重庆市渝中区名校2023-2024学年高一上学期入学考试参考答案
第一部分 听力
1—5 CABAC 6—10 BCBCC 11—15 CACAB 16—20 AABAB
单项选择
21-25 BBDCA 26-30 DCACB
阅读理解
31-33 DCB
【分析】本文为应用文。文章介绍了澳大利亚远离城市的四处旅游胜地。
31．细节理解题。根据文章第二段第一句On a visit to the World heritage-listed Blue Mountains可知，在这里可以登山，再根据第三句Besides climbing, you can choose cablecars, elevated boardwalks or the Scenic Railway—the world’s steepest train travelling through a rock tunnel, to reach the mountain top.也可知是可以登山。故选D。
32．细节理解题。根据文章第四段Located 45 minutes west of Sydney, Featherdale has the world’s largest collection of Australian native birds, mammals (哺乳动物) and reptiles (爬行动物).可知，在Featherdale Wildlife Park可以看到很多澳大利亚本土的鸟，哺乳动物和爬行动物等，所以如果是动物爱好者应该来这里，故选C。
33．细节理解题。根据文章第三段Bushwalking, boating, canoeing and fishing are also popular activities.以及最后一段Experience what this picturesque region of waterways, farmland and national parks has to offer—from waterskiing and bushwalking to horse riding, river cruises and retail therapy.可知，这两处的共同之处是都可以bushwalking，故选B。
34-37 ABCA
【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要讲的是2020年的新生儿中使用最多的名字，2020年中国最常见的五大姓氏和越来越多的孩子随母亲的姓。
34．细节理解题。根据第一段中“More than 14,000 boys were named Yichen while over 24,000 girls were given the name Yinuo. (超过1.4万名男孩被取名为“奕辰”，超过2.4万名女孩被取名为“一诺”)”可知，2020年，有超过1.4万名男婴被取名为 “奕辰”。故选A。
35．细节理解题。根据第二段中“More and more parents are giving their babies longer names to make their names stand out.(越来越多的父母为了让自己宝宝的名字引人注目，给自己的孩子取更长的名字)”可知，父母给孩子取较长的名字，是为了让孩子避免过于普通的名字，好引人注目。故选B。
36．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段中“Wang, Li, Zhang, Liu and Chen are the top five common surnames in China in 2020, the same as in 2019. 30.8 percent of the total population in China has these five surnames.(与2019年一样，王、李、张、刘、陈是2020年中国最常见的五大姓氏。这五个姓氏占中国总人口的30.8%)”可知，“王”是中国最常用的姓氏。故选C。
37．细节理解题。根据最后一段“Although the common practice is to adopt (采用) the surnames of their fathers, more children have taken their mothers’ surnames because of the country’s second child policy. (尽管通常的做法是随父姓，但由于国家的二孩政策，越来越多的孩子随母姓)”可知，越来越多的孩子随母亲的姓，因为他们是家里的第二个孩子。故选A。
38-41 DDCB
【导语】本文是说明文。如今人们花在欣赏一件艺术品上的时间很短，所以博物馆正在努力改变这种行为。全世界170多家博物馆正在庆祝“慢艺术日”，他们要求参观者至少花5-10分钟的时间来欣赏一件艺术品
34．细节理解题。根据第二段中“Many people may spend more time, but not much more—the average is about 28 seconds.(许多人可能会花费更多的时间，但不会多很多——平均时间约为28秒。)”可知，一般来说，人们花28秒钟来欣赏博物馆里的每一件艺术品，故选D。
35．词句猜测题。根据第二段“Several studies have shown that the amount of time for people to spend looking at a piece of art is ten seconds. Many people may spend more time, but not much more—the average is about 28 seconds. At the Tate Modern Museum in London, it’s even worse. People there spend an average of just eight seconds on each artwork. And in that short period of time, the visitors are also managing to do another important thing—take selfies !(一些研究表明，人们花在欣赏一件艺术品上的时间是十秒钟。许多人可能会花费更多的时间，但不会多很多——平均时间约为28秒。在伦敦的泰特现代美术馆，情况更糟。那里的人们在每件艺术品上平均只花费8秒钟。在这短短的时间里，游客们还做了另一件重要的事情——自拍！)”可知，现在游客在欣赏一件艺术品上的时间很短，即他们匆匆地看每一件艺术品。所以近年来，博物馆一直在努力改变这种行为。由此可推知，“this behavior”指的是匆匆地看每一件艺术品这种行为，故选A。
