2022-2023学年度第二学期期中教学质量检测
初二英语试题
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共10页，满分90分；考试时间100分钟。
2. 答题前，务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置上。
3. 选择题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
4. 非选择题部分用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡指定区域内的相应位置；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带等。
5. 写在试卷上和答题卡指定区域外的答案无效。
第一部分 阅读理解 （共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1分）
阅读下列短文，从短文后每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to School Dance Club Are you tired of sitting too long Do you want to be healthier Join the School Dance Club and move your body! Choice of dances: folk, modern, pop, etc. Level of difficulty: Level 1, Level 2 and Level 3 Teachers: Helen White -13 years of teaching experience -Graduated from International Master Dance school John Smith -First prize winner of “Dancers on Stage” for 4 years starting from 2016 Ken Power -Skilled in different kinds of dance especially in “fusion(融合)”dance Who to join: Aged 12~15 If you would like to be one of us, please kindly fill in the form and send it to Maria Cooper's office before 18th March
1. The Dance Club best suits those who want to ________.
A. be healthier B. be quiet
C. sing folk songs D. learn pop music
2. How many levels of difficulty does the Dance Club offer
A.1. B.2.
C. 3 D.4.
3. Who graduated from International Master Dance School
A. Helen White B. John Smith
C. Ken Power D. Maria cooper
4. If you want to learn “fusion” dance, you can choose_____.
A. Helen White B. John Smith
C. Ken Power D. Maria Cooper
5. Who can join the Dance Club
A. Teachers with rich experience. B. Teachers good at dancing.
C. Students aged 10. D. Students aged 13.
B
In most countries, people usually eat traditional food on special holidays. A special day in North America is Thanksgiving. In the United States, this festival is always on the fourth Thursday in November, but in Canada it falls on the second Monday in October. Thanksgiving is a time to give thanks for food in the autumn and other good things people enjoy in life. Families see Thanksgiving as a time to get together and usually celebrate it with a big family meal, Food such as gravy, cornbread, mashed potatoes, and pumpkin or apple pie are the most popular and will usually be served at the meal. However, the main dish of this meal is almost always turkey, a large bird.
Making a turkey dinner
Here is one way to make turkey for a Thanksgiving dinner.
First, mix together some bread pieces, onions, salt and pepper.
Next, fill the turkey with this bread mix.
Then, put the turkey in a hot oven and cook it for a few hours.
When it is ready, place the turkey on a large plate and cover it with gravy.
Finally cut the turkey into thin pieces and eat the meat with vegetables like carrots and potatoes.
6. When do people celebrate Thanksgiving in the United States
A. On the second Thursday in October.
B. On the fourth Monday in November.
C. On the second Monday in October.
D. On the fourth Thursday in November.
7.Why is Thanksgiving important
A. Because it is a time for families to get together.
B. Because there is a big family meal on that festival.
C. Because it is a time to give thanks for life and food.
D. Because people can eat traditional food on special holidays.
8. What is the main dish of the Thanksgiving meal
A. Mashed potatoes B. Pumpkin pie.
C. Cornbread D. Turkey.
9. Which is the correct order of making a turkey
a. Serve it to your friends with some vegetables.
b. Put this into the bird.
c. Cook it at a very high temperature for a long time.
d. Put everything you need together in a large bowl,
A. b-c-d-a B. d-c-b-a C. d-b-c-a D. c-d-b-a
10. What can you learn from the passage
A. Thanksgiving Day is always on the fourths Thursday in November.
B. Most Americans celebrate Thanksgiving by having a big meal at home with their family.
C. Thanksgiving is a time to go outside with your family.
D. Only turkey will be served at the meal on Thanksgiving Day.
C
As we know, children around the world have all kinds of ways to go to school. Mostly, they go to school by bus, by bike or by subway. However, in some places, children have to climb mountains or cross rivers to reach their schools. Let's have a look!
In Ladakh, India, children have to take a road covered in ice to go to school. The road is 100 km long and it usually takes children about four days. They and their parents have to go on this journey twice a year to reach their boarding school(寄宿学校)
In Tunkhel, Mongolia, children have to travel 10 km of icy roads to reach school. To get there faster, they have to ride a horse. On the snowy roads, they always have to be careful while riding. Also, they have to watch out for wild dogs on the way. Their school doesn't have enough rooms for classes, so children have classes in turn, younger ones in the morning and older ones in the afternoon.
