山东省德州市乐陵市2022-2023学年九年级上学期期末考试英语试题（含答案，无音频及听力原文）

2022—2023学年度第一学期期末质量检测九年级
英语试题
注意事项：
1. 本试题共六个大题，有选择题和非选择题；选择题计80分，非选择题计70分；试卷总分150分。考试时间120分钟；
2. 考生应将答案全部答在答题卡上，注意答题卡相关要求。考试结束后，将答题卡收回。
一、听力测试（共25小题；1-20小题，每小题1分；21-25小题，每小题2分；总计30分；每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间）
(一) 录音中有五个句子，每个句子听两遍，然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。（5分）
1. A. Have a good time. B. Good idea! C. Pretty good!
2. A. It doesn’t matter. B. That’s all right. C. Certainly.
3. A. I think so. B. So do I. C. Me neither.
4. A. Sounds great. B. Promise! C. Good luck.
5. A. That’s nice of her. B. That’s too expensive. C. Take it easy.
(二) 录音中有三个句子，每个句子对应一幅图片，每个句子听两遍，然后选择与句子内容相对应的图片。（3分）
6.________ 7.________ 8.________
A B C
(三) 录音中有五组对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。（5分）
9. What will the woman do next
A. Turn on the light. B. Turn off the light. C. Turn up the light.
10. What does the girl want to do this afternoon
A. Play football. B. Play basketball. C. See a movie.
11. When is the library open on weekends
A. 8am. B. 10am. C. 6pm.
12. How did the woman get home yesterday afternoon
A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By car.
13. Why didn’t the girl pass the exam
A. Because she didn’t work hard.
B. Because she had a headache.
C. Because she had a fever.
(四) 录音中有一段长对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。（4分）
14. Who will the woman buy the dress for
A. Herself. B. Her sister. C. Her daughter.
15. What color dress does the woman want
A. White. B. Blue. C. Yellow.
16. What do we know about the woman
A. She is tall and thin.
B. She wants to lose weight.
C. She needs a middle sized dress.
17. How much should the woman pay for the dress
A. 40. B. 80. C. 88.
(五) 录音中有三小段独白，听独白两遍后，根据独白内容，将信息配对。（3分）
18. Sam A. had a vacation in Australia.
19. Laura B. travelled to Hong Kong with his classmates.
20. Henry C. is going to spend a holiday in Dalian.
(六) 听力填表（共5小题；录音播放前，你有20秒钟的读题时间）。（10分）
Plans to Go Hiking
Time At 21.__________ this Sunday.
Where to meet At school gate
What to do To go on a 22.__________ kilometres hike.
Attention Wear comfortable shoes, and take 23.__________ water and food.
What else Talk about how to 24.__________ the earth Have a picnic. Do what we like, such as singing, 25.__________ and playing games. Take some photos to remember the happy time.
二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2.5分，计50分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题A、B、C、D中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
Recently I went to Sydney with my parents. We visited the Wildlife Park.
The Wildlife Park has lots of different animals. Some are native to Australians and can only be found there. There are more than 500 animals there, including kangaroos, koalas and crocodiles (鳄鱼). They are kept in their natural environment. I like the Wildlife Park better than a zoo. In zoos, most of the animals are in cages.
We first spent some time with the kangaroos. We could touch and feel them. It was very exciting to be so close to them. There were koalas there too. They looked very cute. Although we couldn’t carry koalas, I could take a photo with one. . It is a wonderful souvenir (纪念品) of my holiday in Sydney.
The Wildlife Park has plenty of freshwater crocodiles and saltwater crocodiles. Some of them are very big and scary (可怕的) with huge teeth! I did not want to get too close to them.
There was also a bird show. The keepers showed us different kinds of birds. I saw an old parrot. It could “talk” and made a great impression on me.
I enjoy the trip very much. There was so much to see.
26. The Wildlife Park is ________.
A. in Sydney B. in Cairo C. in Athens D. in Rome
27. What is a wonderful souvenir of the writer’s holiday
A. A parrot that could talk. B. A chance to feed a koala.
C. A photo with a koala. D. Food for the kangaroos.
28. Why didn’t the writer want to get very close to the crocodiles
A. They lived in water.
B. The writer was afraid of them.
C. The writer did not want to feed them.
D. The writer did not like the smell of saltwater.
29. Which of the following is true
A. The kangaroos are kept in cages in the Wildlife Park.
B. The writer traveled to the Wildlife Park alone.
C. The writer went to see koalas first.
D. The writer watched a bird show.
30. After visiting the Wildlife Park, the writer felt ________.
A. bored B. unhappy C. excited D. hopeless
B
Teenagers are known for being creative and full of new ideas. Let’s have a look at these teenager inventions that might change the world.
