成都市蓉城联盟2023-2024学年高三上学期入学考试
英 语
考试时间120分钟，满分150分
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必在答题卡上将自己的姓名、座位号、准考证号用0.5毫米黑色签字笔填写清楚，考生考试条形码由监考老师粘贴在答题卡上的“贴条形码区”。
2.选择题使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上对应题目标号的位置上，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后再填涂其它答案；非选择题用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡的对应区域内作答，超出答题区域答题的答案无效；在草稿纸上、试卷上答题无效。
3.考试结束后由监考老师将答题卡收回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15.
答案是C。
1. What will Lucy do at 11:30 tomorrow
A. Go out for lunch. B. See her dentist. C. Visit a friend.
2. What is the weather like now
A. It’s sunny. B. It’s rainy. C. It’s cloudy.
3. Why does the man talk to Dr. Simpson
A. To make an apology. B. To ask for help. C. To discuss his studies.
4. How will the woman get back from the railway station
A. By train. B. By car. C. By bus.
5. What does Jenny decide to do first
A. Look for a job. B. Go on a trip. C. Get an assistant.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What time is it now
A. 1:45. B. 2:10. C. 2:15.
7. What will the man do
A. Work on a project. B. See Linda in the library. C. Meet with Professor Smith.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. What are the speakers talking about
A. Having guests this weekend.
B. Going out for sightseeing.
C. Moving into a new house.
9. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Neighbors. B. Husband and wife. C. Host and visitor.
10. What will the man do tomorrow
A. Work in his garden. B. Have a barbecue. C. Do some shopping.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。
11. Where was the man born
A. In Philadelphia. B. In Springfield. C. In Kansas.
12. What did the man like doing when he was a child
A. Drawing. B. Traveling. C. Reading.
13. What inspires the man most in his work
A. Education. B. Family love. C. Nature.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第17四个小题。
14. Why is Dorothy going to Europe
A. To attend a training program.
B. To carry out some research.
C. To take a vacation.
15. How long will Dorothy stay in Europe
A. A few days. B. Two weeks. C. Three months.
16. What does Dorothy think of her apartment
A. It’s expensive. B. It’s satisfactory. C. It’s inconvenient.
17. What does Bill offer to do for Dorothy
A. Recommend her apartment to Jim.
B. Find a new apartment for her.
C. Take care of her apartment.
听下面一段独白，回答第18至第20三个小题。
18. What are the tourists advised to do when touring London
A. Take their tour schedule.
B. Watch out for the traffic.
C. Wear comfortable shoes.
19. What will the tourists do in fifteen minutes
A. Meet the speaker. B. Go to their rooms. C. Change some money.
20. Where probably is the speaker
A. In a park. B. In a hotel. C. In a shopping centre.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Architecture is among the most valuable and respected careers in India. We’ve all heard stories about the great architectural designs, but behind these huge and artistic designs is the workmanship and crafted skills of amazing architects who are not appreciated enough. And below is a list mentioning the most notable Indian architects of all time.
Hafeez Contractor
The man responsible for the three tallest buildings in India, The 42 in Kolkata, The Imperial twin-towers of Mumbai, and Hafeez Contractor, is a recipient of the 2016 Padma Bhushan. He completed his master’s degree in Columbia after winning a scholarship for Columbia University and later designed several skyscrapers in India.
Chitra Vishwanath
The Principal Architect and MD of Biome Environment Solutions, this Bangalore based architecture is a conservationist whose works are based on ecology. Chitra is recognised for over 500 projects, she also built her own mud house in Bangalore which includes unique features such as rain-water harvesting well and is ventilated naturally with the help of trees.
Bijoy Jain
After working in Los Angeles and London, Bijoy came to Mumbai and opened his architectural firm, Studio Mumbai. He also received the Global Award for Sustainable Architecture in 2009 and is a Professor of architecture at Yale University.
Nariman Gandhi
He is considered a legend for his unconventional architectural creations which specialised in organic architecture. His ideologies and philosophies deviated (偏离) from the mainstream architectural thought. Nariman is notable for making exceptional use of rock, brick, wood, glass and leather in his works, for instance, the famous Dawood Shoe House in Mumbai.
