葫芦岛市协作校2023-2024学年高二上学期12月第二次考试
英 语 试 题
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What is David doing
A. Buying a new computer.
B. Playing computer games.
C. Looking for information.
2. What will the man do during the winter break
A. Stay at home with his dog.
B. Visit some foreign friends.
C. Go skiing.
3. Where did the man get the vegetables
A. From his school.
B. From the community garden.
C. From the grocery store.
4. Where does the conversation take place
A. In a library. B. In a hotel. C. In a store.
5. What size does the woman need
A. Large. B. Medium. C. Small.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Where is the post office located
A. At the end of the road.
B. Right around the corner.
C. Next to a railway station.
7. Why does the man ask the woman to hurry
A. It is getting dark.
B. The post office is very far away.
C. The post office is closing soon.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. When does the woman want to start shopping
A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday.
9. How much will an iPad cost on the big shopping day
A. 80. B. 150. C. 75.
10. What is the most important for the man
A. Family dinner.
B. Shopping on a holiday.
C. Inviting friends over for Thanksgiving.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. Why does the woman take night classes
A. To spend her spare time.
B. To become a manager.
C. To get control of her life.
12. What does the woman mention in the conversation
A. She lives a happy life.
B. She is a single mother.
C. She can rely on her children.
13. Which course is the woman taking
A. Auto repair. B. Electrical repair. C. Business management.
听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
14. For how many nights has the woman had trouble sleeping
A. Two. B. Four. C. Three.
15. What does the man think the woman should do
A. Listen to a boring lecture.
B. Count sheep in her head.
C. Read a good book.
16. How does the woman feel about the man’s idea
A. It is funny. B. It’s clever. C. It’s boring.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Why is the flight canceled
A. The pilot has to deal with emergencies.
B. There will be a storm.
C. Something is wrong with the plane.
18. What will happen to the passengers who do not live locally
A. They will be given a hotel room.
B. They will be given a free taxi ride.
C. They will be put on buses and sent home.
19. What should passengers remember to do
A. Call the Star Airlines hotline.
B. Visit the service desk.
C. Pick up their luggage.
20. When is the announcement given
A. In the evening. B. At noon. C. In the morning.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分 37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Here are some national parks where visitors can enjoy varieties of wildlife.
Acadia National Park, Maine
The Atlantic Ocean meets the cliff-lined Maine coast at this popular park, providing habitat for wildlife with feet and flippers. From the shore, scan the water for marine life like sharks or gray seals(海豹). On land, you might spot beavers, snowshoe hares, or bobcats. In between, in the intertidal zone, tide pools hold translucent anemones, sea urchins, snails, and sea stars.
Cuyahoga Valley National Park, Ohio
The park is a mixed ecosystem of oak-hickory forest, meadows, and wetlands sheltering a variety of animals. You can see water-loving mammals or snapping turtles. More than 200 species of bird live or migrate through the park, including nesting peregrine falcons and bald eagles.
Pinnacles National Park, California
Nearly being in extinction in the 1980s, the number of mighty California condors(兀鹫)now increases again over volcanic peaks. Intense recovery efforts, including a captive breeding(圈养繁殖)program, have brought a significant increase of the population, which was just 22in 1982. If you have binoculars, you’ll have a good chance of seeing condors flying in the mornings and evenings. Others include golden eagles, peregrine falcons and bees.
Dry Tortugas National Park, Florida
Contrary to its name, water makes up 99 percent of this park. Visitors can see five species of endangered sea turtles nest on the beaches or swimming. Book a snorkeling to explore the reefs, where green sea turtles, nurse sharks, and decorator crabs live am id corals. Divers can also access the Windjammer Wreck site, where a ship that sank(沉没) in 1907 provides a home for marine life.
21. When introducing wildlife, the author divides the Acadia National Park into __________.
A. two areas B. three areas C. four areas D. five areas
22. How does the California condor increase its population
A. With another country’s technical support.
B. By hunting for food on volcanic peaks.
C. With the assistance of human beings.
D. By competing with new species.
23. In which park can visitors see a sunk ship
A. Acadia National Park. B. Cuyahoga Valley National Park.
C. Pinnacles National Park. D. Dry Tortugas National Park.
B
As for Hallie Barnard, who was born with a rare blood disorder, a song, whose main idea is about a good friendship turning bad like the bad blood, meant a lot to her. The song represents her inborn struggle with a unique blood condition and the impact it has on her life.
