商河县元旦联考九年级英语试题
选择题部分（共90分）
1.听力测试（30分）
A）听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A.I study by reading aloud.
B.I often make mistakes.
C.That sounds really difficult.
2. A.The mooncakes are delicious.
B.Paper cutting sounds easy.
C.The lanterns are beautiful.
3. A.How exciting the movie is!
B.What fine weather it is!
C.What an honest boy he is!
4. A.Are they made in France？
B.Is it made in China？
C.Are they made of wood？
5. A.How do you like English？
B.Where is tea produced？
C.What is the scoop used for？
B）在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6．Which fruit does Frank's mother like best？
A.Apples. B.Lemons. C.Oranges.
7. When is the party？
A.On Saturday afternoon. B.On Sunday morning. C.On Sunday afternoon.
8．Why can't John have a rest？
A.Because the test is coming.
B.Because he is hard﹣working.
C.Because he can pass the test.
9．Where's the library？
A.Next to the supermarket.
B.Across from the pizza house.
C.Across from the supermarket.
10. What does Jack want to eat？
A. A chicken burger. B. A beef burger. C.Chicken and beef.
C）在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话听两遍。（听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间
11．What's Sun Ning's favorite thing from childhood？
A.A green bike. B.A black bike. C.A green toy train.
12. Who gave it to Sun Ning？
A.His mother. B.His father. C.Himself.
13. How long has Sun Ning had it？
A.For five years. B.For six years. C.For four years.
14.Why does Sun Ning like it so much？
A.Because he paid a lot of money for it.
B.Because he learned how to ride a bike on it.
C.Because he usually rode it to school.
15.What did Sun Ning use to do with it？
A.He used to go camping on it.
B.He used to go bike riding on it.
C.He used to go fishing on it.
D）在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文听两遍。（听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间）
16.Why don't people like the number 13？
A.They think it's boring.
B.They think it's unlucky.
C.They think it's a small number.
17. Where did Jack and his friends have dinner together？
A.In a restaurant. B.At his friend's home. C.At Jack's home.
18.How many people were there at the table？
A.11. B.13. C.12.
19.How did they feel when they heard Jack's words？
A.Excited. B.Happy. C.Unhappy.
20.What did they think of the dinner that evening？
A.They had fun. B.They didn't have fun. C.We don't know
II.完形填空 阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。（15分）
Life is like a mirror. If you 21 it, it will smile back at you. Life is like a long trip. It can be easy or hard. Smile at life and you will get a surprising 22 .
When I was just a little child, I loved 23 very much and I could not stop eating them. My parents 24 my teeth so they decided not to keep any candies at our home. This was a big problem for me at first 25 I could not get candies. However, I 26 a way very soon to solve this problem- I asked for candies from neighbors, of course, with a big smile and this worked 27 every time. Later, I heard a saying that “You can deal with anything if you smile”. I 28 that is right!
Every morning, I give 29 a big smile in front of the mirror. This way 30 cheers me up. I think I can 31 to be happy or unhappy.
A smile makes people 32 warm. Smiling at others is special. It may make others comfortable. When somebody pushes you carelessly, an argument cannot 33 the problem. If you give him or her a smile and tell him or her “Never mind”, when he or she says sorry to you, 34 terrible will happen.
Now I’m getting older and older, and there will be more and more 35 in life. But I remember I should always smile at life.
( )21.A. smile at B. knock at C. wait for D. pay for
( )22.A. way B. suggestion C.idea D.result
( )23.A. vegetables B. candies C. fruits D.cakes
( )24.A. thought about B. worried about C. looked for D. looked after
( )25.A. but B. so C. because D.although
( )26.A. found B. lost C. remembered D. forgot
( )27.A. badly B. well C. quickly D. hard
( )28.A. predict B. promise C. refuse D.guess
( )29.A. yourself B. herself C. myself D. himself
( )30.A. always B. never C. hardly D.seldom
( )31.A. report B. agree C. choose D.get
( )32.A.to feel B. feeling C.feel D.feels
( )33.A. cause B. solve C. consider D.become
( )34.A. something B.anything C. everything D. nothing
( )35.A. mirrors B. problems C. friends D.neighbours
Ⅲ.补全对话阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。（5分）
A：Hello， 36
B：Mary is speaking.
A：Hi，Mary. 37
B：Not much.I am just helping my mother with cooking.
A：Wow.You can cook food.How excellent you are! 38
B：Of course.Mine is at home.You can come to my home.You can also taste my cooking.