Banana leaves usually go bad in two or three days. Tenith Adithyaa, a teenager from India, used UV to make the leaves stay fresh for a year. Tenith thinks that one day the leaves will be used for making plates, cups and other things.
David Cohen, an American teenager, built an earthworm robot. It is able to go into the smallest places, where humans or dogs can’t go. It will be used for finding people in a fire or an earthquake.
Remya Jose, a 14-year-old from India, found it tiring and boring to hand wash clothes in the nearby river. She reused some bicycle parts and created a washing machine that saves time, energy and keeps people fit at the same time.
Kenneth Shinozuku, a 15-year-old from New York, noticed that his grandfather who got Alzheimer’s disease (老年痴呆) would often leave home and get lost. So he invented the wearable sensors (感应器) to help people find their family members like his grandfather.
31. Tenish Adithyaa used UV to make the leaves stay fresh for ________.
A. one day B. two or three days C. one year D. two years
32. The earthworm robot by David Cohen can ________.
A. make things stay fresh B. help people wash clothes
C. get into the smallest places D. cause a fire or an earthquake
33. The special washing machine by Remya ________.
A. wastes energy B. can make plates
C. is boring and tiring D. can help people keep healthy
34. People who get Alzheimer’s disease often ________.
A. help people in a fire B. invent wearable sensors
C. find their family members D. can’t find their way back home
35. The passage is mainly about ________.
A. teenagers’ inventions B. useful machines
C. the changes of the world D. some teenagers in India
C
China didn’t send its first astronaut into space until October 2003. Astronaut training, however, began much earlier than this. At first. China wanted pilots only in the army based on the age, height, weight and service history (at least 800 flying hours). The experience of managing to deal with an emergency (突发事件) while in flight was seen as a big advantage.
In the 1990s, the nation hand-picked its first group of 14 astronauts among over 1,500 fighter jet pilot. Yang Liwei, Nie Haisheng and Liu Boming were included.
Most of their training took place in the Beijing Aerospace City. The trainees spent their first year getting basic knowledge in subjects like maths, electronics and astronomy. Over the following three years, they picked up other skills that were necessary for spaceflights. They were required to know about all the equipment on the Shenzhou Spaceship, as well as every potential (潜在的) spaceflight task. They also received survival training that would be very useful in the event of a crash landing (迫降).
The astronaut trainees were put under great physical and psychological (心理上的) stress through the whole training period. They fitted themselves with the weight lessness of outer space in a large water tank and then on a special plane. A human centrifuge (人体离心机) was used for their high-G load training. While fixed to the machine, a trainee would feel as if really heavy weights were being put on the body. Even though the experience was awful, the trainee had to try to hang in there.
Before a flight task, the trainees would be separated into different groups to receive a special ten-month training course. Exactly which team would stop flying the task would be decided only days before its final takeoff.
36. When did China send its first astronaut into space
A. Before October 2003. B. In October 2003.
C. In the 1990s. D. In 1990.
37. Put the following events in the right order.
① Pick up other necessary skills for spaceflights.
② Spend their first year getting basic knowledge.
③ Be chosen for the first group of astronauts.
④ Receive a special ten-month training course
A. ③②④① B. ④③①② C. ③②①④ D. ③④②①
38. From Paragraph 4, we know that astronauts should be ________ to complete the training.
A. smart B. hard-working C. weak D. brave
39. What does the underlined word “survival” mean ________
A. remain alive B. technology level C. science skills D. physical skills
40. What is the best title of this passage
A. A Visit to the Spaceship B. Astronauts Training in China
C. Awful Experience in Astronaut Training D. The Way to Outer Space
D
Curriculum (课程) to include household skills
By ZOU SHUO | China Daily | Updated: 2022-05-07
Starting from the coming autumn term. students in primary and middle schools will have at least one lesson every week to learn simple but necessary housework skills such as cleaning and cooking. Labor (劳动) lessons cover mainly housework, productive labor, and services. The lessons are good for students.
Primary school students in first and second grades need to do simple but necessary cleaning, wash vegetables and peel fruit and learn to raise one or two kinds of plants or small animals. Third and fourth graders should clean their classrooms, wash their underwear, socks and shoes, and know how to make cold dishes. Fifth and sixth graders should know the skills of cooking two or three common dishes. For middle school students they are encouraged to cook three or four dishes by themselves, learn how to make one or two kinds of traditional handicrafts (手工艺), and experience one or two types of industrial (工业的) labor, new technologies modern service or volunteer work.
