西宁市新华联北外附属外国语中学2022-2023学年高二下学期期末考试
英语试题
考试时间：120分钟 分值：150分
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How will the woman get to the city center
A. By taxi. B. By subway. C. By bus.
2. How does the man feel now
A. Sleepy. B. Excited. C. Annoyed.
3. What are the speakers talking about
A. What to eat for lunch. B. When to have lunch. C. Whether to eat out.
4. What is George’s favorite activity
A. Fishing. B. Swimming. C. Playing tennis.
5. What is the woman doing
A. Asking the way. B. Giving directions. C. Correcting a mistake.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the woman think of the match
A. Interesting. B. Discouraging. C. Boring.
7. What do the speakers plan to do on Tuesday afternoon
A. Watch a game. B. Play tennis. C. Go to the cinema.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. How did the woman know about the hotel
A. From a boss. B. From the Internet. C. From a newspaper.
9. When will the woman’s family leave the hotel
A. On September 6th. B. On August 30th. C. On August 23rd.
10. What do we know about the woman
A. She has one child.
B. She takes the man’s advice.
C. She will book rooms next to each other.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What did Peter learn from his grandfather
A. How to appreciate art works.
B. How to deal with artists.
C. How to run a museum.
12. What did Peter do in Chicago
A. He served in the army. B. He studied at a college. C. He worked in a gallery.
13. Whose works did Peter like best
A. Rembrandt’s. B. Botticelli’s. C. Rubens’.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What might be the man’s first job
A. An engineer. B. A social worker. C. A charity ambassador.
15. What is the woman learning
A. Chinese. B. Engineering. C. Art.
16. How soon will the woman graduate
A. In three terms. B. In two terms. C. In one term.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What do people often do to celebrate their 21st birthday in Las Vegas
A. Save money. B. Drink legally. C. Enjoy nice food.
18. Why did Janice ask Austin what day that day was
A. To remind him of the workday.
B. To remind him of the exact date.
C. To remind him of her birthday.
19. Who called Janice outside the door
A. Austin. B. Liza. C. Kate.
20. What is the speaker mainly talking about
A. A lovely pet. B. A disappointing party. C. A wonderful surprise.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项。
A
Four unusual festivals around the world
Wife Carrying Competition—Sonkaj rvi, Finland
Although the exact origins of the tradition are unknown because of its long history, but today, wife carrying is practiced around the world. Participants(参与者) are allowed to carry their wives in various ways—including piggyback or fireman’s carrying. The prize is awarded based on the wife’s weight in beer.
Monkey Buffet (自助餐) Festival—Lopburi, Thailand
You may consider how a monkey would taste, but this is a buffet for monkeys. The local monkeys in the Lopburi are gifted with a feast of tons of fruits, vegetables, cakes, and candies every November. After the monkeys are given their treat, youths dressed up as monkeys perform dances. The festival first occurred in 1989, run by a local businessman to drive up tourism in Lopburi. Luckily for him and the monkeys, it worked.
Mud Festival—Boryeong, ROK
The festival is not historic by any means—the first one took place in 1998—and it was originally created as a marketing event for Boryeong mud cosmetics(化妆品). The mud from the Boryeong is considered rich in natural minerals and is used to make beauty products. Popular activities include a mud pool, mud slides and mud skiing.
Tomato Festival—Bunol, Valencia, Spain
The festival has run annually in August during a week long celebration in Bunol since 1945, when a noisy crowd took the tomatoes from a vegetable stall and started a food fight. The hour-long tomato fight used up about 145,000 kg of tomatoes in 2015. Since 2013 it has been a ticketed event to limit participants to just 20,000.
21. What will you get if you win the Wife Carrying Competition
A. A wife. B. Lots of money. C. Lots of beer. D. A pig.
22. What is the purpose of creating Monkey Buffet Festival
A. To develop tourism. B. To promote mud makeups.
C. To taste the monkey. D. To sell out tomatoes.
23. Which festival is likely to have the shortest history
A. Wife Carrying Competition. B. Mud Festival.
C. Monkey Buffet Festival. D. Tomato Festival.
B
Alan Mathison Turing was born in England in 1912. Like many talents who go on to great things, Turing showed his incredible intelligence from a very young age. In fact, by the time he was halfway through primary school, Turing’s teachers had already realized he was a mathematical genius. He could do complex calculating in his head even though he had never been taught about it.