21. What do Hafeez Contractor and Bijoy Jain have in common
A. They designed skyscrapers in India.
B. They were recipients of Padma Bhushan.
C. They had experiences of going abroad.
D. They opened their own architectural firms.
22. Which architect attaches great importance to the friendliness to ecology
A. Hafeez. B. Chitra.
C. Bijoy. D. Nariman.
23. What is special about Nariman Gandhi
A. His design breaks tradition.
B. He follows the trendy ideas.
C. He receives various awards.
D. His works are controversial.
B
There’s nothing more fascinating than an inspiring, unputdownable read. Whether it’s the latest autobiographical hit or gripping cult novel, finding a book you really connect with is always a cherished win.
As we say goodbye to our summer beach reads, we’ve already begun stockpiling a list of winter page-turners. Top of the pile: Fiona McCallum’s new novel, A Life Of Her Own.
Labelled one of Australia’s master storytellers, Fiona McCallum is known for her heart-warming stories of self-discovery and already boasts 10 bestsellers.
Her latest release is set to be no different, telling the uplifting story of overcoming adversity (逆境) and following your dreams.
The tale centres on Alice Hamilton, a recently-graduated mature-age student who is looking to make her next career move. Struggling to navigate her way through the job market, Alice is faced with the dilemma of finding a financially-secure job that she enjoys — a feat that she soon discovers to be difficult — while maintaining a healthy and committed relationship with her partner David.
Faced with the increasing pressure of unemployment, Alice interviews for a role at a major real estate agency in Melbourne and lands the job. Excited about the prospect of the new role, yet filled with anxiety about having to make new friends, Alice’s circumstances unfortunately take a turn for the worst.
Bullied and exploited (压榨) by her boss Carmel on a daily basis, Alice has to find the courage to face her fears, prioritise her wellbeing and stand up for herself. However, the consequences of her actions lead her into further trouble. As Alice’s life continues to spiral, an unexpected trip back to the country town she once fought to escape provides her with a newfound perspective on her career path and relationship.
Returning to Melbourne with clarity and a fresh outlook, Alice decides to take charge of her life. Faced with making tough decisions in order to do so, Alice has two possible outcomes: crumble under the pressure or find the strength to chase her dreams.
24. Which is closest in meaning to “page-turners” in Paragraph 2
A. Summer reads. B. Readable books.
C. Reading lovers. D. Latest novelists.
25. What does Alice decide to do upon her graduation
A. Make a career plan. B. Study a job market.
C. Find a secure job. D. Seek a new partner.
26. What is Alice probably like
A. Indecisive. B. Weak-willed.
C. Courageous. D. Kind-hearted.
27. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text
A. To introduce an Australian novel master.
B. To help readers understand a new novel.
C. To encourage to fearlessly chase dreams.
D. To recommend a winter fascinating read.
C
Warmer oceans can cause coral (珊瑚) bleaching. Bleaching happens when the coral, colonies of tiny animals called polyps, lose colored algae (藻类) living in their bodies and turn completely white. Without the algae, the coral loses its main food source and can die.
In 2021, the United Nations reported a 14 percent loss of corals across the world largely from rising sea temperatures in the previous 13 years. Australia declared mass bleaching events in 2022 across large parts of the Great Barrier Reef, the fourth since 2016.
Reefs in Hawaii, Florida, and the Caribbean were all severely affected, but thankfully some coral areas were not. Scientists looked into the characteristics of these corals and their ecosystems to see how others could be protected. Warm water reefs in the tropics are the worst affected by bleaching, but they also contain corals with better heat resistance.
Research is focused on finding genes for heat tolerance so that they can be passed on to future generations. Biologists mix corals that are more resilient to higher temperatures with those that are not and the resulting hybrid generation has a better chance of survival.
Researchers in Florida’s reefs have been using ocean nurseries to replant coral with batches that contain genes resistant to heat, acidification, and disease. Those areas have recovered within a year.
Other projects like Revive and Restore are using methods like preserving older coral populations’ sperm and eggs (biobanking) and using corals with better adaptability characteristics in breeding. The project also believes that boosting biodiversity by restoring (恢复) seabirds to islands, and ridding them of invasive species like rats, helps coral reefs thrive.
