甘肃省2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试英语试题（含解析，含听力音频和听力原文）
文档属性
| 名称 | 甘肃省2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试英语试题（含解析，含听力音频和听力原文） |  | |
| 格式 | docx | ||
| 文件大小 | 43.2KB | ||
| 资源类型 | 教案 | ||
| 版本资源 | 人教版（2019） | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2023-08-07 22:19:15 | ||
图片预览
文档简介
甘肃省2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试
英语
本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
考生注意：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号框涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号框。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7．5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A． 19．15． B． 9．18． C． 9．15．
答案是C。
1．When does the conversation most probably take place
A．At 7:15． B．At 7:20． C．At 7:25．
2．How much do the apples cost
A．$ 1．00 a pound． B．$ 1．20 a pound． C．$ 2．60 a pound．
3．Why did the man buy the book
A．He needed the information in it.
B．He wanted to write an advertisement.
C．He needed to write a new book.
4．Where are the two speakers
A．Inside a bookstore. B．Outside an art museum. C．Outside a sports center.
5．What will the woman do first
A．Pay the entrance fees. B．Have her card stamped． C．Fetch the lecture notes.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22．5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对沽或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Why does the woman want to buy a gift
A．To celebrate her daughter’s 18th birthday.
B．To make her daughter popular among students.
C．To let her daughter enjoy a valuable life.
7．What is the gift the woman bought for her daughter last year
A．An iPad． B．An MP4． C．A mobile phone.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．Why does the woman take part in the race
A．She wants to improve her health.
B．She does exercise every day.
C．She wants to set an example to her son.
9．What does the woman think of the young people nowadays
A．They don’t get much exercise.
B．They seldom watch games on TV.
C．They love .all kinds of popular sports.
10．What does the woman suggest the man do
A．Practise any exercise. B．Do different activities. C．Run slowly every morning.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13小题。
11．What date is it today probably
A．May 5． B．May 10． C．May 15．
12．What is the third energy source the speakers will probably choose
A．Solar. B．Nuclear. C．WinD．
13．What information will the speakers remove from the presentations
A．The diagrams. B．The results. C．The backgrounD．
听第9段材料，回答第14至16小题。
14．Where did the man go
A．The library. B．The post office. C．The chemistry laB．
15．What’s the money on the desk for
A．Buying envelopes and stamps. B．Buying notebooks and bottles. C．Buying English books.
16．Why can’t the woman go to the post office herself
A．It’s very far. B．She is busy. C．She is tireD．
听第10段材料，回答第17至20小题。
17．How often is the quiz show for children on air
A．Daily. B．Weekly. C．Monthly.
18．What are the questions about
A．Entertainment. B．Science. C．Sports.
19．What will the winners get next week
A．A camera． B．A laptop. C．A mobile phone.
20．What should children do to join in the show
A．Fill in an application form.
B．Send a photo to the TV station.
C．Provide their personal information.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2．5分，满分37．5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Fantastic Hooks You Can Read Within a Day
Starting a new book can feel like a bit of a commitiment, but it doesn’t have to be! Here are four books you can read in a single day.
The House on Mango Street
Released in 1984 and written by Mexican-American author Sandra Cisneros, The House on Mango Street is only 103 pages long. It deals with complex themes and important subject matters including language, race, and aging. It’s a moving read but one fuelled by hope for a better future.
The Midnight Library
The Midnight Library from the English author Matt Haig was released in 2020． It’s 288 pages. The novel is all about storytelling, with Nora Seed exploring the “what ifs” of her life. The novel asks a massive question : what makes a life worth living
The Perilous Life of Jade Yeo
Released in 2012 and written by the fantastic Malaysian-English author Zen Cho, the page count is an extremely manageable 76 pages. The novel is set in London in the 1920s and follows the life of another writer, Jade Yeo. What really sings here is the funny, page-turning dialogue which Cho masters.
Things Fall Apart
Things Fall Apart debuted in 1958 from the Nigerian writer Chinua Achebe. It’s set in the South East of Nigeria in a fictional town and tracks the journey of a local wrestling champion and Igbo man, Okonkwo. At 185 pages, the book is spaced out into three sections, each of which offers a different snapshot of the developing situation.
21． How would you feel if you read The House on Mango Street
A． Hopeful. B． TireD． C． RelaxeD． D． ConfuseD．
22． What is typical of The Perilous Life of Jade Yeo
A． It’s about a trip. B． It’s suitable for the elderly.
C． It’s full of dialogues. D． It has a lot of songs.
23． Which book will you read if you want to know about a sports champion
A． The House on Mango Street B． The Midnight Library
C． The Perilous Life of Jade Yeo D． Things Fall Apart
B
Good Deeds Day continues to expand its circles of good and have a great effect on the lives of many communities and individuals around the world．Good Deeds Day is a main event of year-round doing good activities, which was set up by a businesswoman Shari Arison in 2007． On this special day, millions of people across the globe take part in doing good．
On April 16, 2023, thousands of Good Deeds Day projects were held worldwide that involved millions of people from 110 countries.
The development and positive spirit surrounding this international event of doing good increases annually, with millions of people joining in to volunteer and do something positive for others. Good Deeds Day was started 17 years ago in Israel and has grown worldwide, crossing borders and cultures to become an internationally unifying day of good．
Shari Arison explains how she was inspired to bring people together to do good deeds. “ 18 years ago when I was walking, I thought to myself that if we connect all the good deeds, people will begin to see the goodness in the world．That is how Good Deeds Day began, and this year we will be celebrating 17 years of doing good year-round．”
“Good Deeds Day crossed borders, became international, and has reached by now 110 countries that lake part. If we think good, speak good, and do good, our world will look better. It’s in our hands-each and every one of us,” she added．
And she was glad to see people from different countries joining together for the “ Good Deeds Day Cleaning Event, ” using a trash pickup app. The hundreds of volunteers collected garbage in their cities, beaches, nature fields and immediately shared pictures of their efforts to clean up the garbage on the app to show effect worldwide and inspire each other.
24．What is Good Deeds Day
A．A circle of people serving their community.
B．A celebrating clay in communities globally.
C．A year-round event of doing good aclivilics.
D．A global business involved by all countries.
25．What is Shari Arison’s purpose of starling Good Deeds Day
A．Announcing the goodness to the worlD．
B．Bringing people together lo contribute to Earth.
C．Celebrating 17 years of doing good year-rounD．
D．Involving all countries in giving a helping hanD．
26．How did the volunteers from different countries inspire each other
A．By joining people from different countries together.
B．By taking part in Good Deeds Day cleaning event.
C．By volunteering to collect garbage in their cities.
D．By sharing pictures of their clean-up on the app.
27．What does the text want to convey
A．Great things may be done by mass efforts.
B．Unity may be powerful across the worlD．
C．Good Deeds Day can make a big difference.
D．Businesswoman Shari Arison is a great figure.
C
If you want to achieve more of your goals in life, one of the most important things you can do is to take care of your mitting to a healthy and balanced diet can be a gamechanger when it comes to productivity and success.
As a saying goes, “An apple a day keeps a doctor away. ” But did you know that an apple a day does not only keep the doctor away but can even possibly improve your productivity Actually, people who eat more fruits and vegetables can be happier, more creative and, yes, even more productive. Fruits and vegetables seem to help elevate a person’s level of curiosity and general wellbeing. Actually, not only does a healthy diet improve a person’s wellbeing, it also seems to prevent potentially harmful conditions.
To start with, a healthy diet provides your body with the nutrients you need to function properly. The foods you eat are changed into glucose （葡萄糖），which then transforms it into the energy that powers your body and brain. When your body is running low on glucose, you will probably experience some trouble when trying to focus and concentrate.
On top of that, a healthy diet is linked to healthier mental health. When you eat a balanced diet, you are essentially giving your body the fuel it needs to work efficiently and effectively. A healthier version of you, physically and mentally, allows you to focus on your goals and on what you really want to be doing
All in all, if you want to be more productive and reach your personal goals, work goals and any other dreams you have, please put your health at the top of your priority list. By eating a balanced and healthy diel, you can give your body the nutrients it needs to function at its best.