Fortunately, Turing was the opposite of Hawking, and he absolutely loved school. Proof of this is the extreme lengths he would go just to get to class. For example, on one occasion when there was a train strike, Turing even cycled 60 miles to attend. Now that’s devotion!
However, in spite of Turing’s scholarly attitude and his obvious genius, his teachers had their concerns about his future. This is because well -known schools in Britain like the ones Turing attended regarded the Classics, such as Latin and Greek as the most important, not subjects like maths and science. Turing’s proud teachers even wrote letters to his parents asking them to convince the young man to focus more on the Classics. Imagine how different the world might be if the young Turing had listened to his teachers! Thankfully, his love for all scientific and mathematical things meant there was no chance of that.
After finishing secondary school, Turing completed a degree in mathematics at King’s College Cambridge, and then obtained his PhD from Princeton University in the USA. It was during these university years that he invented the Turing Machine, which is considered by many people to be the earliest version of a computer processing unit. It sounds unbelievable that anybody could have invented something which was similar to a computer in 1936. But that just shows how far ahead of his time Alan Turing was, even when he was still a young man.
24. What can be inferred about Turing according to paragraphs 1-2
A. He was inspired by his teachers.
B. He showed a strong desire for schooling.
C. He ignored parents’ advice on course selection.
D. His intelligence was first recognized by his parents.
25. What does the writer think of the Turing Machine
A. He argues it’s still limited in many functions.
B. He doubts if it is truly invented by a young man.
C. He considers the construction of such machines impossible.
D. He thinks it has a great influence on the invention of computer.
26. What is the author’s main purpose in writing this passage
A. To indicate the link between genius and success.
B. To illustrate the invention of the Turing Machine.
C. To stress the impact of teachers’ guidance on Turing’s life.
D. To introduce Turing’s genius, scholarly attitude and achievement.
27. What does Turing’s story tell us
A. Contented with little, yet wishing for more.
B. Chances favor the minds that are prepared.
C. Nothing great was ever achieved without enthusiasm.
D. Ordinary people hope, while talented people create.
C
The Australian Koala Foundation says Australia has lost about 30 percent of its koalas(考拉) over the past three years. The non-profit group says drought(干旱), wildfires and development projects played a part in the drop in the koala population. They are asking the government to do more to protect the creature’s environment.
The group said the koala population has dropped to less than 58,000 this year from more than 80,000 in 2018. The biggest decrease(减少) was in the state of New South Wales, where the numbers have dropped by 41 percent. Deborah Tabart leads the Australian Koala Foundation. She called the drop quite huge. Only one area in the study was estimated (预估) to have more than 5 ,000 koalas. Some areas were estimated to have as few as five or ten.
Tabart said, “What we’re concerned about are places like western New South Wales where the drought over the last ten years has just had this cumulative(积累) effect, river systems completely dry for years, and red gum plants, which are the lifeblood of koalas, are dead.” The loss in New South Wales likely sped up after large forest areas were destroyed by wildfires in late 2019 and early 2020. But some of those areas already had no koalas.
Tabart said the country needs a koala protection law. Land clearing by property developers and road builders has also destroyed the koala’s environment. “I think everyone gets it that we’ve got to change. But if those bulldozers(推土机) keep working, then I really fear for the koalas,” Tabart said.
28. How did the author develop the second paragraph
A. By telling stories. B. By following the time order.
C. By giving numbers. D. By comparing opinions.
29. What do we know from paragraph 3
A. The harm to koalas from wildfires. B. The bad effect of development.
C. The death of various trees. D. Some causes of the decrease in koalas.
30. What did Tabart mainly suggest in order to protect koalas
A. Making a special law. B. Fighting against climate change.
C. Stopping housing building. D. Keeping wildfires from spreading.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Australia’s Wild Animals Are Facing Big Danger
B. Australia Lost One-Third of Its Koalas in Last Three Years
C. Effects of Australia’s Wildfires Are Beginning to Show Up
D. Koalas in Australia Could Disappear from the Earth in the Future
D
These days, it seems like everyone wants to go out into space and live on new planets. Rather than depend on another pre-existing planet, could we make a new, proper planet ourselves
To start with, if we do want to be living on it, we should find a good place in space to put the new planet. We’d want it to be in a habitable zone, meaning the planet should be at the right distance from its star to make sure there would be perfect temperatures and most importantly, liquid water.
