H7联考 高一年级英语科试卷（2023.11）
考试说明：本试卷满分130分钟；考试时间90分钟。
第一部分 听力（无）
第二部分 阅读（共三节，满分40分）
第一节（共10小题：每小题2分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
We’ve explored London many times and come away with quite a few lessons. Here are our tips.
Visiting Buckingham Palace
Being London’s most famous landmark, this 775-room building is where Queen Elizabeth hosted feasts (盛宴) and met heads of state. But if you’re dreaming of taking a visit to it, you’ll need to plan your trip carefully. The palace is typically only open during the summer months from July 23rd to October 3rd. Visiting hours are from 9:30 a.m. to 6:30 p.m. If you’re visiting when the palace isn’t available to tour, you can still see the Changing of the Guard.
Hitting the London Eye
The London Eye is a playful addition (添加) to the city skyline. Standing near centuries-old buildings, this huge Ferris wheel spins (旋转) slowly over the left bank of the Thames, serving up views over the London Bridge and the Shard to the west, plus a wide perspective (视野) of the Palace of Westminster. Buy your tickets beforehand online, choose a clear day and go first thing in the morning to avoid the crowds peak.
Drinking afternoon tea
Afternoon tea is reason enough to come to London. The British have taken a simple tea break and turned it into a luxurious (奢侈的) ceremony, complete with patterned china, fine plates of finger sandwiches, cakes and scones in cream and jam. When making a booking, remember that afternoon tea isn’t a snack but a full meal with sweet and salty elements (元素), and you’ll be full. The smart move is to leave out lunch and maybe even dinner.
1. Which is a suitable time to visit Buckingham Palace
A. July 18, 10:00 a.m. B. Aug. 23, 8:30 a.m.
C. Sep. 27, 3:00 p.m. D. Oct. 2, 7:30 p.m.
2. Which of the following makes the London Eye an attraction
A. Being a necessary part of London’s skyline.
B. Going round quickly by the Thames.
C. Being more convenient than the nearby buildings.
D. Offering chance to view places of interest.
3. What tip is given to visitors who want to drink afternoon tea
A. Take it as a simple tea break.
B. Bring along a complete set of china.
C. Don’t eat too many sweet snacks.
D. Don’t have lunch before going to it.
B
In a classroom in rural Kenya’s Rift Valley, a student, Priscilla Sitienei, takes notes alongside her fellow classmates. She wears the same school uniform. However, there is something different.
Sitienei is more than 80 years older than them. February 11 was Sitienei’s ninety-ninth birthday. “The main reason for my returning to school was that I would like to become a doctor because I used to be a midwife (助产士),” she said. She added that her children supported her decision.
Back in 2003, the government of the East African country began helping to pay for the cost of primary schooling. This has allowed some older members of society, who had missed out on education in their younger days, to go back to school.
This has given Sitienei more than an education. She has become a film star. Sitienei travelled to Paris last year for the launch (发布) of a film about her journey. It is titled Gogo, which means grandmother in her native Kalenjin language. She will also be heading to New York City soon for a showing of the film there.
Sitienei is in her sixth year of primary school. She said her aims were far more practical than becoming a movie star. She said, “I also enjoy school activities, including physical education classes. They keep me fit. I get to jump around, even though not as much as they do, but I at least move my body. That is my joy.”
Sitienei shares her wide experience and knowledge with the children. Her teachers also use her experience to keep the peace during lessons. Her class teacher, Leonida Talaam, said, “I use Sitienei to help control the class. And it works! When I go outside, the class remains silent.”
4. What does Sitienei mainly intend to do by going to school
A. Take up a new career. B. Make herself popular.
C. Have more classmates. D. Return to society.
5. Why did Sitienei go to Paris last year
A. She wanted to meet her grandma. B. She wanted to learn the native language.
C. Her movie would come out there. D. Her new journey plan was to be announced.
6. Which of the following best describes Sitienei
A. Dependent. B. Creative. C. Honest. D. Energetic.
7. What does Sitienei help her teachers do
A. Keep order in class. B. Organize school activities.
C. Stop the students going out. D. Inspire the students to work out.
C
Do you need to throw your smartphone away to live your best life Not necessarily, according to researchers from Ruhr-Universit t Bochum who suggest that we could all benefit from cutting down on screen time – just only a little bit time.