36．推理判断题。根据第三段中“Today, over 170 museums around the world are celebrating “Slow Art Day”. They are asking their visitors to spend at least 5-10 minutes looking at just one work of art.(今天，全世界170多家博物馆正在庆祝“慢艺术日”。他们要求参观者至少花5-10分钟的时间来欣赏一件艺术品)”结合第二段提到的人们现在平均花费28秒欣赏艺术作品可知，“慢艺术日”要求参观者至少花5-10分钟的时间来欣赏一件艺术品，由此可推知，设立“慢艺术日”是为了让人们花更多的时间在每一件艺术品上，故选C。
37．主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第二段中“Several studies have shown that the amount of time for people to spend looking at a piece of art is ten seconds. Many people may spend more time, but not much more—the average is about 28 seconds. ( 一些研究表明，人们花在欣赏一件艺术品上的时间是十秒钟。许多人可能会花费更多的时间，但不会多很多——平均时间约为28秒。)”和第三段中“In recent years museums have been working to change this behavior. Today, over 170 museums around the world are celebrating “Slow Art Day”. They are asking their visitors to spend at least 5-10 minutes looking at just one work of art.(近年来，博物馆一直在努力改变这种行为。今天，全世界170多家博物馆正在庆祝“慢艺术日”。他们要求参观者至少花5-10分钟的时间来欣赏一件艺术品。)”可知，如今人们花在欣赏一件艺术品上的时间很短，所以博物馆正在努力改变这种行为。全世界170多家博物馆正在庆祝“慢艺术日”，他们要求参观者至少花5-10分钟的时间来欣赏一件艺术品。由此可知，B项“博物馆: 慢下来欣赏更多！”适合做文章标题，故选B。
42-45 BDAA
【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者参加演讲比赛失败了，但在林肯的鼓舞下，决定参加第二届比赛，虽然还是没有得到好的名次，但是通过学习关于林肯的故事，作者发现自己可以成功地失败。
42．细节理解题。根据第一段中“I felt the drum rolled in my heart. (我感到心里在打鼓)”可知，作者结束演讲后感觉紧张。故选B。
43．推理判断题。根据第三段中“However, it was an indescribable feeling to drive a 200-mile round trip, get up very early on a freezing Saturday morning, and yet still finish fourth out of four competitors in my group. (然而，这是一种难以形容的感觉，开车往返200英里，在一个寒冷的周六早上起得非常早，但仍然在我的小组四名竞争者中获得第四名。)”可推知，结果他是他组的最后一名。故选D。
44．推理判断题。根据第四段“I had spent many hours in front of a computer and in libraries doing research for the Lincoln Bicentennial (200周年) Speech Contest. After not placing (获得名次) in the first year of the contest, I really wanted to compete again. Lincoln had many failures, but he never allowed them to defeat his spirit or ambition, so I was not going to give up on a second contest! (我花了很多时间在电脑前和图书馆里为林肯200周年纪念演讲比赛做研究。在比赛的第一年没有获得名次之后，我真的很想再参加一次比赛。林肯失败过很多次，但他从不让失败击垮他的精神和抱负，所以我不打算放弃第二次竞选!)”可知作者虽然演讲比赛失败了，但是仍然继续为演讲做研究，为林肯的精神所鼓舞，决定参加第二届演讲比赛，可推断作者是勇敢而坚定的，故选A。
45．推理判断题。根据最后一段“I couldn’t accept the fact that I failed twice in something that I had worked so hard on, until I thought about my hero. Never mind the lost prize money and praise—through learning stories about Lincoln, I discovered that I can fail successfully. (我无法接受自己曾经两次失败的事实，直到我想起了我心目中的英雄。虽然失去了奖金和赞扬，但通过学习林肯的故事，我发现我也可以成功地失败。)”结合文章主要讲述了作者参加演讲比赛失败了，但在林肯的鼓舞下，决定参加第二届比赛，虽然还是没有得到好的名次，但是通过学习关于林肯的故事，作者发现自己可以成功地失败。可推断作者想告诉我们要从我们绊倒的地方站起来。故选A。
46-50 ACGDF
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章简要介绍了青春期的青少年对生活的的渴望。
46．根据上文“They are asking(他们在问……)”以及下文“in order to understand their personhood(为了了解他们的人格)”可推理出空白处提到一个问题，分析待选项，A项““Who am I ”(我是谁？)”表达的含义符合语境，故选A项。
47．根据上文“Teenagers also want to be known truly and loved deeply.( 青少年也希望被人真正了解和深爱)”可知，此处上下文说的是青少年渴望归属感，与C项“They long to belong. (他们渴望归属)”表达的含义一致，故选C项。