At just 15 months old, Hallie was diagnosed(诊断)with Diamond-Blackfan anemia(DBA), and she spent most of her life in and out of the hospital. Hallie said she relied on the singer to bring her joy. The only way to survive DBA is with a bone marrow transplant(骨髓移植)and Hallie was eager for one. But she knew thousands of other patients were, too.
So, a few years ago, she decided to do something about it, creating her own foundation, Hallie’s Heroes. “It started selfishly as just trying to save my life, but then we realized there were so many other children out there that needed a bone marrow transplant,” she said. “So, so far we’ve tested over 8,000 people and we found over 300 matches.” After a 9-year wait, Hallie got her own match through her own foundation. The recovery was hard, but Hallie said she stayed hopeful. “I would just kind of daydream. And sometimes I would listen to her music and I would daydream about the singer and meeting her and seeing her in person,” Hallie said in her social media.
When the singer’s assistant heard about Hallie’s Heroes and knew about her wish, he was inspired to help the selfless little girl who turned her own health battle into a way to help others and decided to give Hallie the surprise of a lifetime. He offered two tickets to the singer’s concert in Houston. When Hallie received a call offering her the tickets, she was shocked and enthusiastically accepted and attended the concert with her mother in the front row.
Now Hallie has recovered. She no longer has “bad blood”. Thanks to her foundation, hundreds of others can say the same.
24. Why did the author mention the main idea of a song
A. To introduce the heroine of the text.
B. To show the author’s love for the song.
C. To explain how harmful the bad blood was.
D. To highlight the impact of the song on the author.
25. What do we know about Hallie’s life before the operation
A. She felt sorrow for herself.
B. She often went to the concert.
C. She sought for a bone marrow match.
D. She prepared for her own foundation.
26. What was Hallie’s initial purpose of setting up Hallie’s Heroes
A. To help patients with DBA. B. To be known by others.
C. To see her favorite singer. D. To save herself.
27. Which of the following can best describe Hallie
A. Caring and determined. B. Selfish but capable.
C. Helpful and wealthy. D. Inactive but lucky.
C
When I was in high school, my history teacher tried an experiment with a classmate known for her enthusiastic and expressive communication style. The girl had raised her hand to answer a question, and the teacher challenged her to reply while keeping her hands folded in her lap. I’ve never forgotten the sight of her struggling to get her words out while her hands were restrained(限制).
We all, to some extent or another, talk with our hands. It’s part of how we communicate. But as Susan Goldin-Meadow, a professor and psychologist at the University of Chicago, explains in her newest book, that’s just the beginning.
What she discovered are an astonishing number of ways in which our hands not only help us to emphasize(or sometimes contradict)our spoken words, but how they also play a vital role in how we form our ideas. As Goldin-Meadow shows, even people blind from birth use gestures.
People who don’t have arms will experience a phantom(幻觉)feeling they are gesturing. We gesture when someone we’re talking to can’t see us, such as on the phone. We gesture when we’re all alone, trying to compose an email. We need to gesture to make sense of the world.
“Gestures and language really are a single integrated system. It’s not just a system that linguists study,” said Goldin-Meadow. “There’s so much information that isn’t captured by our words, and by all of the conventional things that we learn from language. For that purpose, certainly as a psychologist, I think it’s very important to take these kinds of things seriously.”
There’s a huge literature on body language. It really does convey lots of things—attitude perspective, sense of self, and more. Most of them are about how we feel, and our perception of our interaction. What the hands contribute—and the face can do this, too—is not just our attitudes to the conversation, but the content of the conversation.