28． What does Paragraph 1 tell us
A．Eating right can improve overall wellbeing.
B．Everyone should have their personal goals.
C．Success lies in looking after one’s own health.
D．Productivity and success come from change.
29．What does the underlined word “ elevate” in Paragraph 2 probably mean
A．Decline. B．Limit. C．Satisfy. D．Improve.
30．What may cause you lo fail to concentrate
A． Too many nutrients in the diet.B．Any troublesome experience.
C． Lack of glucose in your body.D．Lack of power in your brain.
31．What is the author’s suggestion
A． Putting your own health on the list.B．Eating a balanced and healthy diet.
C． Achieving your personal dreams.D．Giving your mind enough nutrients.
D
There are very few places in the desert where water is plentiful. But now a Jordanian startup has created an incredibly efficient Atmospheric Water Generating Device (AWG) that can generate water in even the driest environments. For a dry and thirsty region, this device can be a gamechanger.
Jordan is one of the most water insecure countries in the world, and with the population growing, the need for water is becoming more critical. In many areas, water is only available for 36 hours a week.
“Our situation-with the lack of natural resources and water-puts us in a position where we have to do something,” Tamer Al-Salah, managing director of BeyondCapital, a venture capital firm based in Jordan, saiD． “Climate entrepreneurship（创业）is important and it’s growing.”
“That’s where Aquaporo comes in.” CEO Kyle Cordova and engineering director Husam Almassad, “Aquaporo started working in Cordova’s research lab at Jordan’s Royal Scientific Society three years ago to develop an AWG device that could copy nature by pulling water out of the desert air. In fact, the device can pull out more than double the amount of other water harvesting devices in desert areas.”
The device uses special materials that can capture water from the desert air. The water is then purified so that it is fit for human consumption. If that were not enough, the device is also solar powered, so that it can be used anywhere.
It’s reported that the Aquaporo’s machine which is about the size of an air conditioning unit has impressed the Jordanian government so much that they have ordered 1000 units that they hope to hand out for free to families throughout the country in 2024．
In reality, the idea of collecting water from the air is not new. People have been harvesting water drops using both man-made and natural materials for thousands of years. What makes Aquaporo and its researchers so special is their ability to look to the past for solutions and use today’s technology to make those solutions even better.
32．What is the function of AWG
A．Creating an incredibly efficient device.
B．Producing water in dry and thirsty areas.
C．Purifying water in the driest environments.
D．Changing living conditions in a dry region.
33．How did researchers in Aquaporo first conduct their research work
A．By experiinenling in the laB．
B．By pulling water in the deserts.
C．By developing a suitable device.
D．By doubling the amount of water.
34．What do we know about the Aquaporo’s machine from the passage
A．It’s like an air-conditioner to generate water.
B．It is being produced by the local government.
C．It has been sent to all families free of charge.
D．It hasn’t been given to people across the country.
35．What is probably the best title to this text
A．A Device Satisfies People’s Usage of Water
B．Water is Available for Everyday Use in Jordan
C．New Starhip Creak’s Water from the Desert Air
D．Today’s Technology Makes Life Even Better
第二节（共5小题；每小题2．5分，满分12．5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
There is something magical about hiking. Whether you’re a seasoned hiker or new to the trails, hiking offers lots of benefits for mind, body and soul. 36
Boost physical fitness. 37 Although other forms of exercise are great for your health, hiking has benefits that can’t be replaced by a bike. Hiking builds muscle strength. So, not only will you enjoy the great outdoors, you will also improve your health.
Improve mental well-being. Hiking has a profound impact on your mental well-being, offering a much needed break from the stresses of daily life. 38 In addition to the fun and enjoyment you can experience, there are other real benefits you can start to observe. 39 Hiking provides a wonderful opportunity for strengthening social connections and training a sense of community. Whether you go on a hike with friends or join a hiking group, the shared experiences can be highly beneficial and can create wonderful shared memories. Hiking is hard, but it maintains your motivation. So grab a friend or join a local hiking group, and experience the joy of connecting with others while exploring nature.
Improve cognitive（认知的）function. An amazing added benefit to hiking is improved cognitive function. Engaging in physical activity while being surrounded by nature stimulates the brain, leading it to improve focus, creativity and problem-solving skills. Spending time in nature can improve cognitive function and attention span. 40 A drop in spending time in nature and in physical activity can possibly cause a cognitive decline. Who knew that the sensory experiences that you encounter during hiking could help you gain clarity and peace of mind
A．And the opposite is also true.
B．Strengthen social connections.
C．Experience the joy of getting close to nature.
D．Why not make use of the precious lime to enjoy yourself
E.Hiking is an excellent way lo improve your overall fitness.
F.Spending Lime in nature, including hiking, improves mental health.
G.So grab your hiking tools and explore the benefits to make you energized!
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Childhood should be full of friends, play, and happiness. But when children are 41 and without their peer group, they may 42 a helping hand to get back on track. That’s why schools in India are teaching 43 .
Actually, it is important to 44 kids to be resilient（有弹力的）.They needed a(n) 45 that could train students to identify emotions and ways lo channel them.
The happiness course was 46 started by the Indian government in 2018． It 47 mental health, well-being. It also encouraged 48 peer connections for elementary school children. The course included storytelling and teamwork activities.
“The happiness course is a (n) 49 , and schools should welcome it. The objectives include developing self-awareness, mindfulness, critical thinking, and helping children 50 life skills to deal with stress,” said Shikha Banerjee, the principal of the Seth Anandrarn Jaipuria School in Kanpur.
“Mindfulness is the corners to of the happiness course and its biggest 51 is that every day 1．6 million children in Delhi start their studies in school with mindfulness. It has 52 as a turning point in the lives of students studying in Delhi schools and has relieved（缓解）children from stress and 53 their focus in studies,” deputy chief minister Manish Sisodia said during the Mindful Education Awards 2021 program.
The award is an initiative to 54 the efforts of schools in creating a mentally and physically healthy 55 for the development of children through teaching mindfulness.
41．A．sad B．afraid C．lonely D．angry
42．A．need B．offer C．lend D．give
43．A．lessons B．happiness C．standard D．subjects
44．A．allow B．persuade C．train D．direct
45．A．ability B．chance C．guide D．course
46．A．gradually B．originally C．finally D．specially
47．A．focused on B．depended on C．stuck to D．consisted of
48．A．classic B, typical C．various D．positive
49．A．example B．surprise C．success D．conclusion
50．A．apply B．practise C．contain D．adapt
51．A．desire B．image C．concern D．beauty
52．A．hosted B．acted C．come D．put
53．A．limited B．located C．distracted D．increased
54．A．recognize B．measure C．advocate D．confirm
55．A．phenomenon B．environment C．qualification D．relationship
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China is emerging as a global leader in aviation（航空）decarbonization （脱碳）, according to industry experts. This development is 56．______result of the scale of the countries aviation market and 57．______ (it) new technologies and policies aimed at reducing carbon emissions（排放）, they said．
“As the world’s second-largest economy, China 58．______ (expect) to be the world’s hugest aviation market by 2030. We believe China plays an important part in aviation decarbonization with a deep impact on the decarbonization of aviation 59．______ ( global),” said Martin Thomsen, senior vice-president of Air BP, the specialized aviation division of BP, previously 60．______ (know) as British Petroleum, a London based multinational.
“We believe that this will lead to an expansion of SAF production, 61．______could supply domestic and global markets 62．______play a key role in supporting the decarbonization of supply chains,”he said.
Despite current challenges in raw material supplies, technology and policies, China’s SAF industry faces significant opportunities and 63．______ ( have) certain advantages, said Luo Zuoxian, head of intelligence and research at the Sinopec Economics and Development Research Institute.