48．根据下文“That means the teens in your Sunday school class or youth group can understand much more than just listening to simple stories.( 这意味着你的主日学校班级或青少年小组的青少年孩子可以理解的不仅仅是听简单的故事。)”可推理出此处上下文讨论的是有关青少年思考问题方面的话题，与G项“But teenagers can actually think about serious topics like death and philosophy (但青少年实际上可以思考死亡和哲学等严肃的话题)”表达的含义一致，同时与上文“Some people may have the stereotype that teenagers are strictly shallow thinkers.”（有些人可能有一种刻板印象，认为青少年只会思考一些肤浅的东西）形成转折，故选G项。
49．根据下文“The teen years are a time full of trouble and fear can go into almost every area of life-school work, friendships, church, family members, and, perhaps biggest of all, the future.( 青少年时期充满了烦恼和恐惧，几乎可以渗透到生活的每一个领域——学校作业、友谊、教堂、家庭成员，也许最重要的是，还有未来。)”可知本段主要讲的是青少年担心自己的未来，与D项“Teenagers worries about their future (青少年担心自己的未来)”表达的含义一致，故选D项。
50．根据本段主题句“●Teenagers want their lives to matter.”（青少年希望他们的生活变得重要）可知空白处讲的是关于青少年的生活的重要性这一话题，即：青少年担心他们的生活无关紧要，与F项“And one of their greatest fears is that their lives won’t matter(他们最大的恐惧之一是他们的生活无关紧要)”表达的含义一致，故选F项。
语言运用
第一节
51-55 ADCBC 56-60 ABCAD 61-65 ADACB
【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了因为汽车出故障，作者和妻子在旅行中受困，得到一位陌生人一家的热情招待，此外，雇来的司机也信守承诺修好了汽车，作者不会忘记自己感受到的温暖。
51．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：这是一段漫长的旅程，我们都很累。A. tired疲惫的，累的；B. careful小心的；C. interested感兴趣的；D. sad悲伤的。根据“It was a long ride”可知，路程漫长，作者和妻子都很累。故选A。
52．考查名词词义辨析。句意：我们试着与司机沟通，但没用。A. patience耐心；B. trouble麻烦；C. time时间；D. success成功。根据句中转折词“but”以及下文“and then left”可知，作者和司机沟通，想要解决问题，但没有成功。故选D。
53．考查动词词义辨析。句意：他做了一些手势，表示他要去寻求帮助，然后就离开了。A. provide提供；B. accept接受；C. get得到，获得；D. send发送。根据句中“then left”下文“He had kept his ___12___ and repaired the car.”可知，此处表示司机离开是为了去寻求帮助。故选C。
54．考查动词词义辨析。句意：我们能信任他吗？A. support支持；B. trust信任；C. refuse拒绝；D. answer回答。根据上文“Would our driver ever return (我们的司机会返回吗？)”可知，作者担心司机不会回来，所以此处表示是否能够信任司机。故选B。
55．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：我们非常担心。A. bored无聊的；B. pleased高兴的；C. concerned担心的；D. moved感动的。根据上文内容可知，天越来越冷，越来越黑，作者也没有多少食物，不确定司机是否会回来，所以此处表示非常担心。故选C。
56．考查动词词义辨析。句意：一个男人提出帮助我们。A. help帮助；B. call打电话；C. see看见；D. believe相信。根据下文内容可知，作者和妻子去了那个男人家里，受到热情的款待，所以此处指“一个男人主动提出帮助我们”。故选A。
57．考查动词短语辨析。句意：他有一张友善的脸，我们知道我们可以相信他。A. look after照顾；B. depend on依靠，相信；C. laugh at嘲笑；D. learn from从……中学习。根据上文“He had such a kind face”可知，作者知道可以相信他。故选B。
58．考查连词词义辨析。句意：在我们离开之前，他在我们汽车的挡风玻璃上贴了一张纸条，上面写着他的电话号码。A. Since自从；B. After在……之后；C. Before在……之前；D. If如果。根据语境，此处表示离开之前留下电话号码。故选C。
59．考查动词词义辨析。句意：我们一到他家，他的堂兄就说基本的法语，并请我们喝茶和当地食物。A. offered提供；B. delivered发表；C. sent发送；D. supplied供应。根据空后“us tea and local foods”可知，此处指提供茶水和食物，故选A。
50．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：每个人都问了我们一些问题，很兴奋有意料之外的客人。A. lucky幸运的；B. sorry抱歉的；C. sure确定的；D. excited兴奋的。根据下文“I couldn’t believe the ___14___ from the cousin: ‘No, we thank you for coming into our home.’”可知，有意料之外的客人，陌生男人的一家人都是很兴奋的。故选D。
61．考查名词词义辨析。句意：是我们的司机。A. driver司机；B. guide向导；C. guest客人；D. kid孩子。根据下文“He had kept his ___12___ and repaired the car.”可知，是作者雇来的司机打电话，告诉作者他修好了车。故选A。