Ultimately, scientists say that without a serious reduction in greenhouse gas emissions, 99 percent of the world’s coral reefs will be gone by the end of the century. There is a limit to how quickly coral can adapt, especially given the rate of climate puter simulations have shown that mild or moderate warming allows coral to adapt, but if temperatures rise rapidly then extinction is certain.
28. What mainly causes coral bleaching
A. Loss of algae. B. Lack of food.
C. Warm oceans. D. Ocean pollution.
29. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A. Coral reefs in tropics are easier to bleach.
B. Some corals are found better to resist heat.
C. Coral reefs in some areas are badly affected.
D. Ecosystems in some coral areas are destroyed.
30. What measure helps coral reefs survive
A. Breeding hybrid generation with heat resistance.
B. Replanting batches of corals containing diseases.
C. Restoring seabirds of islands and invasive animals.
D. Setting no limitation of greenhouse gas emissions.
31. Which section may the text come from
A. Botany. B. Culture. C. Nature. D. Education.
D
I was born in a small Chinese village in the 1990s. My grandmother was a humble, hardworking farmer, but she was never able to earn much money from the land. After my parents’ divorce, I went to live with her and discovered that she had a secret part-time job. After school each day, I would join her in the landfill as a trash (垃圾) picker. She collected recyclable bottles while I hunted for unfinished ballpoint pen refills to reuse. The landfills were my first encounter with the world outside of my small town — some of the trash had come from the West.
Although she had never finished primary school, my grandmother always dreamed that I would go to college. With the money she made selling bottles, she bought food and supported my education. Throughout my upbringing, she raised me to believe that the possibilities were limitless. The confidence she instilled allowed me to move to the United States, earn a PhD in mechanical engineering, and pivot into chemical engineering during my postdoc fellowship.
I now understand that the trash from rich countries redirected to the landfills in China is part of a cycle of environmental injustice. My grandmother considered the plastic bottles she found to be treasures because they could support us financially, but millions of tons of plastic trash are still exported from developed countries every year to be stored or burned in emerging economies, polluting the ground, water, and air.
As I came to see my childhood experiences in a different light, I developed an interest in designing technologies that can address environmental injustice. I decided to work toward transforming carbon emissions into sustainable commodities, with the goal of benefiting marginalized communities. My grandmother inspired these efforts, and I hope my work will improve the lives of those like her.
When I visited my grandmother in 2019, I discovered that the town government had posted a tribute to education in the central square, which includes my story and encourages others to pursue their dreams. The display reminds me how far I have come, but the square also holds the memory of where I began: It was one of the places my grandmother and I frequented to collect trash.
What can be inferred about “me” from Paragraph 1
A. I was born into a poor family.
B. I was abandoned by my parents.
C. I had no money for primary education.
D. I began to know the west from the landfills.
33. How did grandmother influence “me” during “my” growth
A. She offered me hope and confidence. B. She taught me to love my job and life.
C. She satisfied everything that I desired. D. She advised me to design technology.
34. What does the author think of the trash from the west now
A. It is still a resource of living. B. It is a threat to environment.
C. It is a great benefit to China. D. It is a treasure of grandmother.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Trash Can Also Yield Gold
B. Every Coin Has Two Sides
C. Grandmother: A Hard-working Trash Picker
D. One’s Trash: Another’s Treasured Education
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
One day, someone had to pick colors for the traffic lights and they decided on green, yellow and red. Why is that Maybe you have never really thought about this. Or maybe you have wondered this for years. 36 . Find out more below.
To find out why these colors were chosen, it would be helpful to know where traffic lights (and their colors) come from. In 1910, the first traffic signals were installed in the country. Officers were using whistles and lights to maintain the flow of cars by letting drivers know when to stop or go. 37 . At that time, there were no rules about the kind of lights or patterns that had to be used. In 1935, the Federal Highway Administration set up the “Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices” that held standards for all signs and signals. 38 .
So, where did the specific colors come from 39 . In these traffic lights red meant stop, white meant go and green meant “proceed with caution”. But the color white could be easily mistaken for something else by train drivers, they moved from white to green for the sign for “go”. And they made yellow the color for “proceed with caution”.