28. What is the author’s purpose of writing paragraph 1
A. To introduce the topic. B. To share an experiment.
C. To tell an interesting story. D. To introduce a phenomenon.
29. How do gestures have an impact on communication
A. Limiting oral words. B. Stressing oral words.
C. Directing oral words. D. Interrupting oral words.
30. What is mostly conveyed in a speaker’s gestures
A. His habits. B. His character.
C. His contribution, D. His feelings.
31. What can be the best title for the text
A. Hand Gestures: A Way We Need To Do Everyday
B. Hand Gestures: A Language We Struggle To Understand
C. Hand Gestures: An Important And Silent Communication Method
D. Hand Gestures: An Easy Language Learning From Childhood
D
India’s robotic spacecraft landed on the moon undamagedly on August 23, 2023, a historic achievement for the country’s growing space program.
The Chandrayaan-3 mission is the first ever to touch down at the lunar south pole. Many nations and private companies have set their sights on the region because of its ice, thought to be buried in the polar craters. The natural resources are coveted because they could supply drinking water, air, and rocket fuel for future missions, ushering a new era in spaceflight.
The success also means India has been one of countries who have landed a spacecraft on the moon. The victory comes four years after India’s previous mission, Chandrayaan-2, crashed.
An Indian official, who watched the live stream from Johannesburg, South Africa, said, “On this joyous occasion, I would like to address all the people of the world: India’s successful moon mission is not just India’s alone. This success belongs to all humanity.”
About 60 years have passed since the first unpiloted(无人驾驶的)moon landings, but touching down is still demanding. The moon’s atmosphere is very thin, providing virtually no drag to slow a spacecraft down as it approaches the ground. Furthermore, there are no GPS systems on the moon to help guide a craft to its landing spot. Engineers have to make up for these shortcomings from about 239,000 miles away.
Over the past four years, private companies and other nations have tried and failed. But perhaps now there’s more hope.
The Indian official said, “I’m confident that all countries in the world including those from the global south are capable of achieving such a success. We can all aspire(渴望)to the moon and beyond.”
32. What does the underlined word “covered” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Desired. B. Legal. C. Tough. D. Balanced.
33. What can we infer about Chandrayaan-2
A. It was connected by Chandrayaan-3.
B. It landed on the south surface of the moon.
C. It fell and broke when carrying out space mission.
D. It was the first to touch down at the south pole.
34. What makes it hard to land on the moon according to the text
A. The unfamiliar process for scientists.
B. The materials used to make the spaceship.
C. The shortage of previous successful cases.
D. The limitation of the moon’s atmosphere and technology.
35. What is the Indian official’s attitude to the future space exploration
A. Indifferent. B. Positive.
C. Objective. D. Doubtful.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Snuggling(偎依)up with your little one from an early age and diving into a book together is always a great way to spend time. 36 They will give your little one a flying start in life.
Firstly, it’s a great introduction to reading, writing and vocabulary. Seeing an adult reading out the words and linking them to the shapes on the page begins to build literary building blocks that the children will use for the rest of their life. 37 It helps them build up their understanding of language as well as the wider world.
38 It boosts children’s minds and develops their social awareness and skills. At a time when they are perhaps stuck indoors more than ever before, reading is the best way to spark children’s imagination. You can travel to the moon, meet the Gruffalo and pop into a chocolate factory! This means children will have a solid creative base and develop their own story-telling skills while enjoying adventurous days at home. Fantastic lands, stories and characters can inspire play ideas for children too. However, you’ll find books fit for children are limited on your bookshelf. Don’t worry! 39 .
Reading time is a brilliant bonding tool with parents or carers, which builds up confidence and a sense of security for little ones. 40 It can even help them sleep better. Now is the perfect time to build up a library of remarkable reads ready for children to enjoy now and in the future.
A. Turning to the Internet is a good idea.
B. These stories can encourage future leaders and thinkers.
C. Reading to your children from day one has a lot of benefits.
D. Secondly, there are many brilliant effects of hearing stories.
E. It can also make them get difficult feelings, like loss or sadness.
F. Reading aloud introduces children to new words they might not hear daily.
G. A regular bedtime story create s routine which small children especially love.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Paul Durietz is a social studies teacher from Illinois. Social studies explores various aspects of human 41 and its interactions. Mr. Durietz made up his mind to be a social studies teacher when he was just 11 years old, mainly because of his 42 and love for history.