It will make important 64．______ (contribution) in reducing carbon emissions in the aviation industry, helping achieve the carbon neutrality （碳中和）goals and 65．______ensure energy safety in SAF, he said．
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假如你是李华，你们学校下个月举办以“Enjoy My Reading”为主题的英语演讲比赛。请你写一封邮件，邀请交换生Jim参加。
内容包括：1．比赛简介；2．参赛要求；3．邀请参加。
注意：1．写作词数应为80左右；2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Jim,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The first time you give a speech is truly a special moment, a beginning of something special, and I will surely never forget the first lime that I gave a speech.
As a kid, I was extremely shy and seldom said anything. When I was twelve and about to graduate from junior school, I remember that my teacher pulled me aside one day and told me to take part in an online speech. My first thought was that giving a speech didn’t sound like much fun, but finally I agreed．
As the morning neared 9:30 a.m., I sat in front of my laptop screen nervously. I clicked the link to join “Round One”， put my nerves aside, and smiled at the other faces on the screen as my name was called to perform. Slowly, I stood and began speaking. I could only think that the other participants fell as anxious as I did．
The Novice （新手）Speech Tournament is the first Speech and Debate competition of the year specifically for first-time competitors, and this year’s event took place on October 24. Speech Team Co-Captain Anna Sheehan, a seasoned speech leader, reported her Novice experience, “I remember leaving the competition even more excited to do speech because I had seen some great pieces and was eager to improve.” After experiencing Novice myself, I completely agreed!
Two Montrosians-Josie Marcucci and I-competed while Anna Sheehan and Lucy Stefani took part as judges. Although it took place online, the Montrose Speech Team did its best to follow the normal arrangement: At 8 a.m., we met in our virtual（虚拟的）team room for warmups to help cheer ourselves up before the big day. Next, we attended a meeting for some announcements（通告）.Then, we were off to compete. In each of the three rounds, competitors had a chance to perform. In between rounds, we met as a team in our “room”. Before 1 took part, I went to my leacher for some practical help. And my teacher patted me on the back, smiling, “Clam down, and you will make it.”
注意：
1．续写词数应为150左右；2．请按如下格式在相应位置作答。
The restlessness I felt that morning went away when I finished my first performance._______________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Following Anna and Lucy’s advice, I felt more confident for the third round．_____________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
甘肃省2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试
英语答案
第一部分 听力
答案：1-5CBABB 6-10ACCAC 11-15BCAAA 16-20BBABC
听力材料
Text 1
W：Excuse me for being late.
M：Never mind. You aren’t too late. The film will start at 7:30. We still have five minutes to go.
Text 2
M：I want to buy 10 pounds of apples. How much are they
W：That’s 12 dollars in all.
Text 3
W：You bought another new book on advertisements
M：Yeah. This book has the details I need.
Text 4
W：The admission price of the gallery is ten dollars per person. I think that’s pretty expensive for a single exhibit．
M：But if we have student cards, we can get in for two.
W：Really Let’s have a try.
M：OK. Thanks.
Text 5
W：I’m here to sign up for the Management course.
M：Well，you’ll have to go to the Management Department and get this card stamped. And then you go to pay your entrance fees. After that you have to come back to sign your name and fetch the lecture notes.
Text 6
M：Can I help you
W：Yes．My daughter’s 18th birthday is drawing near, and I’d like to get her a gift.
M：What kind of gift do you prefer
W：En, I want one at a proper price and valuable for her.
M：What about a mobile phone
W：No，I bought one for her and her father gave her an MP4 last year.
M：Well，I think she’d like an iPad, which is popular nowadays among young students.
W：Sounds a good idea.I’ll take one.
Text 7
M：Hello, Lily. I’m the reporter. Would you like to answer my questions
W：Please go ahead.
M：What makes you take part in such a long race
W：I want to set an example to my son. I do exercise every day.
M：Do you mean that regular exercise makes you stay healthy
W ：Yes. Young people nowadays watch games on television and read about sports on the Internet．They say that they love sports. I can’t see any good of that.
M：I am one of them. What shall I do
W：You can start with some easy movements, such as running slowly every morning.
M：Shall I stick to one exercise
W：You can, but you are likely to keep fit through different activities.
M：Thank you. Bye.
Text 8
W：Hello, Jim. What about the presentation about environment given by our teacher on May 5
M：We are supposed to hand it in today. The teacher will give some comments.
W：I hope so. When is the presentation
M：On May 15, in the afternoon. So we still have five days left to get it finished.
W：So I think we need to leave out some of the information we’re including.
M：Yes. Mr. Smith advised us to focus on three forms of non-traditional energy. We can talk about solar and biofuels. And what about the third energy source
W：I was wondering whether we choose nuclear or wind.
M：But dealing with nuclear is more difficult for us.
W：OK. I agree with you.
M ：Then I’d like to suggest leaving out the background details.
W：I don’t think so. We should put the results on a handout. The results will clearly support our main ideas.
M：Actually, you’re right, Linda. In that case, can we leave out the diagrams It’s going to take too much time to explain them.
Text 9
W：Hi, Fred. Where did you go
M：I went to the library and borrowed some English books. What’s wrong
W：I thought you went to the post office.Did you notice the money I left on the desk
M：Yes ,＄10 altogether，but I didn’t know what it was for.
W：Didn’t you see the note I left you with the money
M：Note What note I didn’t see any note.
W：Really I left the money with a note saying I wanted you to go to the post office and get some envelopes and stamps for me .I also put the ink bottle on them in case they might not draw your attention.
M：I see now. Why can’t you go and get them yourself？The post office is only a 15 minutes’ walk from here.
W：I can’t go because I’m very busy doing some chemistry experiments in the lab.
Text 10