A：Thank you. 39
B：Room 302，Unit 2.You can call me when you arrive.
A：OK.Thanks a lot.
B： 40 See you.
（36）A．Who is that girl？ B．What kind of noodles do you like？
C．May I speak to Mary？ D．What's the date today？
（37）A．What did you do last night？ B．When is your birthday？
C．Where do you live？ D．What are you doing now？
（38）A．Can I borrow your dictionary？ B．Can she play basketball？
C．Who can sing better？ D．Do you have a friend？
（39）A．Who is your English teacher？ B．Where is the zoo？
C．What is your room number？ D．I go to school by bus.
（40）A．Thank you. B．That's right.
C．Take it easy. D．You're welcome.
Ⅳ.阅读理解阅读下列材料，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（40分）
A
41. The material is an application form for a ______
A. parade. B. competition. C. pet show. D. pet training camp.
42. What will snuggles do
A. Sing. B. Dance. C. Take a walk. D. Ride a bicycle.
43. From the application form, we can know Rebecca’s _______
① age ② hobbies ③ phone number ④ her members
A. ①②. B. ③④. C. ①③. D. ②④.
44. Who will get a call if Rebecca is in an emergency
A. Her mother. B. Her friend. C. Her teacher. D. Her grandmother.
45. Which of the following is TRUE according to the material
A. Snuggles is Rebecca’s pet cat.
B. Maddie won’t join the parade.
C. The parade will be one hour long.
D. Rebecca won’t go to the singing competition.
B
Joey was happy because he had many special friends—four squirrels(松鼠)，two rabbits, and many colorful birds. At the mealtime, these wild animals came near to the family and they would feed these special friends.
In the large yard stood thirteen trees of different sizes. One day, while Joey was playing with his sister under the trees, he noticed that a tree trunk(树干) had a sad look. He ran into the house to tell his mom about it. She told Joey to find the reason why it was sad.
So Joey went into the yard, ran to the sad tree and asked, “Why are you unhappy ”
“I am the smallest tree around. The birds don't fly to me. The rabbits don't eat grass under me. The squirrels don't climb to my top. Nobody needs me or loves me," replied the sad tree.
After knowing the reason, the family had a meeting. Joey suggested making a seat under the sad tree. Joey's father said he could help make a seat around the tree. The family would sit under the tree and the tree wouldn't feel sad anymore.
When Joey told his special friends the tree was sad, they decided to do what they could to help make the sad tree happy again.
Early the next morning, when Joey woke up, he noticed birds singing happily in the little tree and saw squirrels running up and down in it. Rabbits were eating the fresh grass around the tree. The little tree was happy again.
Joey ran inside to tell the good news to his family. Joey's mother and father went into the yard and saw the happy tree.
“Let's start to build the seats around the trees. I will need help to build them. Get the nails(钉子) for me, Joey,” said the father.
“I can help you hold the nails, Dad," said Joey's sister.
46. Why did the tree feel sad ____________
A. Because Joey didn't talk to it.
B. Because it thought no one liked it.
C. Because it was the only tree in the yard.
D. Because Joey's sister didn't play with it.
47. What is the correct order according to the text _____________.
a. Joey went to find out why the tree was sad.
b. Joey's special friends decided to help the tree.
c. Joey found a tree unhappy when he was playing.
d. Joey's father started to build the seats around the trees.
e. Joey's family discussed how to make the sad tree happy.
A. a-b-d-c-e B. b-a-c-e-d C. c-a-e-b-d D. d-c-a-b-e
48. Which words can best describe Joey's family _________
A. Serious and polite. B. Brave and honest.
C. Quiet and friendly. D. Kind and helpful.
49. What can we learn from the text __________
A. The difficulty brought the family together.
B. Love helped the tree become happy again.
C. The special friends were thankful to the tree.
D. The tree spread happiness to everyone around it.
50. What is the text _________
A. A story. A poem. C. An interview. D. An introduction.
C
How do you greet your friends People from different cultures have different answers: shaking hands, nodding, bowing, kissing on the face. But have you ever wondered how animals “say hello” to each other Here are some examples.
Everyone knows how similar chimpanzees(黑猩猩) are to humans. So it's no surprise that their greetings are also close to ours. The most common ways of greeting between chimpanzees are hand touching and hugging. Sometimes they also kiss each other. Some chimpanzees can even learn simple sign language.