62．考查名词词义辨析。句意：他信守诺言，修好了汽车。A. job工作；B. letter信；C. secret秘密；D. promise承诺。根据上文“He made some signs, suggesting he was going to ___4___ help, and then left.”可知，司机做手势，表示他要去找人帮忙，所以此处表示他遵守诺言，修好了汽车。故选D。
63．考查动词词义辨析。句意：我们准备离开，并感谢我们的新朋友。A. thanked感谢；B. served服务；C. visited拜访；D. caught抓住。根据语境，此处表示作者准备离开时，感谢新朋友一家的款待。故选A。
64．考查名词词义辨析。句意：我不敢相信堂兄的回复：“不，谢谢你来我家。”A. expectation期待；B. advice建议；C. reply回复；D. offer提议。根据下文“from the cousin: ‘No, we thank you for coming into our home.’”可知，此处表示堂兄的回复。故选C。
65．考查名词词义辨析。句意：我永远不会忘记那天我们收到的温暖。A. praise表扬；B. warmth温暖；C. education教育；D. message信息。根据语境，此处表示作者永远不会忘记自己得到帮助，感受到的温暖。故选B。
第二节
66.a 67. was moved 68. to show 69. making 70. sent 71. heroes 72. it 73. from
74. thankful 75. really
写作
略
听力材料
Text 1
M: Did you remember to correct those figures They still look the same.
W: Yes, I changed them. Just look at the next page. You’ll see.
Text 2
W: That’s the best festival I’ve ever been to!
M: Do you really think so I enjoyed it in general, but I didn’t think the dance music was as good as last year’s.
Text 3
M: Hi, Amelia. Is that a new jacket It looks really warm, perfect for our skiing trip.
W: Thanks, John! That is exactly why I got it. I can’t wait to see if it is waterproof, too.
Text 4
M: Good afternoon, madam. How can I help you
W: Well, I am a little bit out of shape. I think I should get some exercise to keep fit. What kind of service do you offer A running machine might be good for me.
Text 5
W: Have you looked in the mirror today
M: Uh, why do you ask Did I forget to do my hair or something
W: Well, let’s just say that green ties and pink shirts don’t really mix ...
Text 6
M: Mary, you’ll never guess what Ms. Jennings gave me at the office party. Two tickets to La Boheme!
W: I don’t believe it. I’ve been wanting to see it since it first opened. When are the tickets for
M: This Thursday night. I would love it if you could go with me. You’re the only one I know who appreciates good opera. The seats are in the front of the center balcony.
W: You are asking me Of course, I would love to go! I planned to do some shopping on Thursday, but I guess I’ll go tonight. I can’t go to the opera in an old dress!
Text 7
M: Good afternoon. Welcome to our TV program Good Home. My guest today is Susan Brown, a college professor who works on children’s safety in the home.
W: Hello, everyone! I’m Susan.
M: Susan! Many people think that home is the safest place for children!
W: Well, yes. But there are also unexpected dangers at home!
M: Can you tell us something about that
W: Sure. Many accidents happen at home, such as broken bones, cuts and burns. And our study shows the chance of getting broken bones is the highest among all home accidents.
M: So, how to keep safe is the most important life skill that children need to learn from an early age.
Text 8
W: I’m thinking about getting a pet. Can you give me some advice
M: How much time can you spend looking after your pet
W: I’m really busy, so I can’t feed a dog. I don’t have time to walk it every day.