But then why red The color red is the color with the longest wavelength. 40 . And that is very helpful when it comes to warning signs and traffic lights that want you to stop for safety.
A. This is why traffic lights are green, red and yellow
B. In 1920, William Potts created the first traffic light
C. And that means that you can see it from further away
D. These lights would look different everywhere you went
E. Trains already used light signals before the traffic lights
F. Either way, you will get an answer to this question today
G. That manual required the traffic lights to be red, yellow and green
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 （共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Do you remember the name of your kindergarten teacher I 41 , mine. Her name was Mrs White.
I don’t remember much about what we learned in her class, but my mother once told me that we used to 42 a lot. And I would bring back what I wrote and she would 43 it and see there were so many 44 . But no red corrections. And always a 45 . Sometimes even a Good! Scrawling in that would make my heart soar with 46 . But it worried my mother, so one day when she went in to 47 Mrs White for one of those Parent-Teacher meetings, she asked her why she never 48 my mistakes and why she never red-penciled in the right 49 of words or pointed out grammatical errors.
And my mother says Mrs White said — The children are just beginning to get 50 about using words, about forming sentences. I don’t want to 51 that enthusiasm with red ink. Spelling and grammar can wait. The 52 of words won’t...
I used to 53 “beautiful” a lot. Never could I quite remember that the “e” went before the “a”. It always 54 my teacher in high school. She figured if I was going to 55 the word with such frequency the least I could do was spell it 56 . Eventually the e’s and a’s settled into their right places 57 . I’m glad I didn’t wait on them though. Pretty is easier to spell but it doesn’t 58 as much as you mean sometimes.
And thanks to Mrs White I had no 59 about writing what I meant even if I couldn’t quite spell it out. Because Life isn’t 60 . It’s Baeutiful.
41. A. have B. do C. admit D. promise
42. A. write B. read C. sing D. smile
43. A. ask about B. throw away C. sign on D. look at
44. A. marks B. mistakes C. paintings D. points
45. A. cross B. circle C. question D. star
46. A. happiness B. spirit C. calmness D. anger
47. A. invite B. thank C. persuade D. meet
48. A. criticized B. corrected C. forgave D. spotted
49. A. spellings B. formation C. order D. definitions
50. A. puzzled B. concerned C. excited D. careful
51. A. feel B. pass C. light D. dampen
52. A. wonder B. skill C. use D. effect
53. A. hate B. mention C. misspell D. misunderstand
54. A. moved B. irritated C. frightened D. inspired
55. A. confuse B. mix C. employ D. ignore
56. A. clearly B. non-stop C. well D. right
57. A. for the sake of it B. in no time C. of their own accord D. for no reason
58. A. hold B. explain C. tell D. gain
59. A. plans B. chances C. worries D. doubts
60. A. Easy B. Pretty C. Perfect D. Dull
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
First-time 61 (visitor) to Chengdu, Sichuan province, may find it to be a city with rich cultural heritage.
They may notice the emblem of a circular gold leaf, featuring four flying birds 62 (surround) the sun, in many parts of the city — it is on the overpass of the People’s Road South leading
63 Shuangliu International Airport, on souvenirs in visitors’ destinations and on the TV screen when one tunes in to the Chengdu station.
The emblem, 64 represents Chengdu, 65 (choose) as the symbol of China Cultural Heritage by the State Administration of Cultural Heritage in 2005.
A gold-leaf sunbird, 66 (believe) to be about 3,000 years old, was excavated from the Jinsha Ruins in Chengdu in 2001. The ruins were hailed as one of Sichuan’s most important archaeological finds after the 67 (discover) of the Sanxingdui Ruins in the city of Guanghan in 1929.
In 2018, Chengdu made the decision 68 (build) itself into a world cultural city.
