVID- 19 closed schools in Philadelphia, US, in March. Like a lot of students, Makyla Linder, 16, found herself getting bored. So she started watching baking videos and shows on TV and online. Soon, she started baking on her own.
Cupcakes and chocolate-covered strawberries were her first creations.
“I tried them on my friends when they came to my house,” Linder sad. “I also tried them on my family. They said my creations were good.”
For most children, that would have been enough. But Linder had bigger ideas. She asked her mom what if she started selling her baked goods
With the help of her mother, Linder got more baking supplies and equipment. She started taking orders online. More people started hearing about her business. Linder also started giving out business cards to make her company more well-know.
She also improved her baking as time went on. She researched new recipes (食谱) and learned good baking skills. She now sells chocolate-covered cookies, chocolate apples and banana pudding. She has some customers who have returned to her several times. They say her prices are good. She charges $15 for a dozen cupcakes or cake pops.
When school reopened in September, Linder had to focus more on her studies. “I wanted to do both, but I understand that school is much more important right now,” she said. However, she still watches cooking shows to get new ideas for her business.
24. What special thing did Linder do after COVID- 19 broke out
A. She started a baking business. B. She made her own cooking show.
C. She invited friends over for parties. D. She gave online baking lessons.
25. What do people think about Linder’s creations
A. They are creative. B. They are delicious.
C. They are well-known. D. They are not big enough.
26. What opinion do her returning customers have
A. Linder is good at making money. B. Linder spends a lot of money.
C. Linder’s baked goods aren’t expensive. D. Linder’s baked goods are too cheap
27. What do we know from the story
A. Linder didn’t return to school this year. B. Linder is proud of her studies.
C. Linder will open a new bakery soon. D. Linder will keep studying baking.
C
Some people look forward to getting braces (牙箍) on their teeth, thinking they look cool. Other people avoid visiting the orthodontist (正齿医生). But anyone who benefits from the orthodontist’s trade today should be thankful for the progress this science has made over the centuries.
Remains of crooked (弯曲的) human teeth date back tens of thousands of years. Greek and Roman texts describing the treatment of irregular teeth by the application of pressure date back as far as the fifth century B. C. Archaeological evidence indicates even earlier use of orthodontic appliances, including man-made objects found in considerable burial (埋葬的) sites in ancient Italy. Another early attempt at braces may have been discovered on Egyptian mummies with recognizable metal bands around their teeth. Thus, from at least 1,000 BC, it was known that teeth move in response to pressure.
Techniques for correcting dental (牙齿的) irregularities did not advance much until the eighteenth century. French dentists led the way to building orthodontic practice on scientific foundations. The greatest contribution came from Pierre Fauchard. In 1728, Fauchard published the first general study of dentistry. In it, he described the process of straightening. He made smooth (光滑的) a crooked tooth to create space around it. Then he repositioned the tooth using a tool called a “pelican”. And he bound it to its neighbors and let it set. French and English dentists improved on Fauchard’s work through the eighteenth century. Patients of Fauchard’s treatment may have been grateful when the work was completed. While many of them faced the treatment with fear and cried during the procedures, there were many Frenchmen who flooded to Fauchard to improve their looks with dental work.
Pioneering European orthodontists introduced new techniques and instruments in the nineteenth century. By midcentury, American dentists began to take the lead in research and invention. Electricity changed the operating room completely, and the proper medicine made surgery less painful. John Farrar developed guidelines for using tools to move teeth by applying force on a regular basis.
The twentieth century saw improvement in the materials and methods of orthodontics. But the basic principles of the science were developed during the days of Fauchard.
28. What’s the public’s attitude toward Fauchard’s treatment
A. Objective. B. Fearful. C. Unconcerned. D. Positive
29. What was Americans’ contribution to orthodontics
A. Americans relieved the pain from the treatment.
B. Americans repositioned the tooth using a “pelican”.
C. Americans introduced new techniques and instruments.
D. Americans published the first general study of dentistry.
30. What can be the suitable title for the text
A. Straight History of Orthodontics
B. Advanced Techniques in Orthodontics
C. Thanks for the Progress in Orthodontics
D. Establishment of Professional Orthodontics
31. Where can the passage be found
A. In an interview report. B. In a private diary.
C. In a medical journal. D. In a graduation essay.
D
People often plan to receive medical exams but don’t, resulting in increasing health care costs. A surprising number of citizens mean to complete tax forms in time but forget to, forcing them to pay unnecessary fines. Many families miss the government deadline to complete financial aid forms, losing out on aid available for child care.