Mr. Durietz 43 his teaching job at Woodland Middle School in 1970. Ever since then, he’s been 44 social studies at the same school. He loves sharing his knowledge of history with students. “Teaching is 45 ,” he said. “Every day is different.”
Things have 46 a lot since he began teaching. These days, he and the students use 47 and digital whiteboards instead of chalk and paper textbooks. With or without technology, Mr. Durietz has used 48 activities to teach his students. For example, he has 49 virtual field trips and even mock elections to help students learn about politics. These 50 are the ones that he and his students enjoy most.
Being 51 the social studies program at Woodland Middle School, Mr. Durietz is 52 proud that his students tell him that they want to be history teachers because of him. He 53 a point that people who want to be teachers should 54 they are patient with their students. He also encourages them to choose 55 that they care deeply about. “Keep working on what you love to do in life,” he said.
41. A. consumption B. society C. virtue D. psychology
42. A. digest B. tendency C. ambition D. appetite
43. A. attained B. entrusted C. involved D. employed
44. A. making using of B. taking into account
C. applying himself to D. keeping away from
45. A. upsetting B. interesting C. boring D. shocking
46. A. showed B. damaged C. tackled D. changed
47. A. headphones B. computers C. diagrams D. recorders
48. A. creative B. conventional C. abstract D. severe
49. A. refused B. participated C. organized D. taken
50. A. games B. activities C. incidents D. awards
51. A. in need of B. in search of C. in honour of D. in charge of
52. A. extremely B. fortunately C. slightly D. instantly
53. A. forgets B. predicts C. prohibits D. demonstrates
54. A. reflect B. complain C. ensure D. explain
55. A. subjects B. properties C. drafts D. barriers
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Mountains are important sources of water supply to humans. Among the ecosystem services 56 (provide)by mountains, water supply is 57 most important because of the large quantity of free-flowing water. Mountain water resources are affected by glacier melt, snowmelt run-off or rainfall run-off.
Sustainable(可持续的)use of mountain water resources is important for both humans and global mountain biodiversity in the economic and 58 (society)context of human progress. Particular attention should be given in the water resources 59 (come)from the mountain areas. Sustainability has been 60 (previous)used as a term to describe a concern related to preservation of natural resources for future. The relation between human development and the need 61 (manage)resources forms a principle to design a dialogue regarding environmental needs. So far, a limited number of studies 62 (publish)on mountain water uses and sustainability. Most studies are focused 63 examining prevention, diversions, and mountain water storage during floods or droughts.
However, insights into water use, as well as employing state-of-the-art technologies, are very important from both a technological standpoint and as elements of practical sustainable 64 (solution). The interplay between academics, policy makers, and decision makers is important in expanding the scientific knowledge of mountain regions and the ways in 65 water resources could be used in a more sustainable way.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华,你校正在举办主题为“给未来的自己写一封信”的英语作文比赛。请你写一篇作文参赛,内容包括:
1.简单介绍现在的自己;
2.描述未来的自己。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Future Li Hua, Best regards, Present Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Birthdays were a huge deal at my workplace. Co-workers went above and beyond to shower the person of honor with food, decorations, affirmations, love and, yes, embarrassment on their special day. As one who preferred to go unnoticed and felt embarrassed at being the center of attention, I was horrified to walk in on my birthday to see my desk decorated with glitter y streamers, and a hot pink sash(饰带)with the words, “Kneel! I’m the Birthday Princess”. I was forced to wear for the duration of the day.
Although embarrassed by the display, I felt extremely loved. I thoroughly enjoyed the pleasant flowers and delicious chocolate cake my co-workers gave me.
Several months after my birthday celebration, our office welcomed Laura, a new member, to the team. Hired as our office manager’s assistant, Laura was also tasked with establishing a human resources department. Possessing an ambitious vision and receiving trust from our manager, she immediately made major changes—which were not well received. Gradually, Laura became the centre of gossip(闲言碎语).
When Laura’s spring birthday neared, it was evident that no one wanted to celebrate. I understood why no one wanted to go all-out in celebrating Laura’s birthday, but it bothered me nevertheless. As an extremely shy and introverted(内向的)individual, being left out or ignored was nothing foreign to me, and it pained me to think of the deliberate effort to ignore her birthday. Although she drove me crazy, too, I knew her time in our office had not been easy.