In recent years, Chengdu’s efforts to globalize have been sped up, 69 a series of major international cultural and sports activities have been held, laying the foundation for it to build itself into a 70 (global) known tourist city, said Guo Degang, an official with the Chengdu Municipal Bureau of Culture, Radio and Tourism.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2．只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
Watch the Chengdu Universiade was incredible experience in this special summer holiday of Senior 3. The athletes were amazing, but the atmosphere was electric. Seeing the track and field athletes showcase our strength and the swimmers glide through the water was really inspired. The cheers from the crowd made it even much exciting. The Universiade also celebrate the diversity of different culture and brought people together. It was true unforgettable to witness the talent and determination of these young athletes. I feel so lucky as to have been part of such a remarkable event.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
你校将以“新学期，新气象”为主题，举办英语征文比赛，请你以一名高三学生的身份写一篇短文投稿。内容包括：
1．对高三的认识；
2．如何迎接高三。
注意：
1．词数100左右；
2．题目已为你写好。
New Semester, New Beginnings成都市蓉城联盟2023-2024学年高三上学期入学考试
英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1～5：BCACB 6～10：ACABC 11～15：BACAC 16～20：BACAB
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
21～23：CBA 24～27：BCCD 28～31：ABAC 32～35：DABD
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
36～40：FBGEC
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
41～45：BADBD 46～50：ADBAC 51～55：DACBC 56～60：DCACB
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
61. visitors 62. surrounding 63. to 64. which 65. was chosen
66. believed 67. discovery 68. to build 69. and 70. globally
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
(
Watch
the Chengdu Universiade was
∧
incredible experience
in this special summer holiday
Watching an
of Senior 3
. The athletes were amazing,
but
the atmosphere was electric. Seeing
the track and
and
field athletes showcase
our
strength and the swimmers glide through the water
was really
their
inspired
. The cheers from the crowd made it even
much
exciting. The Universiade also
inspiring
more
celebrate
the
diversity of different
culture
and brought people together. It was
true
celebrated
cultures truly
unforgettable to witness
the talent and determination of these young athletes. I feel so lucky as
to have been part of such a remarkable event.
)
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
As I step into a new semester as a senior-year student, a wave of excitement and determination washes me over.