Giraffes seldom make loud sounds. Their necks can reach two meters in length, making them useful in greeting each other. When two giraffes meet, they may“shake" their necks and rub(摩擦) them against each other. This is to feel how strong and tall the other is.
Dolphins greet one another with whistles(哨声). They can hear other dolphins from many kilometers away. Every dolphin has a different whistle. When two groups of dolphins meet, they each choose a member to “talk" to the other group. The two groups can then travel together. Unlike most of the other animals, dolphins are smart enough to learn a new language by inventing and copying new sounds.
51. How do chimpanzees usually greet each other
A. By nodding and bowing. B. By kissing on the face.
C. By touching hands and hugging. D. By using a lot of sign languages.
52. Why do giraffes rub their necks when they meet
A. To reach taller trees. B. To make loud sounds.
C. To know about each other. D. To fight with each other.
53. What do you think of dolphins after reading the passage
A. Friendly and clever. B. Lazy and quiet.
C. Strong and playful. D. Caring and peaceful.
54. What can we infer（推断） from the passage
A. Giraffes are about two meters tall.
B. Dolphins can hear each other from far away.
C. Most animals have the ability to learn a new language.
D. Chimpanzees are surprised at humans' way of greeting.
55. Where can we probably find the passage
A. A guidebook. B.A notice board.
C.A news report. D.A nature magazine.
D
More and more people in China are now sharing parts of their lives with the world by videos on their phones. Some people send videos of personal events like holidays and weddings.
Using live streaming(网络直播）is particularly popular among the people aged 18-35. Besides leaving danmu(弹幕）， they can also communicate directly with the hosts by buying virtual(虚拟的）gifts such as flowers, toys and cars for them online. The most recent example was the Olympic swimmer Fu Yuanhui. She did one-hour live streaming which attracted more than 11 million viewers.
What’s more, live streaming allows users to communicate with strangers and express themselves. A 19-year-old college student called Nic Li says she spends three to four hours each week chatting and singing with viewers through one app called Ingkee. “ Sometimes I feel lonely and want to talk to people,” she says. “It feels nice when viewers are paying attention to me.”
However, there are worries about the misuse of live streaming. Papi Jiang promised to correct her unsuitable and impolite language after she was warned by government officials. As there are more than 80 apps and 300 websites for live streaming in China, the Internet regulator(网络监管机构）can hardly monitor the content all the time.
“ We support the use of live streaming. But people should be aware of two sides of it.” One of the officials said.
According to the first paragraph, more and more people in China are now_______.
having holidays of weddings B. living on the phone
sharing their hobbies with each other D. sending videos on the phone
57.The underlined word “ ____” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. officials B. hosts C. users D. viewers
58. The Internet regulator doesn’t allow the users to_______ during the living streaming.
A. leave danmu comments B. buy virtual gifts
C. use unsuitable and impolite language D. communicate with strangers
59. Which of the following is True according to the passage
A. Nic Li made viewers pay attention to her through WeChat.
B. Papi Jiang herself realized her unsuitable and impolite language later.
C. Over 11 million people bought gifts for Fu Yuanhui during her live broadcast.
D. Ingkee is a kind of live streaming app to allow people to chat and sing online.
60. The best title for this passage is______.
A. The two sides of live streaming B. How to use live streaming
C. Live streaming among young people D. Why live streaming is popular
第II卷（非选择题 共60分）
V.阅读填空 阅读短文，在空白处填入1个适当单词或括号内单词的适当形式。（共10小题； 每小题1.5分，满分15分）
Major Snow(大雪）， the 21st solar term(节气) of the year, falls on Dec 7 ,2023. It marks the(61)______(begin) of midwinter. During Major Snow, the temperature drops(62)______(great) and there may be more snow days.
There is a Chinese saying: “ A fall of snow gives promise of a fruitful year.” Most farmers welcome snow because snow can protect crops(庄稼）（63）______ cold fronts and keep the fields warm. Even if it melts(融化）, it also can provide enough water for the crops (64)______ spring.
Folklore（民俗）expert Liu Xiaochang told China Daily that on the (65) ______(one) day of Major Snow, farmers in Chengdu need to fertilize(施肥） and water the newly sprouted soybeans(发芽的大豆）and wheat(小麦）in the field.
Snow season is also good for(66)______(skate). In northern China, there are many such places for natural snow and ice. For example, Heilongjiang and Jilin provinces often already have big snow in November. People can also go to the frozen(结冰的) lakes (67)_______(play) ice sports. But people in the south will stay indoors to enjoy the winter(68） _______(activity).