Stopping by our local grocery store, I selected some rosy-pink tulips and a birthday card in which I wrote a heartfelt note highlighting some of Laura’s qualities I admired, such as her ambitious spirit, creativity, and strong inner drive. Arriving an hour early to work the morning of her birthday, I transformed her corner of the office just like what my co-workers did for my birthday.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I watched Laura spot her decorated work area when she arrived. The friendship between Laura and me began since the lunch and continued to grow over the years.
葫芦岛市协作校2023-2024学年高二上学期12月第二次考试
英语试题参考答案
听力部分录音材料
听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两节。
注意:做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
停顿 00’10”
现在是听力试音时间。
M: Hello. International Friends Club. Can I help you
W: Oh, hello. I read about your club in the paper today and I thought I’d phone to find out a bit more.
M: Yes, certainly. Well, we are a sort of social club for people from different countries. It’s quite a new club—we have about 50 members at the moment, but we are growing all the time.
W: That sounds interesting. I’m British actually, and I came to Washington about three months ago. I’m looking for ways to meet people. Er, what kinds of events do you organize
M: Well, we have social get-togethers, and sports events, and we also have language evenings.
W: Could you tell me something about the language evenings
M: Yes. Every day except Thursday we have a language evening. People can come and practice their languages—you know, over a drink or something. We have different languages on different evenings. Monday—Spanish; Tuesday—Italian; Wednesday—German; and Friday—French. On Thursday we usually have a meal in a restaurant for anyone who wants to come.
W: Well, that sounds great. I really need to practice my French.
M: OK. Well, if you can just give me your name and address, I’ll send you the form and some more information. If you join now, you can have the first month free.
试音到此结束。
听力考试正式开始。
停顿00’10”
请看听力部分第一节。
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。停顿00’02”
例如:现在你有5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。
停顿00’05”
你将听到以下内容:
M: Excuse me. Can you tell me how much the shirt is
W: Yes, it’s nine fifteen.
停顿00’02”
你将有5秒钟的时间将正确答案画在试卷上。
停顿00’05”
衬衫的价格为9镑15便士,所以你选择C项,并将其画在试卷上。
现在,你有5秒钟的时间阅读第1小题的有关内容。
停顿00’05”
(Text 1)
W: David, you have been sitting in front of the computer. Are you playing games
M: No, I am looking for some information about Los Angeles, because I am going to travel there next week.
(Text 2)
W: Are you coming skiing with us during winter break
M: No. Unfortunately, I have to stay at home with my dog.
(Text 3)
W: Did you buy all of those vegetables at the store
M: No. I got them from the community garden. I volunteer there after school two days a week, so I am allowed to take these home for free!
(Text 4)
M: My daughter will play a role of rabbit on the coming International Children’s Day. Do you have the dress of it
W: Yes, please follow me to the upstairs.
(Text 5)
W: Excuse me. Do you have this dress in a large size
M: What size do you have now
W: Medium. But it is a little bit tight for me.
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。现在,你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
(Text 6)
W: Excuse me, sir Can you tell me the quickest way to the post office from here
M: Yes, of course. It’s right around the corner. Just keep walking straight down this road, and then make a left at the next crossroads. It should be on your left-hand side next to a bus station. You’d better hurry, though. It’ll close in about ten minutes.
W: Okay, great, thank you so much for your help!
M: No problem. I hope you can make it on time.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 7)
W: Help me make a list of what to buy on Friday.
M: Please don’t tell me your shopping plan on that day.
W: Well. I was actually going to start on Thursday.
M: No way! I won’t allow that. You cannot ruin our Thanksgiving dinner because you need to buy some useless stuff.
W: But the deals are too good to pass up! 80% off TVs,75% off clothes... You can even get a new iPad for only 150 at some stores!
M: I’m sorry, but forget about it. We don’t need to keep buying things, especially on a holiday. We cannot ruin our family time for things we don’t really need.