M: You are right.
W: Actually, I don’t want a pet with long hair, like a cat or a dog. I don’t want a pet that could be dangerous, either, like a spider or a snake.
M: How about ants They are easy to look e here and have a look. You only need to put the ants into a glass box. The box is filled with special soil, so you don’t need to feed them. The most interesting part is that you can watch the ants digging roads in the soil.
W: It sounds good. Do you sell both the ants and the box
M: Yes.
W: How many ants should I get at least
M: Eight at least. They can live three to six months.
W: Thanks a lot. I will find out more online and come here next week.
M: That’s fine.
Text 9
M: Good morning, Ann.
W: Good morning, Mr. Jones.
M: Can you tell me what meeting I have this week
W: I will bring the diary. OK, this afternoon you have a meeting with Mike at 5:00 pm. On Wednesday, you are going to London to meet the new customer Mr. Black. Don’t forget your train leaves at 9:30 am.
M: OK. What time is my meeting in London
W: At 11:30. And on Thursday Ms. Smith wants to talk to you.
M: Who is Ms. Smith
W: She is our new project manager. She starts next week.
Text 10
W: Alan Turing was born in 1912. When he was 19, he went to study mathematics at King’s College, Cambridge. Four years later, he designed a machine to solve mathematical problems. The next year, he got his PhD at Princeton University, the USA. During 1945-1954, he worked on designs for computers. One of his most famous ideas was the Turing Test. He thought computers could be made to do everything a person could do. So his test was to see when a computer could be considered to be like a human being. He thought if a person could communicate with the computer and you couldn’t tell if you talked with a person or a computer, that computer would become just like a human being. Alan Turing had made a great contribution to human beings, but unfortunately, he killed himself for depression.重庆市渝中区名校2023-2024学年高一上学期入学考试英语
考试时间：120分钟；满分：150
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上；
2．请将答案正确填写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What did the woman do
A. She typed a paper.
B. She wrote another report.
C. She changed some numbers.
2. What did the man think of the festival this year
A. It was great as a whole.
B. It was better than last year’s.
C. The dance music was the best.
3. What are the speakers talking about
A. A skiing trip. B. A new jacket. C. The weather.
4. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a gym. B. In a hospital. C. In a clothes store.
5. What does the woman mean
A. The man should wear a tie.
B. The man forgot to do his hair.
C. The man’s clothes don’t match.
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the man want the woman to do
A. Introduce Ms. Jennings to him.
B. Go to an opera with him.
C. Help him buy tickets.
7. What will the woman do tonight
A. Attend a party. B. Work in the office. C. Do some shopping.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What is the man doing
A. Attending a lecture. B. Hosting a program. C. Holding a conference.
9. What does Susan focus on
A. Car accidents.
B. Sickness and health.
C. Children’s safety at home.
10. Which accident happens most at home
A. Cuts. B. Burns. C. Broken bones.
听第8段材料，回答第11至14题。
11. Why is the woman unwilling to keep a dog
A. She doesn’t like it.
B. There’s no room for it.
C. She is too busy to walk it.
12. How does the woman find spiders
A. Dangerous. B. Quiet. C. Interesting.
13. What animal does the woman seem to be interested in
A. Cats. B. Snakes. C. Ants.
14. What is the woman likely to do
A. Seek information online. B. Shop at another store. C. Buy a pet right away.
听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。
15. What is Ann
A. A boss. B. A secretary. C. A manager.
16. When will Mr. Jones’s train leave for London
A. At 9:30 a.m. B. At 11:30 a.m. C. At 5:00 p.m.
17. Who will Mr. Jones meet on Thursday
A. Ms. Smith. B. Mr. Black. C. Mike.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. When did Alan Turing design a machine to solve mathematical problems
A. At the age of 19. B. At the age of 23. C. At the age of 24.
19. What kind of computer can pass the Turing Test
A. One that behaves like a human.
B. One that helps people work.
C. One that looks like a human.
20. What do we know about Alan Turing
A. He studied maths in the USA.
B. He died from depression.
C. He was fond of computers since childhood.
第二部分 单项选择 （满分15分）
21.----Daisy, how do you like movie called Chang An
----Wow! It’s really movie which makes people think a lot.