M：Now, listen carefully! I want to tell you about a new TV quiz show for children. It’s called Answer That, and it will be on Channel Five at 4:00 every Thursday. It will be just like the popular adult quiz show on the same channel on Monday afternoon. I’m sure you’ve all seen that. Every week there will be 48 children on the programme. They will be in 8 teams, and each team will have 6 children. The questions will be easy at the beginning of the quiz and then they will get more difficult. They will all be about films，music and TV．So it has nothing to do with your science knowledge or whether you’re good at sports or not．At the end there will be only one team left—the winners. There will be some great prizes. Last week, the winners got a mobile phone. This week the winners will all get a new camera. Everyone loves taking photos. Next week the first prize is a laptop for everyone. If you would like to be on Answer That, then call 01085639021. Just give your name, age and school address, so that we can fill in the application form for you．And maybe you will be on TV soon. OK， that’s all for me. Thank you for listening. And I wish you all a good night.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
A
【文章大意】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了几本可以在一天内看完的书。
21．A细节理解题。由“It’s a moving read but one fuelled by hope for a better future．”可知答案。故选A。
22．C细节理解题。由“What really sings here is the funny，page-turning dialogue，which Cho masters．”可知，这里真正赞颂的是有趣的且引人入胜的对白，这是作者熟悉的。故选C。
23．D细节理解题。由Things Fall Apart中提到的“tracks the journey of a local wrestling champion”可知，该书提到了摔跤冠军。故选D。
B
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了Good Deeds Day的起源与发展，和其产生的世界范围的正面影响。
24．C细节理解题。由第一段可知，“行善日是一个全年举行行善活动的重要事件，由女商人Shari Arison于2007年创办。在这个特殊的日子里，全球数百万人参与行善。”故选C。
25．B细节理解题。由第四段可知，Shari Arison解释了她是如何受到鼓舞，让人们团结起来做好事。“18年前，当我在散步时，我对自己说，如果我们把所有的善行联合起来，人们就会开始看到世界上的善良。”故选B。
26．D推理判断题。由最后一段可知，“数百名志愿者在他们的城市、海滩、自然界收集垃圾，并当即在应用程序上分享他们努力清理垃圾的照片，以显示世界范围内的效果，并互相激励。”说明不同国家的人们通过把清理垃圾的图片共享到App上，以互相激励。故选D。
27．A主旨大意题。本文介绍了“行善日”的活动，说明每个人付出一份力量，就会成就伟大的事情。故选A。
C
【文章大意】本文是一篇议论文。文章论述了正确饮食可以提高整体健康水平。
28．A细节理解题。由第一段可知，“如果你想在生活中实现更多的目标，你能做的最重要的事情之一就是照顾好自己的健康。当涉及到生产力和成功时，致力于健康和均衡的饮食可以改变游戏规则。”故选A。
29．D词义猜测题。上文提到“多吃水果和蔬菜的人会更快乐，更有创造力，是的，甚至更有效率。”下文提到“事实上，健康的饮食不仅能改善一个人的健康状况，而且似乎还能预防潜在的有害状况。”说明水果和蔬菜似乎有助于提高一个人的好奇心水平和总体幸福感。故选D。
30．C推理判断题。由第三段最后一句可知，“当你的身体缺乏葡萄糖时，当你试图集中注意力时，你可能会遇到一些麻烦。”故选C。
31．B推理判断题。由文章尾段可知，“通过均衡健康的饮食，你可以为你的身体提供最佳状态所需的营养。”由此推断，作者的建议是“均衡健康的饮食”。故选B。
D
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了从沙漠空气中提取水的方法，以缓解干旱地区的用水需求。
32．B细节理解题。由第一段可知，“但是现在，一家约旦的创业公司已经创造了一种难以置信的高效大气水生成装置（AWG），它甚至可以在最干燥的环境中生成水。对于干旱和干渴的地区，这个设备可以是一个游戏规则改变者。”说明 AWG 的功能是从大气中提取水。故选B。
33．A细节理解题。由第四段第二句可知，“三年前，Aquaporo公司首席执行官Kyle Cordova和工程总监Husam Almassad开始在Cordova位于约旦皇家科学学会的研究实验室工作，开发一种AWG设备，通过模仿自然从沙漠空气中抽取水分。”故选A。
34．D推理判断题。由第六段可知，“据报道，AquaPoro的机器有一个空调那么大，这给约旦政府留下了深刻的印象，他们已经订购了1000台，希望在2024年能够免费发放给全国的家庭。”说明暂时还没有给所有家庭发放该设备。故选D。
35．C主旨大意题。由第一段第二句可知，“但是现在，一家约旦的创业公司已经创造了一种难以置信的高效大气水生成装置（AWG），它甚至可以在最干燥的环境中生成水。”故选C。
第二节（共5小题；每小题2。5分，满分12.5分）
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。无论你是经验丰富的徒步旅行者还是新手，徒步旅行对你的身心都有很多好处。建议大家享受远足的乐趣。
36．G此处起承上启下的作用。上文提到“无论你是经验丰富的徒步旅行者还是新手，徒步旅行对你的身心都有很多好处。”此处应该是建议读者去践行。故选G。
37．E本段主题句是“Boost physical fitness．”下文内容与“fitness”有关。故选E。
38．F本段主题句是“Improve mental wellbeing．”上文提到“徒步旅行对你的心理健康有着深远的影响，为你提供了从日常生活的压力中解脱出来的机会。”说明此处应该与“mental health”有关。故选F。
39．B由下文可知，“远足为加强社会联系和培养社区意识提供了绝佳的机会。”说明本段主要讲的是与“social connections”有关的内容。故选B。
40．A上文提到“花时间在自然中可以提高认知功能和注意广度。”下文提到“花在大自然和身体活动上的时间减少可能会导致认知能力下降。”前后内容是相反的。中间需要过渡句。故选A。
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。讲述了印度一个学校开设幸福课程的背景、原因、课程和收获。
41．C由下文提到的“without their peer group”可推知，孩子们应该感到孤独（lonely）。
42．A童年应该充满朋友、玩耍和幸福。但是，当孩子们感到孤独和没有同龄人的时候，他们可能需要（need）帮忙回到正轨。
43．B这就是为什么印度的学校教授快乐（happiness）的原因。
44．C实际上，培养（train）孩子的适应能力很重要。
45．D他们需要一门课程（course）来训练学生识别情绪，以及引导情绪的方法。
46．B幸福课程最初（originally）是由印度政府在2018年推出的。
47．A该课程关注（focus on）小学生的心理健康、幸福感。
48．D由下文提到的“课程包括讲故事和团队合作活动。”可以推知，该课程也鼓励积极的（positive）同伴关系。
49．C幸福课程是成功的（success），学校应该欢迎它。
50．A目标包括培养自我意识、正念、批判性思维，以及帮助孩子运用（apply）生活技能来应对压力。
51．D正念是幸福课程的基石，它最大的魅力（beauty）在于，德里每天有160万儿童以正念开始他们的学业。
52．C它已经成为（come as）在德里学校学习的学生生活的一个转折点。
53．D该课程减轻了孩子们的压力，增加了（increase）他们的学习注意力。
54．A该奖项是一项举措，旨在认可（recognize）学校通过正念教学为儿童的发展创造一个身心健康的环境。
55．B表示“创造一个身心健康的环境”用“create a mentally and physically healthy environment”。
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了中国正在成为航空业脱碳的全球领导者。
56．a考查冠词。句意：他们表示，这种发展是该国航空市场规模及其旨在减少碳排放的新技术和政策的结果。a result of 意为“……的结果”。故填a。
57．its考查代词。修饰名词短语new technologies and policies，用形容词性物主代词。故填its。
58．is expected考查时态语态。句意：作为世界第二大经济体，中国有望在2030年成为世界最大的航空市场。表示“有望……”用be expected。故填is expected。
59．globally考查副词。句意：我们认为，中国在航空脱碳方面发挥着重要作用，对全球航空脱碳产生了深远影响。修饰介词短语with a deep impact on the decarbonization of aviation用副词形式。故填写globally。
60．known考查非谓语动词。句子的谓语是said，此处“know”用作非谓语动词，与修饰的名词Martin Thomsen构成被动关系。故填known。
61．which考查定语从句。句意：他说：“我们相信，这将导致SAF产量的扩大，从而为国内和全球市场提供供应，并在支持供应链脱碳方面发挥关键作用。”在从句中作主语，引导非限制性定语从句。故填which。
62．and考查并列连词。此处连接“supply”和“play a key role”两个动作。故填and。
63．has考查时态和主谓一致。句意：中国石化经济与发展研究院情报与研究主管罗佐贤表示，尽管中国目前在原材料供应、技术和政策方面面临挑战，但SAF行业面临着巨大的 机遇，并具备一定的优势。主语China’s SAF industry是第三人称单数形式，空格处与前面的动词faces是并列关系。故填has。
64．contributions考查名词。句意：他说，这将在减少航空业碳排放、帮助实现碳中和目标和确保SAF能源安全方面做出重要贡献。contribution可以构成短语make a contribution或者make contributions，意为“做出贡献”。故填contributions。
65．ensuring考查非谓语动词。与前面的helping构成并列关系。故填ensuring。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【参考范文】
Dear Jim,
Good news for you！Our school will hold an English Speech Contest next month. Knowing that you’re expert at this field, I couldn’t wait to inform you of the contest．
Aiming to arouse our interest in reading as well as enriching our life, our school launched this activity themed “Enjoy My Reading”. Whoever is fond of reading can participate. If interested, you are supposed to present an article first, which will be checked by the organization. After your article is approved, you can prepare for the speech.
Keep in mind that you can sign up for it in our school website by next Friday. Welcome to take part and hope you’ll achieve success.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
【参考范文】
The restlessness I felt that morning went away when I finished my first performance. It was nowhere near as worrying as I had expected. In fact，it was exciting．I couldn’t wait to do the second round. After that, Anna and Lucy told me about their experience on the judging side of things. Anna said that the judges gave specific, useful guidance to everyone they watched to help each speaker improve their future performances. Lucy said, “Making eye contact with your audience rather than a laptop camera makes it a much more personal experience.”