(69)_______ we have lots of fun because of the snow, people should pay attention to respiratory illness(呼吸道疾病）， China Daily reported. During Major Snow, it is(70)_______(dry) and colder, so people should drink more water. At the same time, don’t drink cold water after exercise.
Ⅵ.阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 选项中有两项为多余选项（10分）
How to survive（生存） an earthquake
As we all know, an earthquake hit northwest China. More than 100 people were killed and hundreds of more injured when magnitude-6.2 quake struck Gan Su province around midnight on December 18th, 2023. It’s important for us to know how to survive an earthquake.
If you are indoors:
Don’t run, but protect yourself. Don’t try to run out of the building during an earthquake. The most important thing is to protect yourself as much as you can.
71 Drop down onto your hands and knees. Cover your head and neck with your hands, arms or hard objects. If possible, find a strong shelter(避难所） nearby which will cover your whole body. Hold on to your shelter until the shaking stops.
Find the triangle of life. 72 so that if a wall falls down, it will create a space for you to survive.
73 :
Move away from anything that can fall. Move to open areas. Buildings, trees, streetlights and power lines can all fall down during an earthquake.
Find a shelter where you can stay. If you are near objects that can fall, 74 .
Wait a moment before moving to any other place. Objects may also fall after an earthquake and there are always strong aftershocks. Observe carefully before you move away.
If you are in a car:
Stop. Stop your car as quickly as you can, 75 .
Stay seated. Stay calm in your car. The car’s metal body can keep you from falling objects.
Drive away carefully when the earthquake stops. Avoid bridges that have been damaged or may be damaged by aftershocks.
If you are outdoors. If you are in the forest. Drop, cover and hold on but you need more patience find a shelter to protect yourself from them Sit on the floor next to a sturdy piece of furniture but avoid stopping near a building or under a tree.
Ⅶ.书面表达（35分）
第一部分 情景运用请根据图片或提示信息，用完整句子补全问答。（10分）
76. 77.78.79 80.
76. A:_______________________________________________________
B: I learn it by working with friends.
A: _____________________________________________________
B: It must be Jack’s.
A: What’s your T-shirt made of
B:________________________________________________________
A: Excuse me._______________________________________________
B: Sure. It’s on Shangzhong Road.
80.A: What kind of music does Mary like
B:__________________________________________________________
第二部分写作
近日，第78届联合国大会通过决议将春节（农历新年）确定为联合国假日。假如你是李华，你在美国的朋友Mike想了解中国的春节，请你给他写封信介绍这个节日。要点如下：1.介绍春节的时间、准备活动及重要性；2. 介绍你与家人有关春节的庆祝活动；3.邀请他来中国欢度春节。
(提示词：农历新年：Lunar New Year; 红包：red packet)
要求：
（1）词数100词左右；
（2）所写内容应包括所给要点，可适当发挥；
（3）不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息；以下为非选择题区，必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔在各题目的指定区域作答，否则无效。
2023-2024学年度九年级元旦联考
英语答题纸
考 号
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监考员填涂缺考 [ ]
学校__________班级_________姓名____________座位号______
注意事项 :
答题前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔填写学校、班级、姓名、座位号、 考号，再用2B铅笔把对应考号涂黑。
2、保持卡面清洁，不要折叠，不要弄破。
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V.选词填空（15分）
61. _______________________ 62. _______________________
63. _______________________ 64. _______________________
65. _______________________ 66. _______________________
67. _______________________ 68. _______________________
69. _______________________ 70. _______________________
VII.书面表达（35分）
第一节：情境运用
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
第二节：作文
Dear Mike
Yours， Li Hua
PAGE元旦联考英语答案
听力
1-5ABCAB 6-10 BCACB 11-15 ACABB 16-20 BCBCA
完形填空
21-25 ADBBC 26-30 ABDCA 31-35CCBDB
三、补全对话
36-40 CDACD
四、阅读理解
41-45 ABCDB 46-50 BCDBA 51-55 CCABD 56-60 DBCDA
语法填空
beginning (62) greatly (63)from (64)in (65) first (66) skating (67)to play （68）activities (69) Though/Although (70)drier
七选五
71-75 C F A E G
七、情景运用
76. How do you learn physics
77. Whose basketball is it/this Whose is the basketball
78.It’s made of cotton.
79. Could you please tell me where the post office is / Could you tell me the way to the post office / Could you tell me how to get to the post office
80. She likes music that she can dance to.
八． 作文