The three sisters Julia, Yulissa and Kenya live in a village of Nicaragua. It often rains there. Every morning, they climb into their boat to row(划船) to school. They have to watch out for snakes hiding in the trees over the river. They also have to make sure that the boat does not fill up with water - because it has many holes and could sink(沉没)at any time.
Although in these places, it's dangerous and difficult for children to go to school, they don't give up. For them, it's the only way to have a better future.
11. What do we know about the way of going to school in Ladakh
A. It's about 10 kilometers.
B. Children can go to school by themselves.
C. Children need to go on the hard road every day.
D. It takes children about half a week to go to school.
12. How do students in Tunkhel, Mongolia go to school
A. They walk to school.
B. They ride a horse to school.
C. They take a boat to school.
D. They take the bus to school.
13. Why do the students in Tunkhel Mongolia need to have class in turn
A. The weather is so hot.
B. There are not enough teachers.
C. There are not enough rooms.
D. They like to have class in this way.
14. Which of the following makes the three sisters ' journey difficult
a. the wild animals b. too many trees
c. the hot weather d. the broken boat
A. ab B.ad C. bc D.cd
15. The last paragraph tells us children in these places_____.
A. need more help
B. aren't afraid of any difficulty
C. have nothing to do but studying
D. want to change their life by studying
D
One day, you open the fridge and find some moldy(发霉的)food. But before you can throw it away, your mother stops you. She doesn't want to waste food. She cuts off the moldy part and eats the rest. Is it safe to do this
Mold (霉菌) can grow on almost all kinds of food. Mold is usually green, white, black or grey. Mold makes food soft and changes its color. Moldy food tastes quite bad - and it's not safe to eat.
If you find mold in soft food, just throw it away. Soft food, such as bread, tomatoes or hot dogs, usually contains（包含） water. This allows mold to easily grow below its surface（表面）. Bacteria(细菌)can also grow along with it.
But it's easy to remove mold from hard food. The mold can't grow very deeply inside this kind of food. According to the BBC, you should cut about 2.5 cm around and below the mold to remove it. It's OK to cut the moldy parts out of hard food and eat the rest. But if the food is completely covered with mold, you should still throw it away.
Most kinds of mold are bad for us. But some kinds of mold can be used to make food. For example, penicillium (青霉菌) can be used to make many types of cheeses, such as blue cheese. These cheeses are safe to eat - and they're quite delicious as well.
16. If you find mold on a tomato, ____________.
A. it is safe to eat it
B. you should throw it away
C. you can cut off the moldy part and eat the rest
D. you can boil it in hot water first and then eat it
17. What do we know about mold
A. It is more likely to grow on hard food
B. We can't see it with our eyes.
C. It grows faster when it is cold
D. It makes the food taste bad.
18. To remove mold on hard food, you need to_______.
A. wash the food first and then cut the food in half
B. cut about 1.5 cm around and below the mold
C. cut about 2.5 cm around and below the mold
D. cut the surface of the food and cook it in hot water
19. According to the story, we know that penicillium_______.
A. tastes quite delicious
B. can be used to make food
C. is bad for our health
D. is more likely to grow on cheese
20. What can we learn from the passage
A. Mold can only grow in some special food.
B. Mold makes food soft and changes its color.
C. The mold can’t grow inside the hard food.
D. All kinds of mold are bad for us.
第二节 （共5小题，每小题1分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Morning can be the most stressful of a day if we can’t make good use of our time. 21
22
Prepare for the morning the evening before, that is, prepare your lunch, find your keys, plan a healthy breakfast, etc. It will take you less than thirty minutes to do these things each evening and will save you from a big headache every morning
Make a proper plan for the following day.
Write a short “Must Do Today” list every evening for the following day. But remember not to fill your mind with unnecessary worries about the things in the list. 23 Avoid writing too many things that you can't finish at all.
Get a good night's sleep.
Make sure you go to bed early to allow enough time for a healthy night's sleep. 24
25
If you go to bed on time, getting up thirty minutes early should seem natural after a few days. Use this time to think, exercise, take a shower and eat breakfast.