People welcome such lessons and say it’s necessary to teach young students housework skills. Yang Tianping, a mother of a first grader in Beijing says she supports teaching students such lessons because they can help students learn some necessary labor skills. Wang Liwei, a teacher from Hubei says that by learning basic skills like cooking, cleaning and maintaining home appliances (电器), children can learn how to take care of themselves and live independently. Parents won’t always be there to help their children with every problem they’ll meet in their lives. They need to learn new things, make mistakes, solve problems and grow from their experiences. It is necessary for children to learn these important lifesaving skills as early as possible.
41. When will students have Labor lessons
A. This spring term B. This autumn term
C. Next spring term D. Next autumn term
42. First graders should learn to ________.
A. raise a cat or rabbit at home B. wash their socks everyday
C. cook simple meals D. learn paper cutting
43. Bill’s teacher asks him to be a volunteer in the school library, he may be in ________.
A. Grade One B. Grade Three C. Grade Five D. Grade Eight
44. What is the third paragraph mainly about
A. How the labor lessons develop. B. What students learn in labor classes.
C. Why parents should teach about labor. D. How people think about labor lessons.
45. The passage is ________.
A. a story B. a poem C. a piece of news D. an advertisement (广告)
三、短文还原（共5空，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读短文，从短文下面方框中的六个句子中选择五个还原到短文中，使短文通顺完整衔接自然。
In hospital, a doctor always gives you a note to get the medicine from the chemist (药剂师). (46)__________ but sometimes doctors write so badly that chemists can’t understand them.
My mother wrote to a doctor to invite him to have dinner at our home last week. The doctor wrote an answer, (47)__________ “What shall I do ” She said to my father, “(48)__________ I don’t want to give him a telephone call and say I can’t read his writing.” My father thought for a moment and then had an idea. (49)__________
She went to the chemist’s shop and gave the doctor’s note to the chemist. (50)__________ Then he said politely, “Could you please wait for a few minutes, madam ” He went to the back of the shop. After 2 minutes he returned, carrying a large bottle. He gave the bottle to my mother and said, “Three times a day and one teaspoon at a time.”
A. My mother agreed to do that. B. The chemist looked at it very carefully. C. I don’t know whether he is coming or not. D. Chemists have more chances to read doctors’ notes. E. but he didn’t write clearly and my mother couldn’t read it. F. Although my mother couldn’t read the note, she wanted to invite the doctor.
四、综合填空（共20空，每空1.5分，计30分）
A
阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从下面方框中所给11个词中选择10个意义相符的词，必要时进行词形变化，填入空白处，每空一词。
If, healthy, we, but, habit. instead, two, good, final, without, happy
Health is important to us. What should we do to keep healthy
First, We need to have healthy eating (51)__________. Breakfast gives us enough energy for the morning. So we should not go to school (52)__________ breakfast. Fruit and vegetables are good for your health, but fast food, like potato chips, will make us fat and (53)__________. So we should eat the right food to keep us healthy.
(54)__________, playing sports can also help us keep fit. But sometimes accidents can happen, so we should try to stay safe when we play sports. It’s necessary for us to learn about first aid. Then we can help (55)__________ or others if an accident happens.
Third, (56)__________ is important for your health. It is the (57)__________ medicine. When we are ill, we should try to be happy and we’ll feel better. On the other hand, we may feel ill (58)__________ we are always unhappy.
(59)__________, We must avoid smoking and drinking. Many students think it’s cool to smoke and drink. (60)__________ they don’t know smoking or drinking can cause many illnesses. We should say no to smoking and drinking.
B
阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从下面方框内所给11个词中选择10个意义相符的词填入空白处，必要时添加助动词或者情态动词。
move, get, make, have, snow, park, not know, leave, think, hurry, sit
One winter morning, the wind was blowing strongly. While Bob and his wife (61)__________ breakfast, they heard the announcer (广播员) say, “Attention, please! It (62)__________in a few hours. You must park your cars on the north side of the street so that the snowplow (铲雪车) (63)__________through on the south side.”
Hearing this, Bob’s wife shouted, “Bob, (64)__________ up. We’d better move our car in a short time.”
A week later it was at breakfast again, the radio announcer said, “We are expecting a heavy snow today. Your cars (65)__________ on the south side of the street so the snowplow can get through on the other side.”
Bob’s wife went out and (66)__________ her car again.
The next week, it was also time for breakfast, the radio announcer said, “A heavy snow is on its way. You must park…” The power went out.
Bob’s wife was thought and though in the chair. Then she said, “Bob, I (67)__________ about a difficult problem now. Which side of the street do I need to park on so the snowplow can get through However, I (68)__________ what to do. “Bob said with a smile on his face, “Well, you (69)__________ there for a whole morning to think about it. But I think it’s not difficult. I advise you (70)__________ it in the garage (车库). You needn’t move it.” “Haha… Yes. That’s a good idea. I’ll leave it there.” Bob’s wife laughed.