How can policy makers help people follow through on important tasks They use the carrot and stick approach (威逼利诱): bonuses, late fees, or regulations. These methods can be clumsy, and often aren’t effective for the situation at hand. Reminding people to form simple plans, however, provides a low-cost, simple, and powerful tool.
Evidence is growing that providing tips, which push people at key times to think through how and when they will follow through, makes people more likely to act on tasks of importance. In one early randomized study on tetanus vaccination rates (破伤风疫苗接种率), for example, a team of social psychologists showed that 28% of Oxford University seniors got the shot after being encouraged to review their weekly schedules and to select a possible time to stop by the health center. They were also given a list of times when shots were available and a map showing the health center’s location. Only 3% of the seniors got the shot when simply informed about how effective the shots were.
People who make a plan gain an advantage from their psychological forces. Specifically, they can overcome the tendency to put off a task as well as the tendency to be overly optimistic about the time it will take to accomplish a task. Imagine Sarah who wants to renew her car insurance, but it will require two hours of travel to and from a garage. Making a plan may lead her to take two hours off and have her responsibilities covered by her colleagues while she is away. Moreover, she will be less likely to underestimate the time needed to accomplish the task-a particularly common problem for complex tasks.
People mistakenly believe that their strong intentions are enough to push them to perform desired behaviors. These psychological research results stress the need for policy decisions that encourage plan making and improve social welfare.
32. What phenomenon is described in paragraph 1
A. Heavy burdens of daily chores.
B. Lack of task management skills.
C. Disappointment of over-ambitions.
D. Failure to achieve original intentions.
33. What does the randomized tetanus vaccination study show
A. People need to think deeply before they act.
B. Specific reminders help people accomplish plans.
C. Awareness of task significance matters in planning.
D. Seniors need encouragement to have vaccination shots.
34. What psychological benefit can people get from making a plan
A. They are realistic about the time required.
B. They are optimistic about the outcome.
C. They are confident in overcoming hardship.
D. They are careful with task arrangements.
35. Who may be the intended readers of this text
A. Medical staff. B. Government officials.
C. Ordinary people. D. Social psychologists.
第二节:(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。
Strategies for Getting Kids off Screens
It’s time to keep kids off the screens! Parents should use the winter vacation to remind their children of what it’s like to play freely, offline for hours on end. 36 . Here are some practical strategies for giving kids a screen-free winter.
Set clear screen time limits
Establish how many minutes or hours you’re OK with them each week, and make it something that can never be changed. For example, you could say they’re allowed to watch for an hour on Sunday morning, or for 15 minutes in the evening while dinner is being made, or none at all for the rest of the winter—and then stick to it. 37
Get kids cooking
Involve them in meal preparation by assigning recipes that you’d like them to make each day 38 . And you’ll have many tasty dishes at the end of it.
39
There are numerous half- and full-day camp options and lessons that can occupy a child’s time, such as swimming, art classes, tennis, dinosaur camp and sports camp. Look around your community for activities that can get them out of the house for a few hours each day.
Establish a reading routine (习惯)
40 . Take your kid along to choose what she or he wants to read, and that will help keep them enthusiastic. Back home and see if you can set up a comfortable reading corner where they will be willing to read and let reading become a good habit gradually.
A. Sign up for lessons
B. Assign household work
C. That helps stop arguments of screen time
D. Of course, this is easier said than done
E. Master some basic tricks, using a homemade tool
F. They’ll develop new skills at cutting, cooking and baking
G. Go to the library once a week to store up fresh reading material
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In language learning, it is not easy to find a balance between accuracy and fluency. When I was in my early 20’s, I 41 a job teaching English in Japan. Although I had never studied Japanese or lived in Japan, I did have 42 earning other languages and living in other countries.
When I arrived in Kyoto, I 43 two other English-teaching colleagues—also new to Japan. We soon realized that we needed to take language classes, so as summer break approached, we 44 intensive Japanese classes. It was very interesting to watch our different 45 to learning and using our new language.
One weekend, we decided to take a day trip to Ryoanji, a famous rock garden, but from the train station we had to ask directions to the garden.