The new semester of senior year is critical to us seniors. It’s a time when we complete our final exams, apply for colleges, and embark on a new chapter of our lives. It’s also a time when the pressure to excel is so high that we have to face challenges head-on.
The new semester brings us a fresh start. To make the most of senior year, we should approach it with a dedicated mindset, focusing on our studies while also balancing social lives. We should stay organized, seeking help when needed, and engage in stress-relieving activities.
New semester, new beginnings. Let’s make it count.
评分标准
一、总体评分原则：评分时，先根据文章所表达的内容和语言质量初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
二、评分时，文章应包括以下四个要点：
1．恰当开头（3分）；
2．对高三的认识（10分）；
3．迎接高三的做法（10分）；
4．恰当结尾（2分）。
三、归档与打分
第五档（21～25）
1．完全表达出所有内容要点，表达充分，完全达到预期的写作目的。
2．表现出很好的语言能力，意义表达准确流畅，词汇丰富，句式多样，语言地道。有少许小的语言错误，但不影响意义表达。
3．语篇结构完整，有效地使用了衔接手段，全文连贯。
第四档（16～20）
1．表达出所有内容要点，表达较为充分，达到了预期的写作目的。
2．表现出较好的语言能力，意义表达基本准确流畅，用词与句式有一定的变化。有少许语言错误，但不影响意义表达。
3．语篇结构基本完整，能较好地运用衔接手段，全文连贯。
第三档（11～15）
1．表达出所有内容要点，表达基本清楚，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
2．表现出的语言能力一般，句式结构单一，词汇使用有限，语言错误较多，并在一定程度上影响了意义表达，但关键意义能表达出来。
3．语篇不够连贯。
4．考生如果表达出所有语言要点，原则上不降入第二档。
第二档（6～10）
1．部分表达出内容要点。
2．表现出的语言能力较差，语言错误较多，严重影响了意义表达，仅少数句子能表达意义。
3．语篇结构混乱。
第一档（1～5）
表现出的语言能力较差，基本上无完整句子，仅有一些与单词或试题要求的内容相关。
注意：
1．考生如果写出四个完整的要点，原则上定为第三、四档，即11～20分之间。语言错误相对较多，则属于第三档，即在11～15分之间；语言错误相对较少，但多数为简单句，则属于第四档，即在16～20分之间。如果考生使用了很多高级表达，且句式多样，则为第五档，即在21～25之间，不过，满分需慎重。
2．考生如果写出了全部要点，原则上分值不少于11分。若实在无句子，则降一两分。
3．考生所写内容与试题提示无关，不给分。
4．词数少于80或大于120，扣2分。
5．拼写与标点符号是体现语言准确性的一个方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写均可接受。
答案详解
第一节
A
导读：印度有名的建筑师简介。
21. C 细节理解 根据“Hafeez Contractor”部分，Hafeez Contractor在哥伦比亚大学完成学业，根据“Bijoy Jain”部分，Bijoy Jain曾在洛杉矶和伦敦工作过。
22. B 细节理解 根据“Chitra Vishwanath”部分“...this Bangalore based architecture is a conservationist whose works are based on ecology.”可知，Chitra的建筑作品很注重生态建设。
23. A 推理判断 根据“Nariman Gandhi”部分第一句和第二句可知，Nariman Gandhi的建筑作品是非传统的，他的设计理念是非主流的。
B
导读：冬季读物推介。
24. B 词义猜测 根据第二段可知，告别了夏季沙滩读物，“我们”又为读者准备了一系列的冬季读物，首推书籍当属Fiona McCallum的新小说A Life Of Her Own。
25. C 细节理解 根据第五段可知，该书的主人公Alice Hamilton是一位刚刚毕业的成年学生，她正在寻求下一个职业发展机会。她目前正面临两难选择：既要找一个自己喜欢的有经济保障的工作，还要保持与伴侣David的健康稳定的感情关系。因此毕业之后她首先要做的是找一个有保障的工作。
26. C 推理判断 根据第七段第一句可知，Alice由于在新的工作岗位上每天都受到老板的欺凌和压榨，她为了自己的健康幸福，决定站出来勇敢面对自己的恐惧。同时根据最后一段第一句，Alice回到墨尔本以后，以清晰的思路和新的眼光决定自己主导自己的生活。
27. D 写作意图 根据文章第一、二段可知，作者向读者推介冬季优秀读物，重点介绍了该书的作者和内容。
C
导读：珊瑚礁现状及应对策略。
28. A 细节理解 根据第一段第一句可知，日益变暖的海洋引起珊瑚白化，因此可排除选项C。根据本段后面内容，当生存在珊瑚体内的有色藻类植物丧失以后，珊瑚就会变白，珊瑚的白化现象也就出现了。
29. B 主旨大意 根据第三段的最后一句可知，科学家发现虽然世界上有很多地区因海洋温度逐渐升高而导致不少的珊瑚白化，但同时也有不少的珊瑚并未因温度的升高而受影响，说明这些珊瑚有更好的耐热性，这为第四段介绍科学家研究其基因作下了铺垫。
30. A 细节理解 根据第四段第二句，科学家们通过将耐受高温的珊瑚基因与普通的珊瑚基因相结合，培育杂交后代，这样的品种在高温下能更好地存活。