From the story, we can learn that we should do everything according to our own actual (实际的) situation, not just follow others’ advice.
五、阅读表达（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读短文，根据短文内容，按要求完成下列各题。
We do eye exercises. We wear sunglasses. We do lots of things to protect our eyes. But we usually forget another important part of our body—the ears. Ears help us hear the world. But many things, such as loud noises, can cause hearing loss (听力丧失). Once this happens, it’s hard to get your hearing back. So how can we protect our ears Let’s take a look together.
◆ Keep your ears dry and warm
Dry your ears after swimming or taking a bath. If you feel water in your ear, shake your head a little bit. This can help you get the water out of your ear. Also, when the sun is shining. wear some sunscreen on your ears. During the winter, protect your ears with a hat or a scarf.
◆ How to clean your ears
Usually, our ears clean themselves. The earwax (耳屎) builds up, dries out, and then comes out of the ear. . Don’t clean your ears with anything sharp (尖锐的), or it can make the earwax go too deep into your ears and hurt them. But if your ears start to hurt, you can go to a doctor for help.
◆ How to use headphones (耳机)
Don’t listen to loud music on your headphones for a long time. Follow the 60:60 rule: listen to music at 60 percent of your headphones’ maximum volume (最大音量) for no more than 60 minutes a day. Over-the-ear headphones are better than in-ear ones. They do a better job of stopping outside noise so you can listen at a lower volume.
71. Translate the underlined sentence into Chinese.
_____________________________________________________________________________
72. How many ways to protect our ears are mentioned in the passage
_____________________________________________________________________________
73. Why can’t we clean our ears with anything sharp
_____________________________________________________________________________
74. Lily likes listening to loud music on her headphones for a long time. Is it good for her ears
_____________________________________________________________________________
75. Give a proper title to the passage.
_____________________________________________________________________________
六、书面表达（共1题，计20分）
你的外国朋友David想要了解你的课外活动情况，请结合下表内容写一封英文的电子邮件向他介绍你的实践活动情况。
After school Activities
What to do Why to do
volunteer to do… make a survey about… go to sports club… … be helpful… learn more about… keep healthy… …
要求：1. 语言通顺，要点齐全，意思连贯，条理清楚，书写规范；
2. 文中不得出现真实的姓名和学校名称；
3. 80～100词，文章开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Subject:After-school ActivitiesFrom:***To:David
Dear David, Glad to share my after-school activities with you. ___________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________ Look forward to your reply. Yours, ***
九年级英语试题参考答案
2023.1
一、听力测试（共25小题；1-20小题，每小题1分；21-25小题，每小题2分；总计30分）
1-5 CBBAA 6-8 CAB 9-13 ACBBC 14-17 ACBA 18-20 BCA
7:30am 22. 15/fifteen 23. enough 24.protect 25. dancing
二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2.5分，计50分）
26-30 ACBDC 31-35 CCDDA
36-40 BCDAB 41-45 BADDC
三、短文还原（共5空，每小题2分，共10分）
46-50DECAB
四、综合填空（共20空，每空1.5分，计30分）
51. habits 52. without 53. unhealthy 54. Second 55. ourselves
56. happiness 57. best 58. if 59. Finally 60. But
61. were having 62. is going to / will snow 63. can get 64. hurry 65. must be parked
66. moved 67. am thinking 68. don’t know 69. have sat 70. to leave
五、阅读表达 (共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
71. 一旦发生听力丧失这种情况，你的听力就很难恢复了。
72. 3./ Three.
73. Because it can make the earwax go too deep into our ears and hurt them.
74. No, it isn’t.
75. How / Ways / Advice / Suggestions / Tips to protect our ears.
六、书面表达(共1题，计20分)
（一）One possible version:
Dear David,
Glad to share my after-school activities with you. After school, I always take part in some activities to make my life more interesting.
I volunteer to help in our city library, sorting out books, guiding readers to the right bookshelves, and communicating with different people. It is helpful for me to learn more social communicating skills.
I sometimes make a survey about parents’ jobs. I want to learn about their life. They are hard-working and they do a lot for us.
I always go to sports club to exercise. In the sports club, I can not only keep healthy, but also make many friends. I think it can improve my leadership skills, sportsmanship, and so on.
In addition, I like listening to music after school. Because listening to music makes me feel relaxed.
Looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
***
（二）评分说明
要求考生用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语，完整准确地表达所提示的内容，并对开放性内容进行适当发挥，书写工整，分五档评分：
1.（18～20分）很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有的内容要点，结构完整，语句通畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少，书写规范。
2.（14～17分）较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有的内容要点，结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，书写较为规范。
3.（10～13分）基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，书写基本规范。
4.（6～9分）未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，影响理解，书写欠规范。
5.（0～5分）未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或者意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。