One friend was very 46 about speaking correctly. She would spend several minutes quietly 47 to herself, checking her dictionary, and planning how to ask the question. Five minutes passed before she would even open her 48 !
Another friend was very outgoing and rather 49 to language structures. She 50 the first person she could find and asked him for directions. The 51 was that he had difficulty understanding what she was saying. When he finally understood, he 52 the directions, but then she didn’t understand everything he said, so she asked again and again for him to repeat the directions. Several minutes passed and she was still not clear on the directions and he was trying to find a way to 53 !
My approach was different. I considered what I was going to say, and then asked the nearest person for directions. 54 my Japanese was only good enough to grab a little information. But I followed the directions I heard and I simply asked a new person for the next set of 55 . And so I continued until I finally made it to Ryoanji!
41. A. accepted B. lost C. refused D. posted
42. A. knowledge B. experience C. difficulty D. intention
43. A. greeted B. recognized C. remembered D. joined
44. A. took B. participated C. attached D. obtained
45. A. contributions B. attention C. keys D. approaches
46. A. particular B. nervous C. careless D. curious
47. A. reading B. listening C. talking D. thinking
48. A. mouth B. eyes C. books D. minds
49. A. new B. indifferent C. used D. sensitive
50. A. met B. invited C. grabbed D. touched
51. A. joke B. story C. problem D. mistake
52. A. led B. offered C. drew D. listed
53. A. escape B. understand C. help D. hide
54. A. Naturally B. Suddenly C. Unfortunately D. Occasionally
55. A. questions B. answers C. directions D. places
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题卡的相应位置。
A Young Designer’s Way to Fashion Success
Chinese designer Zhang Yan, 56 work has just hit New York’s and Chinese catwalks (T台), is slowly breaking the old idea about men in embroidery (刺绣) and fashion. Zhang has surprised the world with his unique embroidered Qipaos.
However, for the 26-year-old young man, his success is not easy. Holding the tiny needle properly in his big hand wasn’t 57 easy job for Zhang in the early days. What’s more, his parents were 58 (strong) against him, thinking that embroidery was women’s work and it had no future, 59 Zhang did not give up. He believes handwork has nothing to do with gender (性别) especially when it comes to 60 (dream).
Years of his hard work has paid off so far. His designs quickly 61 (draw) attention and even earned him an 62 (invite) to the 2019 New York Fashion Week. Western audiences at the show were amazed 63 the charm of the embroidered Qipao, saying it showed a kind of Eastern power.
64 (feel) that his success has brought him a sense of national pride, Zhang hopes his experience can also help inspire teenagers 65 (follow) their dreams. “There are many ways to achieve success. As long as you keep going, you can make your dreams come true,” he says.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 书面表达(满分15分)
假定你是李华,你从互联网上得知一个中学生组织将在上海举办“体验生活”活动。请写一封电子邮件申请参加。
主要内容包括:
1.自我介绍(社会实践能力);
2.参加意图(体验生活、迎接挑战);
3.希望获准。
注意:1.词数80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3.邮件开头和结尾已为你写好。
参考词汇:体验生活Experience Life
Dear Sir or Madam,
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours faithfully,
Li Hua
第二节:读后续写(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文
I was still living in Peru when the earthquake happened. I had had a fight with my parents till midnight the day before because I thought they didn’t understand me. Therefore, I was still sleeping in the afternoon. Suddenly. I was woken up by my dog barking at the shaking window next to me. Small quick earthquakes are very common in Peru, especially in the coastal regions, so I ignored it and tried to calm my dog so I could fall asleep again. I had just walked 4 steps from the sofa to get her when the whole wall-length window broke in front of me, huge sharp pieces of broken glass falling right into the sofa I had been lying just seconds before.
Fully woken up, I could hear what sounded like a million car alarms ringing from the ground. My parents were still at work, and I was alone in a 10-floor flat with a panicking dog running circles around me, so I forced myself to get it together. I lifted my giant dog in my arms and ran into the emergency stairs. I just ran and ran until could see some street lights since the building had no emergency lights and everything was dark. When I finally rushed through the door of the hall, I could see the road below me breaking and trees shaking from their roots up.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡得相应位置作答。
Para. 1 I stayed in the streets for about an hour until my parents arrived.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Para. 2 After the earthquake, I had a heart-to-heart talk with my parents.
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