a; the B. the; a C. a; a D. the; /
22. Sarah many places of interest in Beijing in the past three weeks.
A.visited B. has visited C. will visit D visits
23. Children ________ to play computer games too long. It may have a bad influence on their eyes.
A．should allow B．shouldn’t allow
C．should be allowed D．shouldn’t be allowed
24. The hall was extremely big, _______200 meters long and 100 meters wide.
A．measured B．to measure C．measuring D．measures
25. He told me many interesting places ________ he had visited.
A．which B．who C．when D．where
26. Bob is always polite to everyone, and he is lovely all of us like him very much.
A.too; to B. neither; nor C.such; that D. so; that
27. One advantage of playing the guitar is _________ it can give you a great deal of pleasure.
A. how B. why C. that D. what
28. My maths teacher lives an active life. She looks as as she was ten years ago.
A. young B. more young C. younger D. youngest
29. I’m to see the baby’s ability in music.
A. amazing; amazing B. amazing; amazed
C. amazed; amazing; D. amazed; amazed
30. ---I am very sorry, Dad. I failed the math test.
--- . You’ve tried very hard.
A.You’re welcome B. Never mind. C. Of course D. Congratulations!
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
It may seem hard to leave Sydney’s attractions and sights, but when the urge arises to explore beyond the city, many exceptional day trips await travelers.
Scenic World
On a visit to the World heritage-listed Blue Mountains, enjoy clean fresh air and breath-taking landscapes of ancient rainforests. Scenic World in Katoomba is the best way to access the beauty of this region. Besides climbing, you can choose cablecars, elevated boardwalks or the Scenic Railway—the world’s steepest train travelling through a rock tunnel, to reach the mountain top.
Royal National Park
Established in 1879, the Royal is the world’s second-oldest national park. Located an hour’s drive south of Sydney, the beaches are unspoilt, crowd-free and great for surfing or swimming. There’s dramatic scenery along the way with a range of unique heritage attractions. Bushwalking, boating, canoeing and fishing are also popular activities.
Featherdale Wildlife Park
Located 45 minutes west of Sydney, Featherdale has the world’s largest collection of Australian native birds, mammals (哺乳动物) and reptiles (爬行动物). Situated in a bushland environment, Featherdale provides a unique opportunity for up-close animal interactions (交往). Hand-feed a kangaroo, have breakfast with a koala and check out a huge variety of species including dingos, emus, penguins and more.
The Hawkesbury River
An hour north-west of Sydney, the Hawkesbury is one of New South Wales’ best-kept secrets. Experience what this picturesque region of waterways, farmland and national parks has to offer—from waterskiing and bushwalking to horse riding, river cruises and retail therapy.
31．What can you do when visiting Scenic World
A．Ride horses. B．Hand-feed a kangaroo. C．Go surfing. D．Climb mountains.
32．If you are an animal lover, you can go to ________.
A．Scenic World B．Royal National Park
C．Featherdale Wildlife Park D．The Hawkesbury River
33．What do Royal National Park and The Hawkesbury River have in common
A．Both can be reached by cablecars.
B．Bushwalking is available on the two trips.
C．Visitors can go swimming and fishing.
D．Visitors can enjoy beautiful mountain scenery.
B
According to a report from the Ministry of Public Security. Yichen (奕辰) and Yinuo (一诺) are the most popular names for newborns in 2020. More than 14,000 boys were named Yichen while over 24,000 girls were given the name Yinuo.
More and more parents are giving their babies longer names to make their names stand out. There are around 3 percent of people with four or more characters in their names.
To help avoid too common names, new parents are able to check how many people are using a certain name on the website of the Ministry of Public Security.
As to the ranking of surnames (姓), the largest group of newborns shared the surname Li, with 726,000 new babies have this surname. Wang, Li, Zhang, Liu and Chen are the top five common surnames in China in 2020, the same as in 2019. 30.8 percent of the total population in China has these five surnames.
Although the common practice is to adopt (采用) the surnames of their fathers, more children have taken their mothers’ surnames because of the country’s second child policy. In 2020, about 7.7 percent of the 10 million newborn babies used their mothers’ surnames.
34．More than 14,000 new born boys are named ________ in 2020.
A．Yichen B．Yinuo C．Yiwei D．Yihan
35．Parents give their babies longer names to ________.
A．wish a good luck B．avoid too common names
C．make more friends D．to honor their mothers
36．________ is the most commonly used surname in China.
A．Zhang B．Li C．Wang D．Liu
37．More children have taken their mothers’ surnames because ________.