We’d also need the right materials to make the planet. Our Earth is made up of many different elements(元素). If we made our own new planet we’d probably want it to have similar elements and a similar structure we’d also want enough water to form some oceans.
But even if we get all of the materials creating a new planet like Earth could have many troubles. It might be something more like a huge space station. It would be pretty expensive if we wanted it to be super big. We would probably also need a lot of food since there is going to be many scientists and astronauts out in space working on this project!
According to NASA, each astronaut uses about 0.83 kilograms of food per meal, including 0.12 kilograms of packaging(包装) material. Without the weight of the packaging material, we’d need about 780 kilograms of food just to feed one astronaut for a year.
Putting all these together could make it possible to make our own planet one day! In reality, creating a new planet would probably require a very modern technology and there would be tons of other things to think about. And if this is even possible, it likely won’t happen for a very long time.
32. What’s the first thing we should do if we want to create a new planet
A. To prepare enough food.
B. To design its inner structure.
C. To find a proper place to set the planet.
D. To collect materials similar to our Earth.
33. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refers to
A. The new planet. B. Outer space. C. Our Earth. D. The ocean water.
34. How much food does an astronaut actually eat each meal
A. About 0.12 kilograms. B. About 0.71 kilograms.
C. About 0.83 kilograms. D. About 0.95 kilograms.
35. What does the author think of creating a planet
A. It is a waste of money and time. B. It should be one of NASA’S next plans.
C. It is not a good idea for humans. D. It won’t come true in the near future.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
With the summer holiday just around the corner, it seems like everybody is busy planning their vacations. Here are some tips that can help you enjoy your holiday without emptying your pocket.
Travel off-season
Go to your desired destination while the demand is low and take advantage of huge discounts. During the peak season, the hotel and flight prices increase quickly, and you’ll likely spend more of your vacation time standing in line due to the rush of tourists. 36
37
Websites can help you find discount hotel rooms. Look for places that do not charge extra for children if they use the existing bedding. Stay with the locals. If you and your family are going to stay for a longer period, renting a small apartment is a good choice.
Eat like a local
Why eat at big chain restaurants when you can experience something new 38 During your family trip, try new food where the locals eat. This will not just save money, but also provide you with a new and different experience. For smaller meals and snacks, avoid restaurants and try street food or other takeout.
Don’t hesitate to bargain
Tourist-heavy places are known for overcharging for just about everything. Clothes, travel goodies, souvenirs, etc. are very expensive at these places. 39 Bargain hard to get the best price.
Choose local transportation
40 Instead, take buses, railways or subways, which are always cheaper. If you are planning to stay for a while, you can consider renting a car. Hiring a car is much easier than carrying your bags everywhere if you are moving around a lot.
A. Save on hotels. B. Surf the Internet while traveling. C. Therefore, avoid buying anything there. D. So it’s best to find out when the off-season starts. E. For this reason, you shouldn’t feel ashamed to ask for bargains. F. Planning your meals is another way to reduce your travel costs. G. As a tourist, avoid taking taxis whenever possible, since they are expensive.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Two weeks earlier, my son, Ben, had got in touch. He’d moved to England with his mum when he was three and it had been 13 years since I’d 41 seen him. So imagine my 42 when he emailed me saying he wanted to come to visit me.
I was 43 ! I arrived early at Byron Bay where we were supposed to 44 . The bay was 45 in sunshine, and there was a group of kayakers around 150m off the shore. Getting a little 46 , I realized one kayak(皮划艇) was in 47 . “Something’s not 48 !” I took off my T-shirt and 49 into the water. I saw there were two instructors on board and a man lying across the middle. He was 50 violently. Linking arms with one of the instructors. I helped 51 the young man out of the water. He was unconscious and as I looked at his face, something 52 to me. Those brown eyes were very 53 . “What’s his name ” I asked the instructor. “Ben,” he replied, and immediately I 54 . That stranger was my son!