Following Anna and Lucy’s advice，I felt more confident for the third round．When it was my turn，I made a fluent speech confidently. Hardly had I finished my speech when I caught sight of Anna and Lucy nodding their heads, each with a big smile on their faces. Their advice, along with the feedback from the other judges, was encouraging for me and for all of the other novices as we look forward to future competitions. Honestly, giving a speech and getting some positive improvement was the first important step that I had to take.
英语
本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
考生注意：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号框涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号框。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7．5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A． 19．15． B． 9．18． C． 9．15．
答案是C。
1．When does the conversation most probably take place
A．At 7:15． B．At 7:20． C．At 7:25．
2．How much do the apples cost
A．$ 1．00 a pound． B．$ 1．20 a pound． C．$ 2．60 a pound．
3．Why did the man buy the book
A．He needed the information in it.
B．He wanted to write an advertisement.
C．He needed to write a new book.
4．Where are the two speakers
A．Inside a bookstore. B．Outside an art museum. C．Outside a sports center.
5．What will the woman do first
A．Pay the entrance fees. B．Have her card stamped． C．Fetch the lecture notes.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22．5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对沽或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Why does the woman want to buy a gift
A．To celebrate her daughter’s 18th birthday.
B．To make her daughter popular among students.
C．To let her daughter enjoy a valuable life.
7．What is the gift the woman bought for her daughter last year
A．An iPad． B．An MP4． C．A mobile phone.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．Why does the woman take part in the race
A．She wants to improve her health.
B．She does exercise every day.
C．She wants to set an example to her son.
9．What does the woman think of the young people nowadays
A．They don’t get much exercise.
B．They seldom watch games on TV.
C．They love .all kinds of popular sports.
10．What does the woman suggest the man do
A．Practise any exercise. B．Do different activities. C．Run slowly every morning.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13小题。
11．What date is it today probably
A．May 5． B．May 10． C．May 15．
12．What is the third energy source the speakers will probably choose
A．Solar. B．Nuclear. C．WinD．
13．What information will the speakers remove from the presentations
A．The diagrams. B．The results. C．The backgrounD．
听第9段材料，回答第14至16小题。
14．Where did the man go
A．The library. B．The post office. C．The chemistry laB．
15．What’s the money on the desk for
A．Buying envelopes and stamps. B．Buying notebooks and bottles. C．Buying English books.
16．Why can’t the woman go to the post office herself
A．It’s very far. B．She is busy. C．She is tireD．
听第10段材料，回答第17至20小题。
17．How often is the quiz show for children on air
A．Daily. B．Weekly. C．Monthly.
18．What are the questions about
A．Entertainment. B．Science. C．Sports.
19．What will the winners get next week
A．A camera． B．A laptop. C．A mobile phone.
20．What should children do to join in the show
A．Fill in an application form.
B．Send a photo to the TV station.
C．Provide their personal information.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2．5分，满分37．5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Fantastic Hooks You Can Read Within a Day
Starting a new book can feel like a bit of a commitiment, but it doesn’t have to be! Here are four books you can read in a single day.
The House on Mango Street
Released in 1984 and written by Mexican-American author Sandra Cisneros, The House on Mango Street is only 103 pages long. It deals with complex themes and important subject matters including language, race, and aging. It’s a moving read but one fuelled by hope for a better future.
The Midnight Library
The Midnight Library from the English author Matt Haig was released in 2020． It’s 288 pages. The novel is all about storytelling, with Nora Seed exploring the “what ifs” of her life. The novel asks a massive question : what makes a life worth living
The Perilous Life of Jade Yeo
Released in 2012 and written by the fantastic Malaysian-English author Zen Cho, the page count is an extremely manageable 76 pages. The novel is set in London in the 1920s and follows the life of another writer, Jade Yeo. What really sings here is the funny, page-turning dialogue which Cho masters.
Things Fall Apart
Things Fall Apart debuted in 1958 from the Nigerian writer Chinua Achebe. It’s set in the South East of Nigeria in a fictional town and tracks the journey of a local wrestling champion and Igbo man, Okonkwo. At 185 pages, the book is spaced out into three sections, each of which offers a different snapshot of the developing situation.
21． How would you feel if you read The House on Mango Street
A． Hopeful. B． TireD． C． RelaxeD． D． ConfuseD．
22． What is typical of The Perilous Life of Jade Yeo
A． It’s about a trip. B． It’s suitable for the elderly.
C． It’s full of dialogues. D． It has a lot of songs.
23． Which book will you read if you want to know about a sports champion
A． The House on Mango Street B． The Midnight Library
C． The Perilous Life of Jade Yeo D． Things Fall Apart
B
Good Deeds Day continues to expand its circles of good and have a great effect on the lives of many communities and individuals around the world．Good Deeds Day is a main event of year-round doing good activities, which was set up by a businesswoman Shari Arison in 2007． On this special day, millions of people across the globe take part in doing good．
On April 16, 2023, thousands of Good Deeds Day projects were held worldwide that involved millions of people from 110 countries.
The development and positive spirit surrounding this international event of doing good increases annually, with millions of people joining in to volunteer and do something positive for others. Good Deeds Day was started 17 years ago in Israel and has grown worldwide, crossing borders and cultures to become an internationally unifying day of good．
Shari Arison explains how she was inspired to bring people together to do good deeds. “ 18 years ago when I was walking, I thought to myself that if we connect all the good deeds, people will begin to see the goodness in the world．That is how Good Deeds Day began, and this year we will be celebrating 17 years of doing good year-round．”
“Good Deeds Day crossed borders, became international, and has reached by now 110 countries that lake part. If we think good, speak good, and do good, our world will look better. It’s in our hands-each and every one of us,” she added．
And she was glad to see people from different countries joining together for the “ Good Deeds Day Cleaning Event, ” using a trash pickup app. The hundreds of volunteers collected garbage in their cities, beaches, nature fields and immediately shared pictures of their efforts to clean up the garbage on the app to show effect worldwide and inspire each other.
24．What is Good Deeds Day
A．A circle of people serving their community.
B．A celebrating clay in communities globally.
C．A year-round event of doing good aclivilics.
D．A global business involved by all countries.
25．What is Shari Arison’s purpose of starling Good Deeds Day
A．Announcing the goodness to the worlD．
B．Bringing people together lo contribute to Earth.
C．Celebrating 17 years of doing good year-rounD．
D．Involving all countries in giving a helping hanD．
26．How did the volunteers from different countries inspire each other
A．By joining people from different countries together.
B．By taking part in Good Deeds Day cleaning event.
C．By volunteering to collect garbage in their cities.
D．By sharing pictures of their clean-up on the app.
27．What does the text want to convey
A．Great things may be done by mass efforts.
B．Unity may be powerful across the worlD．
C．Good Deeds Day can make a big difference.
D．Businesswoman Shari Arison is a great figure.
C
If you want to achieve more of your goals in life, one of the most important things you can do is to take care of your mitting to a healthy and balanced diet can be a gamechanger when it comes to productivity and success.
As a saying goes, “An apple a day keeps a doctor away. ” But did you know that an apple a day does not only keep the doctor away but can even possibly improve your productivity Actually, people who eat more fruits and vegetables can be happier, more creative and, yes, even more productive. Fruits and vegetables seem to help elevate a person’s level of curiosity and general wellbeing. Actually, not only does a healthy diet improve a person’s wellbeing, it also seems to prevent potentially harmful conditions.
To start with, a healthy diet provides your body with the nutrients you need to function properly. The foods you eat are changed into glucose （葡萄糖），which then transforms it into the energy that powers your body and brain. When your body is running low on glucose, you will probably experience some trouble when trying to focus and concentrate.
On top of that, a healthy diet is linked to healthier mental health. When you eat a balanced diet, you are essentially giving your body the fuel it needs to work efficiently and effectively. A healthier version of you, physically and mentally, allows you to focus on your goals and on what you really want to be doing
All in all, if you want to be more productive and reach your personal goals, work goals and any other dreams you have, please put your health at the top of your priority list. By eating a balanced and healthy diel, you can give your body the nutrients it needs to function at its best.
28． What does Paragraph 1 tell us
A．Eating right can improve overall wellbeing.