31. C 推理判断 文章讲述由于全球气候变暖，海洋温度升高，导致海洋里的珊瑚白化而大量死亡，面对这一现状，为拯救珊瑚，改善自然环境，科学家们采取了一系列的应对策略。
D
导读：拾荒支撑起的教育。
32. D 推理判断 根据第一段的最后一句，垃圾场是我第一次接触到小镇以外的世界，因为那里的某些垃圾来自西方国家。
33. A 细节理解 根据文章第二段第三、四句可知，祖母在通过拾荒来养育我的过程中，让我坚信，只要自己努力一切皆有可能，在我冲击一个又一个的人生目标时不断地给我灌输信心与希望。
34. B 推理判断 根据文章第三段可知，我现在明白了，我和祖母赖以为生的从西方发达国家运进来的“洋垃圾”对我们的新兴经济体造成了严重的环境污染。
35. D 主旨大意 文章讲述了作者在中国农村的成长经历，作者与勤劳的祖母以拾荒为生，通过自己的努力完成学业并回报社会。
第二节
导读：红绿灯的来历。
36. F 句间逻辑及语义 上文提到“Maybe... Or maybe...”两种情况，与选项中的“Either way”语义衔接，同时，该选项也可作为总领句引出下文。
37. B 句间结构及语义 第二段提到红绿灯的三个发展阶段。该段中提到的两个时间段“In 1910...; In 1935...”是对选项的暗示。
38. G 词汇复现及语义 空前句里的“Manual”和“signs and signals”是对选项的暗示。
39. E 词汇复现及语义 空前句里的“where”与选项里的“Trains”相呼应，同时，空后句里的“these traffic lights”是对选项的暗示。
40. C 句间逻辑及语义 空前句与选项有内在的因果关系。
完形填空
导读：幼儿园老师的影响。
41. B 考查动词 根据上下句可知，我依然记得我的幼儿园老师的名字。选项的do替代前文的remember。
42. A 考查动词 我对幼儿园老师Mrs White教授的内容不大记得了，但母亲告诉我那时我时常会写很多东西。从后句的内容可知此处的答案。
43. D 考查动词短语 那时的我总是把在学校里写的内容带回家，母亲总是会看我写的情况，总发现我写的有很多错误，老师却没有用红笔纠正，上面只有“星星”符号。
44. B 考查名词 解析见上。
45. D 考查名词 解析见上。
46. A 考查名词 作业里老师潦草画下的“星星”符号总能让我开心好一阵子，但这却让我母亲有些担忧。
47. D 考查动词 母亲利用一次家长会去会见我的老师，并询问老师为什么从来都不纠正我作业上的错误，从来都不用红笔修改我拼写出错的单词（而只是画一个“星星”符号）。
48. B 考查动词 解析见上。
49. A 考查名词 解析见上。
50. C 考查形容词 老师的回答是：孩子们才刚刚开始对词汇、句子产生兴趣，对它们的用法和形成感到兴奋，不忍用红色的叉叉浇灭孩子们刚刚燃起来的学习热情。拼写错误和语法错误可以放一放，但对孩子们在词汇、句子用法上的精妙、精彩不能缓。
51. D 考查动词 damp(adj.) + en = dampen(vt.)。解析见上。
52. A 考查名词 解析见上。
53. C 考查动词 根据后句可知 我经常把“beautiful”错误拼写成“baeutiful”。
54. B 考查动词 在我上高中之后，我还经常把“beautiful”拼写错，这让我的高中老师很抓狂。
55. C 考查动词 Mrs White认为只要我经常使用到“beautiful”这个词，我一定能将其拼写正确。employ使用，运用。
56. D 考查副词 解析见上。
57. C 考查介词短语 最终“e”和“a”自然而然地落在自己正确的位置上。of their own accord自动地、自主地；for the sake of it为了某缘故；in no time立刻；for no reason无缘无故地。
58. A 考查动词 虽然pretty比beautiful拼写起来要容易得多，但是pretty有时候并不具有你想要表达的意思。
59. C 考查名词 多亏了Mrs White，即使我无法准确拼写出单词，但这并不影响我的写作和表达，因此我一点也不担心我的写作和表达能力。
60. B 考查形容词 生活并不“Pretty”，但很“Baeutiful”（通Beautiful）。本句语义双关。
语篇填空
导读：成都金沙遗址太阳神鸟简介。
61. visitors 考查名词的数 到成都的游客数量是模糊的，此处应视为复数，符合常理。
62. surrounding 考查分词做定语 根据句子结构，此空应填动词非谓语形式，该形式作后置定语修饰中心名词four flying birds，中心名词与该空成主谓关系，且表状态，故填现在分词。
63. to 考查动词短语中的介词 lead to sp.通往某处。
64. which 考查定语从句中的关系词 该句大意为：这个代表成都的标志（徽章）在2005年被选为中国文化遗产符号。根据句义，句子主语为The emblem，谓语为choose，因此，...represents Chengdu部分应做定语修饰指物的先行词The emblem，故此处应填引导非限制性定语从句且做主语的which。
65. was chosen 考查谓语动词时态和语态 该句主语The emblem与choose构成被动关系，同时，谓语动作发生的时间是2005年，故此句用一般过去时的被动语态。句子结构解析见第64题。
66. believed 考查分词作定语 该句的谓语动词为was excavated from，believe应为非谓语形式，它与前面的被修饰词成被动关系，故填believed。
67. discovery 考查名词 作限定词the的限定对象。
68. to build 考查不定式作定语 作抽象名词decision的定语。
69. and 考查并列连词 根据前后句的语义和时态构成判定，两句为并列关系。
70. globally 考查副词 修饰分词known用副词形式。
听力原文
Text 1
M: Lucy, would you like to have lunch with me tomorrow
W: Oh, I’d really love to, but I have an appointment with my dentist at 11:30. Thanks for inviting me.