On average, we spend more than three hours a day looking at our smartphone screens. Between social media, news feeds, endless video games, and an app for pretty much everything else, there’s always something to draw our attention. In recent years, researchers have found connections between smartphones and many modern problems ranging from increasing anxiety cases to neck pain. So here comes the question: Are people all really better off changing back to landlines (座机)
“The smartphone is both a benefit and a danger,” says study leader Dr. Julia Brailovskaia, whose team set out to answer that question by gathering together 619 volunteers, hoping to know how much the smartphone is good for us. For a week, two hundred people put their smartphones completely aside; 226 reduced the amount of time they used the device (装置) by one hour a day; 193 people didn’t change anything in their behavior.
Researchers interviewed each person about both their lifestyle habits and well-being (健康) four months later after the experimental week ended. “We found that both completely giving up the smartphone and reducing its daily use by one hour had positive effects on the well-being of the participants (参与者),” as Brailovskaia studies and reports the upshots. Especially, changing their smartphone habits for just one week appeared to produce lasting outcomes among volunteers. Even four months afterward, participants who were told to avoid using their smartphones totally were using their phones for an average of 38 minutes less per day.
Meanwhile, the “one hour less” group were using their phones as much as 45 minutes less per day after four months. This group also showed improved life satisfaction, more exercise, and less depression (抑郁). “It’s not necessary to completely give up the smartphone to feel better,” Brailovskaia concludes.
8. What can we know about the volunteers in the research
A. They received some training beforehand.
B. They were divided into two groups.
C. They were interviewed months later about their habits and health.
D. They completely gave up using their smartphones after the research.
9. Which word can replace the underlined word “upshots” in Paragraph 4
A. Results. B. Reasons. C. Doubts. D. Purposes.
10. What did Brailovskaia want to prove through the research
A. No smartphone use is the best policy.
B. Less use of smartphones brings health benefits.
C. Using smartphones more can reduce depression.
D. Smartphones show little improvement in our lives.
第二节 语句排序 （共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分）
_____ → 12._____ → 13._____ → 14._____ → 15.______
将下列几个部分（A、B 、C、D和E）按题号排序，构成一个符合逻辑的完整语篇。
A. Unlike many other AAC applications, Freespeech's buttons are easily editable, a feature Archer believed was important to how Della wanted to communicate. It wasn't long before the Calder family noticed a change in how Della was able to communicate with them.
B. Archer, therefore, began using his coding(编程)abilities to help his sister communicate. The boy developed a web-based application called Freespeech. The site can be accessed from any device --phones, tablets and computers -- with Internet access. The simple website lets users program buttons with pictures of their choice to represent words. When clicked, the word is sounded out loud.
C. Archer made his website free for anyone to use and posted it on TikTok, hoping it might reach other families like his who might find it useful.
D.“In the past, when we had to go somewhere, we just took her. She never really discussed it with us,” the father said. “Freespeech has really helped to bring her more into the conversation and more into the life of our family." The family says it has also helped them discover more of her personality.
E. Della, Archer Calder’s sister, has Bainbridge-Ropers syndrome, a condition which affects her ability to speak. In her early teens, she was introduced to augmentative and alternative(增强型和替代型)communication(AAC) applications, programs designed to help people who have trouble with speech or language skills. Some applications were quite expensive, but her family was disappointed with the results.
第三节 选句填空 （共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
It’s easy to talk yourself out of exercising. Even when you have the best intentions to work out, excuses are so easy to find – “I’m too tired”, “I’m busy” or “The weather is bad”. Don’t worry! ____16____
※ Take baby steps.
You’ll never try to run 10 miles just in a single day, right When you do too much too soon, you’ll end up injured and disappointed. Take it easy as you get started. Maybe you only run a quarter of a mile during your first week. ____17____
※____18____
Your workout should be just as much a habit as brushing your teeth or eating breakfast. When it’s part of your routine (日常), you won’t even have to think about it. In a few months, fitness can be regular in your day.
※ Keep it real.
You’re not going to shake off 30 pounds in a week. ____19____ For example, If you work too late to get to a gym, keep a set of weights at home. If you can’t do 30 minutes at once, break it up into 10 or 15 minutes’ sections. Gradually, you should increase your workout schedule from 2 to 3 days a week, or exercise for 15 more minutes each time.