Drink a glass of water first.
Drink a glass of water first when you wake up. It is good for your health.
A. Keeping the room temperature（温度） comfortably cool is good for sleep.
B. Build the habit of evening preparation（准备）.
C. Get up thirty minutes early.
D. Keep exercising every day.
E. That means you should just write down the things you have to do the following day.
F. What should we do to avoid morning stress
第二部分 语言知识应用（共四节，满分35分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A group of boys gathered around a tree. “What a tall tree!” they said to each other. “It would be exciting to climb to the 26 !” The group of boys then decided to play a 27 to see who could climb to the top of the tree first. Their mothers were sitting not far away, looking at their children as they played.
One of the climbers was an 8-year-old boy named David. He was the shortest child in the group. Nobody thought he would 28 the competition.
Then the game started. All of the boys 29 their best to climb as high as they could. 30 they all made it halfway up the tree before David did, he reached the top of the tree fastest in the end.
His mother was 31 to see this. She asked him, “David, how did you manage to reach the top of the tree so 32 ”
“It was easy,” David said. “The other children kept looking 33 as they climbed. When they realized how high they were, they got 34 and were afraid of falling down. I, however, looked only up. When I saw how close I was, I kept going higher and higher until I reached the top.”
It is true in life that if we just 35 going forward without looking back, we are more likely to reach our goals
26.A. bottom B. top C. back D. front
27.A. joke B. toy C. game D. part
28.A win B. lose C. miss D. join
29.A made B. used C. had D. tried
30.A But B. Because C. Since D. Although
31.A angry B. upset C. proud D. thankful
32.A luckily B. suddenly C. quickly D. slowly
33.A up B. around C. into D. down
34. A excited B. scared C. surprised D. bored
35. A. keep B. enjoy C. stop D. start
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Mr. Depp is 36 famous scientist. He likes to make lots of predictions 37 the future. He says that in 100 years some things 38 (be) better than now. For example, we won't have to do the dishes or sweep the floor 39 we'll all have robots in our homes. Also, we won't need 40 (use) paper money. We'll all use credit cards to buy things. We'll have more free time, and traveling will be faster and cheaper 41 it is now. Maybe some people will spend their vacations 42 (live) on space stations. However, Mr. Depp says that more things will get 43 (bad) in the next century. If more people use 44 (car)，there will be more pollution. Also, if there are fewer trees, the air will become dirtier. If pollution gets really bad, maybe people will have to live on Mars(火星). Mr. Deep says we'll be sorry 45 pollution becomes worse.
第三节 单词拼写（共5小题，每小题1分）
根据句意和括号中所给的中文提示，在句中空格处填上正确的单词（每空一词）。
46. Some of the _________________（工程师）are busy checking the computers for us.
47. I don’t like scary movies because I think they are_________.(meaning)
48. Everyone should play a part in protecting our ___________.(环境)
49. In the past, our family often got together and __________（庆祝） our birthdays with a big bowl of noodles.
50. Finally, ________ (提供)the rice noodles to your friends.
第四节 完成句子（共5小题，每小题1分）
根据句意或中文提示，把英语句子补充完整（每空一词）。
51. 许多决定与自我提高相关。
Many resolutions have to ________ _________ self-improvement.
52. 计算机和火箭在100年前好像也是不可能的。
Computers and rockets also ____________ ____________ 100 years ago.
53.把鸡蛋放到锅里，用水淹住。
Put the eggs in a pot, and _________ them ________ water.
54.我还有一件事要告诉你。
I have _______ ________ thing to tell you.
55.有些人可能说他们打算开始培养一种爱好，比如画画或照相。
Some people might say they are going to ________ ________ a hobby like painting or taking photos.
第三部分 书面表达（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分）
阅读下面短文，完成短文后的问题
Because of COVID-19, students sometimes have no choice(选择) but to take online classes. Where and how do they have online classes Let's listen to four students' stories.
I'm Peter. I'm a middle school student in Shanghai. I take online classes at home with my father. He is a university teacher. He gives online lessons to his students on Monday and Wednesday. I like taking online classes because I can get up a bit later without worrying about being late for school. I often get up at 7:30 am and then have breakfast. And I don't need to wear a school uniform.