Text 2
W: Peter, how is the weather now Is it still raining
M: No, but there’s still lots of clouds. The weatherman said the sun wouldn’t come out until next week.
Text 3
M: I’m sorry I was late for class today, Dr. Simpson.
W: Well, I’ll let it go this time. But you saw it disturbed the rest of the class.
M: Yes, I realized that. I won’t let it happen again.
Text 4
W: Hi, Mike. Listen, I’m coming back this afternoon, and I’ll take a bus from the railway station. So, you don’t need to come and pick me up.
M: OK, take care, and see you soon.
Text 5
M: Jenny, there’s an opening for an assistant manager in our company. You should give it a try.
W: Thank you George, but I’ve decided to travel a bit before finding another job.
Text 6
M: By the way, do you know what time it is
W: Well, it’s a quarter to two.
M: Oh, I’ve got to go.
W: See Linda in the library
M: No. Actually I’m going to meet with Professor Smith at ten past two. You may continue our project discussion with Michael.
W: All right.
Text 7
W: Harry, guess what I’ve just received an email from Pamela. She and Peter are coming down to see us this weekend.
M: Oh, that’s good news! We haven’t seen them for ages.
W: Yeah. The last time we met them was at our wedding three years ago.
M: Did Pamela mention how long they’ll stay
W: About one week.
M: Great! I can’t wait to show them around our new house.
W: Me too. We haven’t had any guests since we moved in here. If the weather is fine, we can have a barbecue in the garden.
M: Good idea. I’ll go to the market tomorrow to buy all the things we’ll need.
Text 8
W: Hello, everyone. Welcome to our program. Today, we are fortunate to have a special guest with us. Some of you may have heard of him before. He’s an artist. His works have received many prizes and have been shown in over one hundred exhibitions across the country — Los Angeles, New York, Philadelphia, to name just a few. His name is Chris Cucksy. So Chris, tell us a bit about yourself.
M: Well, I was born in Springfield, Missouri, and grew up in Kansas. I didn’t come from a family with wealth or position, but I did manage to get a master’s degree in fine arts.
W: When did you first start to make art And what was the turning point in your life that made you an artist
M: I always liked drawing as early as I can remember, so right from then, I knew what I was going to be: an artist.
W: What is it that always inspires you to create
M: Nature is the biggest inspiration. I’m always inspired by things of beauty and harmony.
Text 9
M: You must be pretty excited about your trip to Europe, Dorothy. When are you leaving
W: In just two weeks, and I am excited. I’ve been looking forward to this training program for a long time. But there are still a few things I need to do before I go.
M: Like what
W: Like renewing my passport and figuring out what to do with my apartment while I’m gone.
M: You are not going to give it up, are you
W: No way! I’ll never find another apartment like it around here. But I don’t like the idea of paying three months for an empty apartment, either. So, I’m looking for some one to take it while I’m away.
M: Um, let me think. Oh, I know just a person. An old colleague of mine, Jim Thomas. He is coming here to do some research this summer, from June to August.
W: Well, that’s exactly when I’ll be away!
M: Tell you what: I’ll be calling Jim late this week anyway, so I’ll mention it to him.
W: Well, thanks, Bill.
Text 10
W: I hope I’ve given you a clear idea of the schedule for your London weekend. And, before I finish, let me just give you some advice which should make your stay more enjoyable. Firstly, please do remember to put on some comfortable shoes. London is a big place, and whatever you do, you’ll find yourself doing quite a lot of walking. So, comfortable shoes are really necessary. And secondly, let me ask you to please look after your money. Keep it safe at all times, and then you will not have any unpleasant accident, which could ruin your whole weekend. You’ll find a copy of your weekend’s schedule in your room. Take a look at it, and make sure you’re clear about everything. Well, that’s all from me for now. Go and leave your luggage in your rooms. I’ll be seeing you here again in fifteen minutes. Goodbye for now!