听下面一段对话,回答第11至第13三个小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 8)
M: What are your views about continuing education
W: I suppose it’s a good thing. I’ve been taking some classes myself at night, trying to get control of my life.
M: I see. So what kind of the class are you taking
W: I’m taking class in auto repair.
M: Auto repair Is that a necessary thing for you to have, do you feel
W: I think it is. I’m single. I have children, and I need to know how to do things myself. I have no one else to rely on. So I think it’s an important skill for me to have.
M: Is there anything else that you are studying
W: Nothing else right now. I’m hoping next term to take some courses in computer or electrical repair, something like that.
听下面一段对话,回答第14至第16三个小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 9)
M: Why are you turning so much You’re constantly waking me up.
W: I’m sorry. I just can’t fall asleep!
M: I don’t know what’s wrong with you. This is the third night in a row.
W: I really want to be able to sleep. What should I do
M: Did you try counting sheep
W: You mean, like in the cartoons Do you think that if I imagine sheep jumping over a fence one at a time, I’ll be able to sleep
M: It does sound silly, but it might work.
W: That sounds boring. Any other ideas
M: It’s supposed to be boring. That’s why it puts you to sleep. Don’t you fall asleep whenever you read a really boring history book And didn’t you ever fall asleep during a boring class at school When the teacher’s voice had no character, it just went on and on and on...
W: Keep talking... I’m almost asleep.
听下面一段独白,回答第17至第20四个小题。现在,你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 10)
M: Attention, ladies and gentlemen. I am sorry to announce that Flight 814 to Hong Kong has been canceled this evening due to bad weather. The approaching storm is making take-off a serious safety concern, so we hope that you understand why we must, for now, remain on the ground. As soon as the weather improves, we will book you on the next available flight to Hong Kong. In the meanwhile, we will arrange a taxi for those of you who live close by. All other passengers will be arranged to sleep in a local hotel. We promise to tell you as soon as we are able to book you onto another flight. Also, please do not forget to pick up your luggage before you leave the airport. If you have any questions or concerns, please feel free to step up to the service desk where an airline agent will assist you. We apologize for the inconvenience and greatly appreciate your patience. On behalf of everyone at Star Airlines, we wish you a pleasant evening.
第二节到此结束。
现在,你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
听力部分到此结束。
试题答案
1~5 CABCA 6~10 BCABA 11~15 CBACB 16~20 CBACA
21~23 BCD 24~27 ACDA 28~31 ABDC 32~35 ACDB 36~40 CFDAG
41~45 BDACB 46~50 DBACB 51~55 DADCA
56. provided 57. the 58. social ing 60. previously
61. to manage 62. have been published
63. on 64. solutions 65. which
写作
第一节
参考范文:
Dear Future Li Hua,
Hi, I’m Li Hua, your present self. I’m passionate about English and dream of becoming a translator in the future. I am also fond of traveling and exploring new cultures.
In my imagination, your life is filled with more opportunities and challenges. You graduate from a prestigious university and then get a master’s degree in a foreign country. With your language skills and cultural knowledge, you plan to work in the field of international relations and promote cultural understanding between nations.
Despite the obstacles that may arise, I’m confident that your strong determination and unremitting efforts will help you realize your dreams.
Best regards,
Present Li Hua
第二节
参考范文:
I watched Laura spot her decorated work area when she arrived. She stopped dead in her tracks. She looked around confusedly, and then our eyes met. She seemed to have known the source of the birthday surprise. Later that morning, she invited me to have lunch with her at the restaurant close to our office. Over the lunch, she told me she was extremely sorrowful that morning because her family were not around and she felt ignored. Laura tearfully expressed the great impact my efforts had on her who expected a gesture of kindness and love more than she knew. Realizing how similar we were, I hugged her firmly.
The friendship between Laura and me began since the lunch and continued to grow over the years. Laura and I became inseparable friends. We supported each other through the ups and downs and formed a close bond that extended beyond the workplace. We discovered shared interests and spent weekends exploring new restaurants, going on hikes, and attending art exhibitions. We realized small gestures of kindness for our co-workers on their birthdays were important, which ensured that no one felt left out or ignored and made the office culture more compassionate and empathetic.