My name is Tom. I'm a Grade 6 student in Beijing. I take six online classes a day on the computer at home. My mother keeps a watch on me. She often watches me having classes or doing homework. After class, I usually exercise for an hour.
My name is Lucy. I come from Chengdu, Sichuan Province. I'm a first grader. My mother needs to work, so she takes me to her office and I study there. I sit at a desk and use an iPad to take online classes. I have four lessons each day. Each lesson is 40 minutes. When I finish my classes, I spend a lot of time drawing.
56. How often does Peter’s father give online classes
_____________________________________________________
57. Why does Peter like online classes
______________________________________________________
58. How many online classes does Tom have a day
_____________________________________________________
59. Where does Lucy take online classes
_______________________________________________________
60. What does Lucy do after she finishes her online classes
_______________________________________________________
第二节 写作（满分20分）
61.近几年，为增强学生体质，国家各部门出台了各种制度保障。毫无疑问，运动是保持身体和精神健康的一种重要方式。无论是跑步，还是球类运动都可以起到很好的锻炼作用。请写一篇英文作文，介绍你最喜欢的运动。
主要内容包括：
1. What’s your favorite sport And why
2. Who do you exercise with
3. What do you learn from the sport
要求：
1. 词数在80词左右。
2. 须包含所有要点提示，并可适当补充，以使语句通顺，行文连贯。
3. 作文中不能出现个人真实姓名和校名。
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________________________________________________________________________________2022-2023学年度第二学期期中教学质量检测
初二英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1分）
1-5 ACA CD 6-10 DCDCB 11-15 DBCBD 16-20 BDCBB
第二节 （共5小题，每小题1分）
21-25 FBEAC
第二部分 语言知识应用（共四节，满分35分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分）
26-30 BCADD 31-35 CCDBA
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分）
36. a 37. about 38. will be 39. because 40. to use
41. than 42. living 43. worse 44. cars 45. if
第三节 单词拼写（共5小题，每小题1分）
46. engineers 47. meaningless 48. environment
49. celebrated 50. serve
第四节 完成句子（共5小题，每小题1分）
51. do with 52. seemed impossible 53. cover with
54. one more 55. take up
第三部分 书面表达（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分）
56. Twice a week.
57. Because he can get up a bit later without worrying about being late for school and he doesn’t need to wear a school uniform.
58. Six.
59. In her mother’s office.
60. She draws. / She spends a lot of time drawing.
第二节 写作（满分20分）
61.评分标准：
1. 本题满分为20分。按六个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据写作内容和语言表达的流畅、准确程度等确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来确定本档次得分。出现考生个人信息不得分。
3. 作文词数不少于80，否则扣1分。
4. 书写不规范，卷面不整洁，扣1分。
5. 各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档（17—20分）：紧扣主题，覆盖所有要点；语法结构多样，词汇丰富；有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯，行文流畅；有个别语言错误，但不影响意思表达。
第二档（13—16分）：紧扣主题，覆盖所有要点；语法结构比较多样，词汇比较丰富；使用了一定的语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯；有少量语言错误，但基本不影响意思表达。
第三档（9—12分）：基本覆盖所有要点，个别要点表达不清楚或不合理；基本准确地使用语法结构和词汇；有语句间衔接手段，全文结构相对清晰，意义基本连贯；有些许错误，但基本不影响理解。
第四档（5—8分）：遗漏或未清楚表达部分内容要点，或一些内容与写作主题无关；所用词汇有限，语法结构简单，错误较多，影响理解；几乎未能有效使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第五档（1—4分）：遗漏或未清楚表达大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作主题不相关；所用词汇非常有限，语法结构简单，错误很多，严重影响理解；未有效使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
第六档（0分）：未作答；所写内容无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关；抄袭试卷中的其它阅读文本材料。
One possible version:
Doing sports is a good way to stay healthy. My favorite sport is basketball.
I play basketball not only for fun but also to keep fit. I often play basketball with my classmates on the playground on school days. We have great fun together. On weekends, I sometimes practice basketball skills with my father in the gym. I don't play as well as he does. but he encourages me not to give up in the face of difficulties.
I learn a lot from playing basketball. I often feel tired after practice, but I know the key to success is to keep trying. As the saying goes, “No pain, no gain.”