※Celebrate.
____20____ So even a pound of weight loss or a pound of muscle gain is the reason to reward (奖励) yourself. Go out with friends or buy a pair of jeans.
A. Do it for yourself.
B. Try to get used to it.
C. It takes weeks to see real changes.
D. Keep a fitness diary to record your progress.
E. Aim for something that is realistic as a first step.
F. The following ways can keep your fitness schedule on track.
G. When it gets easy for you, you’ll surely make it more challenging.
第三部分综合运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Renee William and her friend were happy on the way to a football game. But in all of the ___21___, they accidentally headed out without their tickets! They had to go back. By the time they arrived at the stadium, it was almost time for kick-off (开球). Then they got more ___22___ news.
As it turned out, the stadium had restrictions (限制) on the ___23___ of bags allowed to enter. And Renee’s handbag was too large. She was about to ___24___ when a couple suggested Renee have a nearby homeless man ___25___ it.
That sounded unbelievable, but no ___26___ than throwing away a good handbag. She decided to put her ___27___ in the stranger. So, she gave the homeless man five dollars and asked if he would ___28___ keep an eye on her handbag until she finished watching the game.
Renee admitted (承认) her expectation of ever ___29___ the homeless man again was ___30___. When she came out, ___31___, there he was. The man had spent three hours staying in place with her handbag, just as he ___32___.
Renee had not ___33___ the homeless man to keep his word. Through this experience, Renee learnt a valuable lesson: you can’t really ___34___ what’s inside a book just by looking at the ___35___!
21. A. stress B. encouragement C. excitement D. confidence
22. A. hopeful B. terrible C. boring D. different
23. A. length B. width C. size D. weight
24. A. give up B. turn up C. pay off D. set off
25. A. take B. watch C. leave D. buy
26. A. better B. cleverer C. more D. crazier
27. A. trust B. patience C. pressure D. courage
28. A. proudly B. nervously C. eagerly D. kindly
29. A. visiting B. seeing C. following D. helping
30. A. wrong B. clear C. low D. common
31. A. however B. therefore C. again D. instead
32. A. applied B. planned C. believed D. promised
33. A. expected B. preferred C. required D. reminded
34. A. consider B. revise C. tell D. find
35. A. editor B. cover C. writer D. list
第二节 语法填空（共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Fame can sometimes come at unexpected moments, like an uninvited but welcome guest ___36___ (knock) at the door. This was the case for Wang Xiukun. In a live webinar (网络研讨会) organized by the United Nations’ Secretary-General’s Envoy on Youth, ___37___ 23-year-old graduate student, as the only Chinese youth representative (代表), introduced China’s anti-pandemic (抗疫) experience and achievements ___38___ young people throughout the world. She also shared her stories of volunteering.
When Wang was still in primary school, ___39___ (encourage) by her parents, she started taking part in community services such as helping clean the streets ___40___ (protect) the city’s image (形象) in her hometown.
And it was the contribution ___41___ she made to the city during the epidemic that made her stand out. Wang Xiukun, along with other four ambitious young people, organized “Caring for Children of Frontline Medical Staff” program and ___42___ (match) more than 1,500 volunteers from WHU with the families of 641 healthcare workers. The program provided ___43___ (profession) online lessons and psychological counseling (心理辅导) for teenagers aged from 5 to 18 years old.
While doing the online service, Wang ___44___ (full) realized that volunteering is not only about helping others, but it also greatly inspires her to overcome the difficulties and make a ___45___ (different).
第四部分 词汇基础（共两节，满分25分）
词义匹配 （共15题，每小题1分，满分15）
46. expert A.provide or furnish with
awkward B.make strong or stronger
attractive C.time available for ease and relaxation
expectation D.wishing with confidence of fulfillment
strengthen E.a person with special knowledge or ability who performs skillfully
F.pleasing to the eye or mind especially through beauty or charm
G.lacking grace or skill in manner or movement or performance
entertainment A.close interaction
tradition B.lacking stability or fixity or firmness
unstable C.fairness in following the rules of the game
contact D.an inherited pattern of thought or action
sportsmanship E.an activity that is diverting and that holds the attention
F.very difficult; severely testing stamina or resolution
G.of a feature that helps to distinguish a person or thing
tough be around
scare put an end to a state or an activity
effort having unexpected good fortune
relief use of physical or mental energy; hard work
quit sudden mass fear and anxiety over anticipated events
very difficult; severely testing stamina or resolution
the feeling that comes when something burdensome is removed or reduced
第二节 单词拼写（共10题，每小题1分，满分10）
根据前后文及所给单词的首字母或者汉语提示，写出该单词的正确形式。
61.What the teacher said built up our _____________(自信).