A．they are the second child in their families
B．their mothers’ surnames are more popular
C．their parents follow an old tradition in China
D．their parents want to make their names special
C
In today’s world of fast-paced games and short videos, people are spending less and less time on things. For example, research has shown that the average visitor spends just 15 seconds on a website before moving on to other things. But the Internet is a huge and busy place, with millions of sites to choose from. You might expect people to slow down a bit more when they’re in museums full of great works of art. But you’d be wrong.
Several studies have shown that the amount of time for people to spend looking at a piece of art is ten seconds. Many people may spend more time, but not much more — the average is about 28 seconds. At the Tate Modern Museum in London, it’s even worse. People there spend an average of just eight seconds on each artwork. And in that short period of time, the visitors are also managing to do another important thing — take selfies !
In recent years museums have been working to change this behavior. Today, over 170 museums around the world are celebrating “Slow Art Day”. They are asking their visitors to spend at least 5-10 minutes looking at just one work of art. Slow Art supporters believe that when visitors spend more time looking at and studying the work of art, they admire it more. Studying a work of art for more time can also help people get a better understanding of the artist’s ideas and what the artist went through to create the work.
Most of the museums taking part in Slow Art Day are choosing just a few works for their visitors to see. Some of the museums are offering chances for visitors to talk about the artworks and share their ideas.
38．Generally speaking, people spend ______ on each piece of art in a museum.
A．8 seconds B．10 seconds C．15 seconds D．28 seconds
39．What do the underlined words “this behavior” refer to
A．Admiring each artwork thoroughly. B．Taking selfies in museums busily.
C．Celebrating “Slow Art Day” widely. D．Looking at each artwork hurriedly.
40．Why is “Slow Art Day” created
A．To attract more people to visit the museums
B．To stop visitors from taking selfies inside
C．To make people spend more time on each artwork
D．To give visitors an opportunity to relax themselves
41．Which of the following can be the best title of this passage
A．Museums on the Rocks: Please Advise! B．Museums: Slow down to Admire more!
C．Slow Art Day: a Fruit of Museums! D．Museums: an Escape from the Fast-paced Life!
D
I had just made a memorable speech, and I was about to learn how the judges decided my performance. The audience leaned forward and a period of silence fell across the room. I felt the drum rolled in my heart.
The third-place winner was announced. The name was not mine. Then the second-place winner, still not me. At last, the moment of truth came. I was about to either enjoy the warmth of victory or regret the months’ preparation. My heart felt closer to the latter.
Losing is a part of life, and I have dealt with it on more than one occasion. However, it was an indescribable feeling to drive a 200-mile round trip, get up very early on a freezing Saturday morning, and yet still finish fourth out of four competitors in my group.
I had spent many hours in front of a computer and in libraries doing research for the Lincoln Bicentennial (200周年) Speech Contest. After not placing (获得名次) in the first year of the contest, I really wanted to compete again. Lincoln had many failures, but he never allowed them to defeat his spirit or ambition, so I was not going to give up on a second contest! I reworked my speech for the following year, but again I did not place.
I couldn’t accept the fact that I failed twice in something that I had worked so hard on, until I thought about my hero. Never mind the lost prize money and praise—through learning stories about Lincoln, I discovered that I can fail successfully.
42．How did the author feel after finishing his speech
A．Angry. B．Nervous. C．Confused. D．Hopeful.
43．What can be inferred from Paragraph 3
A．He was regretful about his not being fully prepared.
B．He felt so disappointed and didn’t want to try again.
C．He felt upset for getting up early on a freezing morning.
D．He turned out to be the last one of his group in the contest.
44．Which of the following can best describe the author
A．Brave and determined. B．Outgoing and talented.
C．Enthusiastic and easygoing. D．Creative and attractive.
45．What does the author want to tell us
A．Stand up from where we fall. B．Don’t rely too much on others.
C．Never mind others’ judgments. D．Learn to value memories in our life.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
●Teenagers are looking for identity.
As we search for belonging, teenagers are looking for their identity. They are making the physical and emotional transition to independence and they are constantly looking for the thing that will define their lives. They are asking, 46 in order to understand their personhood, eager for the identity that will give them meaning. They want to look to romance, school, friends, popularity, money, technology, or their bodies for that meaning.
●Teenagers want to belong.
We want acceptance, which is what we so often search for online. We fear missing out because we never want to be the one who doesn’t fit in. Teenagers also want to be known truly and loved deeply. 47
●Teenagers can think.