B．Everyone should have their personal goals.
C．Success lies in looking after one’s own health.
D．Productivity and success come from change.
29．What does the underlined word “ elevate” in Paragraph 2 probably mean
A．Decline. B．Limit. C．Satisfy. D．Improve.
30．What may cause you lo fail to concentrate
A． Too many nutrients in the diet.B．Any troublesome experience.
C． Lack of glucose in your body.D．Lack of power in your brain.
31．What is the author’s suggestion
A． Putting your own health on the list.B．Eating a balanced and healthy diet.
C． Achieving your personal dreams.D．Giving your mind enough nutrients.
D
There are very few places in the desert where water is plentiful. But now a Jordanian startup has created an incredibly efficient Atmospheric Water Generating Device (AWG) that can generate water in even the driest environments. For a dry and thirsty region, this device can be a gamechanger.
Jordan is one of the most water insecure countries in the world, and with the population growing, the need for water is becoming more critical. In many areas, water is only available for 36 hours a week.
“Our situation-with the lack of natural resources and water-puts us in a position where we have to do something,” Tamer Al-Salah, managing director of BeyondCapital, a venture capital firm based in Jordan, saiD． “Climate entrepreneurship（创业）is important and it’s growing.”
“That’s where Aquaporo comes in.” CEO Kyle Cordova and engineering director Husam Almassad, “Aquaporo started working in Cordova’s research lab at Jordan’s Royal Scientific Society three years ago to develop an AWG device that could copy nature by pulling water out of the desert air. In fact, the device can pull out more than double the amount of other water harvesting devices in desert areas.”
The device uses special materials that can capture water from the desert air. The water is then purified so that it is fit for human consumption. If that were not enough, the device is also solar powered, so that it can be used anywhere.
It’s reported that the Aquaporo’s machine which is about the size of an air conditioning unit has impressed the Jordanian government so much that they have ordered 1000 units that they hope to hand out for free to families throughout the country in 2024．
In reality, the idea of collecting water from the air is not new. People have been harvesting water drops using both man-made and natural materials for thousands of years. What makes Aquaporo and its researchers so special is their ability to look to the past for solutions and use today’s technology to make those solutions even better.
32．What is the function of AWG
A．Creating an incredibly efficient device.
B．Producing water in dry and thirsty areas.
C．Purifying water in the driest environments.
D．Changing living conditions in a dry region.
33．How did researchers in Aquaporo first conduct their research work
A．By experiinenling in the laB．
B．By pulling water in the deserts.
C．By developing a suitable device.
D．By doubling the amount of water.
34．What do we know about the Aquaporo’s machine from the passage
A．It’s like an air-conditioner to generate water.
B．It is being produced by the local government.
C．It has been sent to all families free of charge.
D．It hasn’t been given to people across the country.
35．What is probably the best title to this text
A．A Device Satisfies People’s Usage of Water
B．Water is Available for Everyday Use in Jordan
C．New Starhip Creak’s Water from the Desert Air
D．Today’s Technology Makes Life Even Better
第二节（共5小题；每小题2．5分，满分12．5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
There is something magical about hiking. Whether you’re a seasoned hiker or new to the trails, hiking offers lots of benefits for mind, body and soul. 36
Boost physical fitness. 37 Although other forms of exercise are great for your health, hiking has benefits that can’t be replaced by a bike. Hiking builds muscle strength. So, not only will you enjoy the great outdoors, you will also improve your health.
Improve mental well-being. Hiking has a profound impact on your mental well-being, offering a much needed break from the stresses of daily life. 38 In addition to the fun and enjoyment you can experience, there are other real benefits you can start to observe. 39 Hiking provides a wonderful opportunity for strengthening social connections and training a sense of community. Whether you go on a hike with friends or join a hiking group, the shared experiences can be highly beneficial and can create wonderful shared memories. Hiking is hard, but it maintains your motivation. So grab a friend or join a local hiking group, and experience the joy of connecting with others while exploring nature.
Improve cognitive（认知的）function. An amazing added benefit to hiking is improved cognitive function. Engaging in physical activity while being surrounded by nature stimulates the brain, leading it to improve focus, creativity and problem-solving skills. Spending time in nature can improve cognitive function and attention span. 40 A drop in spending time in nature and in physical activity can possibly cause a cognitive decline. Who knew that the sensory experiences that you encounter during hiking could help you gain clarity and peace of mind
A．And the opposite is also true.
B．Strengthen social connections.
C．Experience the joy of getting close to nature.
D．Why not make use of the precious lime to enjoy yourself
E.Hiking is an excellent way lo improve your overall fitness.
F.Spending Lime in nature, including hiking, improves mental health.
G.So grab your hiking tools and explore the benefits to make you energized!
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Childhood should be full of friends, play, and happiness. But when children are 41 and without their peer group, they may 42 a helping hand to get back on track. That’s why schools in India are teaching 43 .
Actually, it is important to 44 kids to be resilient（有弹力的）.They needed a(n) 45 that could train students to identify emotions and ways lo channel them.
The happiness course was 46 started by the Indian government in 2018． It 47 mental health, well-being. It also encouraged 48 peer connections for elementary school children. The course included storytelling and teamwork activities.
“The happiness course is a (n) 49 , and schools should welcome it. The objectives include developing self-awareness, mindfulness, critical thinking, and helping children 50 life skills to deal with stress,” said Shikha Banerjee, the principal of the Seth Anandrarn Jaipuria School in Kanpur.
“Mindfulness is the corners to of the happiness course and its biggest 51 is that every day 1．6 million children in Delhi start their studies in school with mindfulness. It has 52 as a turning point in the lives of students studying in Delhi schools and has relieved（缓解）children from stress and 53 their focus in studies,” deputy chief minister Manish Sisodia said during the Mindful Education Awards 2021 program.
The award is an initiative to 54 the efforts of schools in creating a mentally and physically healthy 55 for the development of children through teaching mindfulness.
41．A．sad B．afraid C．lonely D．angry
42．A．need B．offer C．lend D．give
43．A．lessons B．happiness C．standard D．subjects
44．A．allow B．persuade C．train D．direct
45．A．ability B．chance C．guide D．course
46．A．gradually B．originally C．finally D．specially
47．A．focused on B．depended on C．stuck to D．consisted of
48．A．classic B, typical C．various D．positive
49．A．example B．surprise C．success D．conclusion
50．A．apply B．practise C．contain D．adapt
51．A．desire B．image C．concern D．beauty
52．A．hosted B．acted C．come D．put
53．A．limited B．located C．distracted D．increased
54．A．recognize B．measure C．advocate D．confirm
55．A．phenomenon B．environment C．qualification D．relationship
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China is emerging as a global leader in aviation（航空）decarbonization （脱碳）, according to industry experts. This development is 56．______result of the scale of the countries aviation market and 57．______ (it) new technologies and policies aimed at reducing carbon emissions（排放）, they said．
“As the world’s second-largest economy, China 58．______ (expect) to be the world’s hugest aviation market by 2030. We believe China plays an important part in aviation decarbonization with a deep impact on the decarbonization of aviation 59．______ ( global),” said Martin Thomsen, senior vice-president of Air BP, the specialized aviation division of BP, previously 60．______ (know) as British Petroleum, a London based multinational.
“We believe that this will lead to an expansion of SAF production, 61．______could supply domestic and global markets 62．______play a key role in supporting the decarbonization of supply chains,”he said.
Despite current challenges in raw material supplies, technology and policies, China’s SAF industry faces significant opportunities and 63．______ ( have) certain advantages, said Luo Zuoxian, head of intelligence and research at the Sinopec Economics and Development Research Institute.
It will make important 64．______ (contribution) in reducing carbon emissions in the aviation industry, helping achieve the carbon neutrality （碳中和）goals and 65．______ensure energy safety in SAF, he said．
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假如你是李华，你们学校下个月举办以“Enjoy My Reading”为主题的英语演讲比赛。请你写一封邮件，邀请交换生Jim参加。
内容包括：1．比赛简介；2．参赛要求；3．邀请参加。
注意：1．写作词数应为80左右；2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Jim,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The first time you give a speech is truly a special moment, a beginning of something special, and I will surely never forget the first lime that I gave a speech.