62.Knowing Jack’s difficulties, many students ____________(自愿) to help him out last year.
63. Zhang Tian set out to the village with an _____________(热切的)heart.
64.Listening to music can __________(释放，减轻) our stress.
65.C______________on winning the first prize！All your efforts has paid off.
66. Paul made shot after shot, and the crowd couldn’t stop c___________and cheering.
67.This is a Chinese t____________, passing down from generation to generation.
68. Tu Youyou makes great c___________to the development of medicine, pushing it to a new height.
69. Children ______________(受益于)from reading various novels.
70. Those interested in the program please fill in the a_____________form.
第五部分：书面表达 （共两节，满分35分）
第一节 完成句子 （共2题，每小题5分，满分10分）
根据前后文及所给中文在空格处用适合的英文完成句子。
71.The secretary________________________________________(厌烦每天做同样的工作) and she decided to quit.
72.My brother ______________________(觉得很难适应新的校园生活).
第二节 应用文写作（满分25分）
假定你是李华，你的美国朋友Peter来信，说他在每次重要考试来临之前，都会感到十分焦虑，为此写信向你寻求建议。请根据以下提示，用英语给Peter写一封建议信，内容包括：
1. 表示理解；2. 具体建议；3. 表达祝愿。
注意：
1.词数80左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯;
3.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Peter,
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours，
Li Hua高一年级H7联考 （2023.11）
英语科参考答案
第二部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分 40 分）
第一节（共 10 小题：每小题 2 分，满分 20 分）
-3. C D D 4--7 A C D A 8--10 C A B
语句排序 （共 5 小题：每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
11-15 E B A D C
第三节 选句填空（共 5 小题：每小题 2分, 满分 10 分）
16—20 F G B E C
第三部分 综合运用（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题：每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
21—25. CBCAB 26—30. DADBC 31—35. ADACB
第二节 语法填空（共 10 小题：每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
36. knocking 37. the 38. to 39. encouraged 40. to protect
41. that/which 42. matched 43. professional 44. fully 45. difference
第四部分 词汇基础（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 词义匹配 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
46-50 E G F D B 51-55 E D B A C 56-60 F E D G B
第二节单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
61. confidence 62. volunteered 63. eager 64. relieve 65. congratulations 66. clapping 67. tradition
68.contribution(s) 69.benefit 70.application
第五部分 书面表达（共两节，满分35分）
第一节句型和语块（共2小题；每小题5分，满分10分）
was fed up with doing the same job every day
finds it hard to adapt to the new school life.
第二节 应用文（满分 25 分）
One possible version:
Dear Peter,
Sorry to hear that you feel stressed before important exams. I’m writing to offer some tips.
First, it’s important to know that exams are only a way to check our studies. Therefore, there is no need to worry too much about the results. And we should turn that stress into power to encourage ourselves to study harder. To reduce stress, we’d better be organized by making a study plan. Besides, it does help to take regular exercise or listen to music to relieve stress before an exam.
Hopefully, my advice will be of some use. Wish you great progress in your study.
Yours,
Li Hua
一、应用文写作评分原则
1. 本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次最后给分。
3. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
4. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、 美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
二、内容要点
1. 表示理解；2. 具体建议；3. 表达祝愿。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
【说明】内容要点可用不同方式表达；应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。
第五档 20~25 分
----完全完成了试题规定的任务；覆盖所有内容要点； 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇；语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所 致，具备较强的语言运用能力；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 15~20 分
---完全完成了试题规定的任务； 虽漏掉 1、2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求； 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或 词汇所致； 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 10~15 分
-----基本完成了试题规定的任务；虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 5~10 分
-----未适当完成试题规定的任务；漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；语法结构单调，词汇项目有限；有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 0~5 分
-----未完成试题规定的任务；明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求；语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解；缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。
0 分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关 或所写内容无法看清。