Some people may have the stereotype(成见)that teenagers are strictly shallow thinkers. 48 That means the teens in your Sunday school class or youth group can understand much more than just listening to simple stories.
● 49
The teen years are a time full of trouble, and fear can go into almost every area of life—school, work, friendships, church, family members, and, perhaps biggest of all, the future. Life feels very much unknown to teenagers. So even though they may feel confident, or promise you they have everything planned out, they are anxious about life.
●Teenagers want their lives to matter.
50 They have studied history and now they’re ready to take their place in it. They’re ready to make their mark. They want to change the world. Finally, they want their lives to matter forever. And for that to happen, they need the belief.
A．“Who am I ”
B．Teenagers are afraid.
C．They long to belong.
D．Teenagers worry about their future.
E．Sometimes our parents may also make mistakes.
F．And one of their greatest fears is that their lives won’t matter.
G．But teenagers can actually think about serious topics like death and philosophy.
第四部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
Recently my wife and I were faced with a difficult situation while traveling by car with our hired(雇佣的) driver. It was a long ride, and we were 51 . However, our car broke down suddenly. We tried communicating with the driver, but with little 52 . He made some signs, suggesting he was going to 53 help, and then left.
It was getting colder and darker. We started to hear the cries of wild animals. What’s worse, we didn’t have much food.
Would our driver ever return Could we 54 him We were very 55 .
Two hours passed. Suddenly, the headlights from another car appeared in the dark. A man offered to 56 us. He had such a kind face, and we knew we could 57 him. We got into his car.
58 we left, he put a note on the windscreen of our car with his phone number on it. The moment we arrived at his home, his cousin spoke basic French and 59 us tea and local foods. Everyone asked us questions and was 60 to have unexpected guests.
Later that evening, the phone rang. It was our 61 . He had kept his 62 and repaired the car. We prepared to leave and 63 our new friends. I couldn’t believe the 64 from the cousin: “No, we thank you for coming into our home.”
I will never forget the 65 we received on that day.
51．A．tired B．careful C．interested D．sad
52．A．patience B．trouble C．time D．success
53．A．provide B．accept C．get D．send
54．A．support B．trust C．refuse D．answer
55．A．bored B．pleased C．concerned D．moved
56．A．help B．call C．see D．believe
57．A．look after B．depend on C．laugh at D．learn from
58．A．Since B．After C．Before D．If
59．A．offered B．delivered C．sent D．supplied
60．A．lucky B．sorry C．sure D．excited
61．A．driver B．guide C．guest D．kid
62．A．job B．letter C．secret D．promise
63．A．thanked B．served C．visited D．caught
64．A．expectation B．advice C．reply D．offer
65．A．praise B．warmth C．education D．message
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Two simple words "thank you" have made a big difference to thousands of firemen in New York City.
Savannah is 66 girl from Texas ." I was trying to think how I could help them out," she says . After hearing about firemen's sacrifices(牺牲), she 67 ( move ) by the risks they face, so Savannah made 200 thank - you cards for them." I want 68 ( show ) how much I care about them."
" I told the firemen 'thank you'," Savannah recalls ."They're always there to help you."
Savannah decided to keep 69 ( make ) cards. For the next seven months, she woke up early to paint and colour and cut. In that time, she 70 ( send )1,600 cards with bite-sized candy while meeting her 71 (hero). Soon, fire stations started thanking her.
Once too shy to give a speech at school, 72 is now easy for Savannah to speak regularly to firemen and school students. She is quite different 73 what she used to be.
"She's saying how 74 ( thank ) she is for them!" Savannah ' s Mum, Debbie, says, " Savannah sees that stepping out and doing something can 75 ( real ) make a difference."
第五部分 写作（满分25分）
随着科技的发展，越来越多的电子设备逐渐进入我们的生活中。平板电脑（pad）既可以帮助我们学习知识，又可以用来玩电子游戏。请你用英文写一篇短文，谈谈中学生使用pad的利与弊。写作要点：
1. 使用pad在学习和生活方面的好处；
2. 使用pad对学生课堂和学习产生的负面影响；
3. 提出自己的建议并说明理由。
注意：
1. 要点齐全，可适当发挥，条理清晰，意思连贯，语句通顺；
2. 写作词数80词左右；
3. 不可出现任何真实姓名或校名。
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