As a kid, I was extremely shy and seldom said anything. When I was twelve and about to graduate from junior school, I remember that my teacher pulled me aside one day and told me to take part in an online speech. My first thought was that giving a speech didn’t sound like much fun, but finally I agreed．
As the morning neared 9:30 a.m., I sat in front of my laptop screen nervously. I clicked the link to join “Round One”， put my nerves aside, and smiled at the other faces on the screen as my name was called to perform. Slowly, I stood and began speaking. I could only think that the other participants fell as anxious as I did．
The Novice （新手）Speech Tournament is the first Speech and Debate competition of the year specifically for first-time competitors, and this year’s event took place on October 24. Speech Team Co-Captain Anna Sheehan, a seasoned speech leader, reported her Novice experience, “I remember leaving the competition even more excited to do speech because I had seen some great pieces and was eager to improve.” After experiencing Novice myself, I completely agreed!
Two Montrosians-Josie Marcucci and I-competed while Anna Sheehan and Lucy Stefani took part as judges. Although it took place online, the Montrose Speech Team did its best to follow the normal arrangement: At 8 a.m., we met in our virtual（虚拟的）team room for warmups to help cheer ourselves up before the big day. Next, we attended a meeting for some announcements（通告）.Then, we were off to compete. In each of the three rounds, competitors had a chance to perform. In between rounds, we met as a team in our “room”. Before 1 took part, I went to my leacher for some practical help. And my teacher patted me on the back, smiling, “Clam down, and you will make it.”
注意：
1．续写词数应为150左右；2．请按如下格式在相应位置作答。
The restlessness I felt that morning went away when I finished my first performance._______________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Following Anna and Lucy’s advice, I felt more confident for the third round．_____________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
甘肃省2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试
英语答案
第一部分 听力
答案：1-5CBABB 6-10ACCAC 11-15BCAAA 16-20BBABC
听力材料
Text 1
W：Excuse me for being late.
M：Never mind. You aren’t too late. The film will start at 7:30. We still have five minutes to go.
Text 2
M：I want to buy 10 pounds of apples. How much are they
W：That’s 12 dollars in all.
Text 3
W：You bought another new book on advertisements
M：Yeah. This book has the details I need.
Text 4
W：The admission price of the gallery is ten dollars per person. I think that’s pretty expensive for a single exhibit．
M：But if we have student cards, we can get in for two.
W：Really Let’s have a try.
M：OK. Thanks.
Text 5
W：I’m here to sign up for the Management course.
M：Well，you’ll have to go to the Management Department and get this card stamped. And then you go to pay your entrance fees. After that you have to come back to sign your name and fetch the lecture notes.
Text 6
M：Can I help you
W：Yes．My daughter’s 18th birthday is drawing near, and I’d like to get her a gift.
M：What kind of gift do you prefer
W：En, I want one at a proper price and valuable for her.
M：What about a mobile phone
W：No，I bought one for her and her father gave her an MP4 last year.
M：Well，I think she’d like an iPad, which is popular nowadays among young students.
W：Sounds a good idea.I’ll take one.
Text 7
M：Hello, Lily. I’m the reporter. Would you like to answer my questions
W：Please go ahead.
M：What makes you take part in such a long race
W：I want to set an example to my son. I do exercise every day.
M：Do you mean that regular exercise makes you stay healthy
W ：Yes. Young people nowadays watch games on television and read about sports on the Internet．They say that they love sports. I can’t see any good of that.
M：I am one of them. What shall I do
W：You can start with some easy movements, such as running slowly every morning.
M：Shall I stick to one exercise
W：You can, but you are likely to keep fit through different activities.
M：Thank you. Bye.
Text 8
W：Hello, Jim. What about the presentation about environment given by our teacher on May 5
M：We are supposed to hand it in today. The teacher will give some comments.
W：I hope so. When is the presentation
M：On May 15, in the afternoon. So we still have five days left to get it finished.
W：So I think we need to leave out some of the information we’re including.
M：Yes. Mr. Smith advised us to focus on three forms of non-traditional energy. We can talk about solar and biofuels. And what about the third energy source
W：I was wondering whether we choose nuclear or wind.
M：But dealing with nuclear is more difficult for us.
W：OK. I agree with you.
M ：Then I’d like to suggest leaving out the background details.
W：I don’t think so. We should put the results on a handout. The results will clearly support our main ideas.
M：Actually, you’re right, Linda. In that case, can we leave out the diagrams It’s going to take too much time to explain them.
Text 9
W：Hi, Fred. Where did you go
M：I went to the library and borrowed some English books. What’s wrong
W：I thought you went to the post office.Did you notice the money I left on the desk
M：Yes ,＄10 altogether，but I didn’t know what it was for.
W：Didn’t you see the note I left you with the money
M：Note What note I didn’t see any note.
W：Really I left the money with a note saying I wanted you to go to the post office and get some envelopes and stamps for me .I also put the ink bottle on them in case they might not draw your attention.
M：I see now. Why can’t you go and get them yourself？The post office is only a 15 minutes’ walk from here.
W：I can’t go because I’m very busy doing some chemistry experiments in the lab.
Text 10
M：Now, listen carefully! I want to tell you about a new TV quiz show for children. It’s called Answer That, and it will be on Channel Five at 4:00 every Thursday. It will be just like the popular adult quiz show on the same channel on Monday afternoon. I’m sure you’ve all seen that. Every week there will be 48 children on the programme. They will be in 8 teams, and each team will have 6 children. The questions will be easy at the beginning of the quiz and then they will get more difficult. They will all be about films，music and TV．So it has nothing to do with your science knowledge or whether you’re good at sports or not．At the end there will be only one team left—the winners. There will be some great prizes. Last week, the winners got a mobile phone. This week the winners will all get a new camera. Everyone loves taking photos. Next week the first prize is a laptop for everyone. If you would like to be on Answer That, then call 01085639021. Just give your name, age and school address, so that we can fill in the application form for you．And maybe you will be on TV soon. OK， that’s all for me. Thank you for listening. And I wish you all a good night.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