The instructors called for an ambulance. 55 , after a brief stay in hospital, Ben was well enough to be allowed to 56 and later the family met up for dinner. We chatted about everything and then Ben 57 to me. “I just want to say thank you,” he said. “You 58 my life!”
I still can’t believe what a 59 it was. I’m just so glad I was there 60 to help my son.
41. A. also B. often C. even D. last
42. A. delight B. relief C. anger D. worry
43. A. scared B. shocked C. thrilled D. ashamed
44. A. talk B. stay C. meet D. settle
45. A. bathed B. clean C. deep D. formed
46. A. faster B. closer C. heavier D. wiser
47. A. trouble B. advance C. question D. battle
48. A. real B. right C. fair D. fit
49. A. stared B. sank C. dived D. fell
50. A. arguing B. fighting C. shouting D. shaking
51. A. lead B. persuade C. carry D. keep
52. A. happened B. occurred C. applied D. appealed
53. A. sharp B. pleasant C. attractive D. familiar
54. A. agreed B. hesitated C. doubted D. knew
55. A. Fortunately B. Frankly C. Sadly D. Suddenly
56. A. return B. relax C. speak D. leave
57. A. joked B. turned C. listened D. pointed
58. A. created B. honored C. saved D. guided
59. A. coincidence B. change C. pity D. pain
60. A. on board B. in time C. for sure D. on purpose
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
In 2020, the Nobel Peace Prize 61 (award) to the World Food Programme (WFP) for its efforts to fight hunger.
The WFP, 62 (found) in 1961, is the largest food-assistance branch of the United Nations. In emergencies, it is often the first on the scene, delivering food assistance to the victims of wars, civil conflicts, earthquakes, and crop 63 (fail) due to natural disasters. In 2019, the UN organization helped 97 million people in 88 countries 64 are victims of serious food insecurity and hunger, the 65 (high) number since 2012.
In 2015, ending hunger was adopted 66 one of the UN’s Sustainable(可持续的) Development Goals. Primarily, the WFP works to realize this goal. It works hard 67 (help) people who cannot produce or obtain enough food for 68 (they) and their families.
The WFP plays 69 important role in fighting hunger for world peace. The Nobel Committee wishes to emphasize that providing aid to increase food security not just 70 (effective) prevents hunger, but also helps to promote stability and peace.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
Dear Bill,
How time flies! I went back to school and begin my lesson last month. It will be ten months before I attend the College Entrance Examination, that makes me worried. I failed pass the English test last term because of I had difficulty with it. I will never give up and determine to give myself the second chance to pass them. I will ask my teachers and friends for advices on how to improve it and work out a detailed plan. Besides, I’ll make fully use of time. Do you have any good ideas Tell me or I will be grateful to you.
I’m looking forward to hear from you.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，下周有加拿大学生访问你校，你将作为学生代表致欢迎辞。请为此写一篇发言稿，内容包括：
1.表示欢迎；
2.介绍活动安排；
3.表达祝愿。
注意：
1.词数100左右；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
西宁市新华联北外附属外国语中学2022-2023学年高二下学期期末考试
英语试题
答案
第一部分 听力（满分30分）
1-5 BCCAA 6-10 ABCAB 11-15 ABCAC 16-20 ABCBC
第二部分 阅读理解（满分40分）
第一节：21-25 CABBD 26-30 DCCDA 31-35 BCABD
第二节：36-40 DAFEG
第三部分 语言知识运用
第一节 完形填空（满分30分）：
41-45 DACCA 46-50 BABCD 51-55C BDDA 56-60 DBCAB
第二节 语法填空（满分15分）：
61. was awarded 62. founded 63. failure(s) 64. who/that 65. highest
66. as 67. to help 68. themselves 69. an 70. effectively
第四部分 写作
第一节 短文改错（满分10分）：
Dear Bill,
How time flies! I went back to school and begin my lesson last month. It will be ten months before I attend the began
College Entrance Examination, that makes me worried. I failed ∧ pass the English test last term because of I had which to 去掉of
difficulty with it. I will never give up and determine to give myself the second chance to pass them. I will ask my
a it
teachers and friends for advices on how to improve it and work out a detailed plan. Besides, I will make fully use of
advice full
time. Do you have any good ideas Tell me or I will be grateful to you.
and
I’m looking forward to hear from you.
hearing
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
略