A
【文章大意】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了几本可以在一天内看完的书。
21．A细节理解题。由“It’s a moving read but one fuelled by hope for a better future．”可知答案。故选A。
22．C细节理解题。由“What really sings here is the funny，page-turning dialogue，which Cho masters．”可知，这里真正赞颂的是有趣的且引人入胜的对白，这是作者熟悉的。故选C。
23．D细节理解题。由Things Fall Apart中提到的“tracks the journey of a local wrestling champion”可知，该书提到了摔跤冠军。故选D。
B
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了Good Deeds Day的起源与发展，和其产生的世界范围的正面影响。
24．C细节理解题。由第一段可知，“行善日是一个全年举行行善活动的重要事件，由女商人Shari Arison于2007年创办。在这个特殊的日子里，全球数百万人参与行善。”故选C。
25．B细节理解题。由第四段可知，Shari Arison解释了她是如何受到鼓舞，让人们团结起来做好事。“18年前，当我在散步时，我对自己说，如果我们把所有的善行联合起来，人们就会开始看到世界上的善良。”故选B。
26．D推理判断题。由最后一段可知，“数百名志愿者在他们的城市、海滩、自然界收集垃圾，并当即在应用程序上分享他们努力清理垃圾的照片，以显示世界范围内的效果，并互相激励。”说明不同国家的人们通过把清理垃圾的图片共享到App上，以互相激励。故选D。
27．A主旨大意题。本文介绍了“行善日”的活动，说明每个人付出一份力量，就会成就伟大的事情。故选A。
C
【文章大意】本文是一篇议论文。文章论述了正确饮食可以提高整体健康水平。
28．A细节理解题。由第一段可知，“如果你想在生活中实现更多的目标，你能做的最重要的事情之一就是照顾好自己的健康。当涉及到生产力和成功时，致力于健康和均衡的饮食可以改变游戏规则。”故选A。
29．D词义猜测题。上文提到“多吃水果和蔬菜的人会更快乐，更有创造力，是的，甚至更有效率。”下文提到“事实上，健康的饮食不仅能改善一个人的健康状况，而且似乎还能预防潜在的有害状况。”说明水果和蔬菜似乎有助于提高一个人的好奇心水平和总体幸福感。故选D。
30．C推理判断题。由第三段最后一句可知，“当你的身体缺乏葡萄糖时，当你试图集中注意力时，你可能会遇到一些麻烦。”故选C。
31．B推理判断题。由文章尾段可知，“通过均衡健康的饮食，你可以为你的身体提供最佳状态所需的营养。”由此推断，作者的建议是“均衡健康的饮食”。故选B。
D
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了从沙漠空气中提取水的方法，以缓解干旱地区的用水需求。
32．B细节理解题。由第一段可知，“但是现在，一家约旦的创业公司已经创造了一种难以置信的高效大气水生成装置（AWG），它甚至可以在最干燥的环境中生成水。对于干旱和干渴的地区，这个设备可以是一个游戏规则改变者。”说明 AWG 的功能是从大气中提取水。故选B。
33．A细节理解题。由第四段第二句可知，“三年前，Aquaporo公司首席执行官Kyle Cordova和工程总监Husam Almassad开始在Cordova位于约旦皇家科学学会的研究实验室工作，开发一种AWG设备，通过模仿自然从沙漠空气中抽取水分。”故选A。
34．D推理判断题。由第六段可知，“据报道，AquaPoro的机器有一个空调那么大，这给约旦政府留下了深刻的印象，他们已经订购了1000台，希望在2024年能够免费发放给全国的家庭。”说明暂时还没有给所有家庭发放该设备。故选D。
35．C主旨大意题。由第一段第二句可知，“但是现在，一家约旦的创业公司已经创造了一种难以置信的高效大气水生成装置（AWG），它甚至可以在最干燥的环境中生成水。”故选C。
第二节（共5小题；每小题2。5分，满分12.5分）
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。无论你是经验丰富的徒步旅行者还是新手，徒步旅行对你的身心都有很多好处。建议大家享受远足的乐趣。
36．G此处起承上启下的作用。上文提到“无论你是经验丰富的徒步旅行者还是新手，徒步旅行对你的身心都有很多好处。”此处应该是建议读者去践行。故选G。
37．E本段主题句是“Boost physical fitness．”下文内容与“fitness”有关。故选E。
38．F本段主题句是“Improve mental wellbeing．”上文提到“徒步旅行对你的心理健康有着深远的影响，为你提供了从日常生活的压力中解脱出来的机会。”说明此处应该与“mental health”有关。故选F。
39．B由下文可知，“远足为加强社会联系和培养社区意识提供了绝佳的机会。”说明本段主要讲的是与“social connections”有关的内容。故选B。
40．A上文提到“花时间在自然中可以提高认知功能和注意广度。”下文提到“花在大自然和身体活动上的时间减少可能会导致认知能力下降。”前后内容是相反的。中间需要过渡句。故选A。
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。讲述了印度一个学校开设幸福课程的背景、原因、课程和收获。
41．C由下文提到的“without their peer group”可推知，孩子们应该感到孤独（lonely）。
42．A童年应该充满朋友、玩耍和幸福。但是，当孩子们感到孤独和没有同龄人的时候，他们可能需要（need）帮忙回到正轨。
43．B这就是为什么印度的学校教授快乐（happiness）的原因。
44．C实际上，培养（train）孩子的适应能力很重要。
45．D他们需要一门课程（course）来训练学生识别情绪，以及引导情绪的方法。
46．B幸福课程最初（originally）是由印度政府在2018年推出的。
47．A该课程关注（focus on）小学生的心理健康、幸福感。
48．D由下文提到的“课程包括讲故事和团队合作活动。”可以推知，该课程也鼓励积极的（positive）同伴关系。
49．C幸福课程是成功的（success），学校应该欢迎它。
50．A目标包括培养自我意识、正念、批判性思维，以及帮助孩子运用（apply）生活技能来应对压力。
51．D正念是幸福课程的基石，它最大的魅力（beauty）在于，德里每天有160万儿童以正念开始他们的学业。
52．C它已经成为（come as）在德里学校学习的学生生活的一个转折点。
53．D该课程减轻了孩子们的压力，增加了（increase）他们的学习注意力。
54．A该奖项是一项举措，旨在认可（recognize）学校通过正念教学为儿童的发展创造一个身心健康的环境。
55．B表示“创造一个身心健康的环境”用“create a mentally and physically healthy environment”。
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了中国正在成为航空业脱碳的全球领导者。
56．a考查冠词。句意：他们表示，这种发展是该国航空市场规模及其旨在减少碳排放的新技术和政策的结果。a result of 意为“……的结果”。故填a。
57．its考查代词。修饰名词短语new technologies and policies，用形容词性物主代词。故填its。
58．is expected考查时态语态。句意：作为世界第二大经济体，中国有望在2030年成为世界最大的航空市场。表示“有望……”用be expected。故填is expected。
59．globally考查副词。句意：我们认为，中国在航空脱碳方面发挥着重要作用，对全球航空脱碳产生了深远影响。修饰介词短语with a deep impact on the decarbonization of aviation用副词形式。故填写globally。
60．known考查非谓语动词。句子的谓语是said，此处“know”用作非谓语动词，与修饰的名词Martin Thomsen构成被动关系。故填known。
61．which考查定语从句。句意：他说：“我们相信，这将导致SAF产量的扩大，从而为国内和全球市场提供供应，并在支持供应链脱碳方面发挥关键作用。”在从句中作主语，引导非限制性定语从句。故填which。
62．and考查并列连词。此处连接“supply”和“play a key role”两个动作。故填and。
63．has考查时态和主谓一致。句意：中国石化经济与发展研究院情报与研究主管罗佐贤表示，尽管中国目前在原材料供应、技术和政策方面面临挑战，但SAF行业面临着巨大的 机遇，并具备一定的优势。主语China’s SAF industry是第三人称单数形式，空格处与前面的动词faces是并列关系。故填has。
64．contributions考查名词。句意：他说，这将在减少航空业碳排放、帮助实现碳中和目标和确保SAF能源安全方面做出重要贡献。contribution可以构成短语make a contribution或者make contributions，意为“做出贡献”。故填contributions。
65．ensuring考查非谓语动词。与前面的helping构成并列关系。故填ensuring。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【参考范文】
Dear Jim,
Good news for you！Our school will hold an English Speech Contest next month. Knowing that you’re expert at this field, I couldn’t wait to inform you of the contest．
Aiming to arouse our interest in reading as well as enriching our life, our school launched this activity themed “Enjoy My Reading”. Whoever is fond of reading can participate. If interested, you are supposed to present an article first, which will be checked by the organization. After your article is approved, you can prepare for the speech.
Keep in mind that you can sign up for it in our school website by next Friday. Welcome to take part and hope you’ll achieve success.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
【参考范文】
The restlessness I felt that morning went away when I finished my first performance. It was nowhere near as worrying as I had expected. In fact，it was exciting．I couldn’t wait to do the second round. After that, Anna and Lucy told me about their experience on the judging side of things. Anna said that the judges gave specific, useful guidance to everyone they watched to help each speaker improve their future performances. Lucy said, “Making eye contact with your audience rather than a laptop camera makes it a much more personal experience.”
Following Anna and Lucy’s advice，I felt more confident for the third round．When it was my turn，I made a fluent speech confidently. Hardly had I finished my speech when I caught sight of Anna and Lucy nodding their heads, each with a big smile on their faces. Their advice, along with the feedback from the other judges, was encouraging for me and for all of the other novices as we look forward to future competitions. Honestly, giving a speech and getting some positive improvement was the first important step that I had to take.
同课章节目录