2023~2024学年度第一学期期末考试
高二英语 参考答案及评分标准
听力（共两节；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CACAB 6-10 CBCBA 11-15 ABABC 16-20 CACBC
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21-25 BACAB 26-30 DCDAC 31-35 DACDB
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40 GACED
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 BDACB 46-50 BCDCA 51-55 ABDCA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分, 满分15分）
56. to promote 57. sixth 58. usually 59. years 60. The
61. included 62. which 63. celebration 64. on/upon 65. associated
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
One possible version：
Good morning!
It is important for us to 1earn some knowledge about first aid in our daily life. If a person has an accident, he needs medical care before a doctor can be found. Therefore, it is necessary that we
know how to give the wounded proper first aid measures. Knowing knowledge about first aid will help us make good judgments. With the help of correct first aid measures, we can alleviate the
sufferings of the patient. What’s far more important is that we can reduce the possibility of disability and save lives.
Life is precious. To save lives, everybody should know some first aid for a rainy day.
Thank you!
请阅卷教师在阅卷前仔细研读评分标准，然后严格按照标准进行阅卷。
【评分标准】
1．评分原则
（1）本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。
（2）评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
◆ 对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
◆ 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
◆ 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
（3）评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
（4）评分时还应注意：
◆ 词数少于60的，酌情扣分。
◆ 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
◆ 书写较差以致影响交际的，可将分数降低一个档次。
2．各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13～15分）
－ 覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
－ 使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别错误，但完全不影响理解。
－ 有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12分）
－ 覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
－ 使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
－ 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9分）
－ 覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
－ 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
－ 基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6分）
－ 遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
－ 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
－ 几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1～3分）
－ 遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
－ 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
－ 几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节
One possible version：
Shortly afterwards, Alice dashed into her room and pulled out the test paper. Recalling the joyful moment, a mixture of guilt and unwillingness overwhelmed her. Alice slowly picked up her pen, hesitant. “If I put the missing t back in, no one would ever know.” she thought. The moment the pen touched the paper, her heart began to beat fast, her hand trembling. Straightening her back, Alice took a few deep breaths, tossed the pen on the table and stormed out of the house with her backpack. She raced back to school as fast as her legs could carry her.
Paragraph 2:
Alice pushed open the door of Lisa’s office. At the sight of Alice, Lisa asked her what was happening. Alice unzipped her bag, pulled out the prize and handed it to her teacher. Head down, she explained her mistake in spelling competition. For a moment, Lisa stood quietly reading the label on the dictionary. Then she picked up a pen, crossed out the word perfect on the label and wrote honest before handing the prize back to Alice. “I get to keep this Honestly ” she asked suspiciously, “Not for the spelling mistake you made,”Lisa smiled “but for your honesty.”
请阅卷教师在阅卷前仔细研读评分标准，然后严格按照标准进行阅卷。
【评分标准】
1．评分原则
（1）本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
（2）评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
◆ 创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
◆ 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
◆ 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
（3）评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
（4）评分时还应注意：
◆ 词数少于130的，酌情扣分。
◆ 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
◆ 书写较差以致影响交际的，可将分数降低一个档次。
2．各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21～25分）
－ 创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
－ 使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别错误，但完全不影响理解。
－ 有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16～20分）
－ 创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。
－ 使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
－ 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11～15分）
－ 创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
－ 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
－ 基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6～10分）
－ 内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
－ 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
－ 未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1～5分）
－ 内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
－ 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
－ 几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
听力录音稿
Test 1
M: I’m terribly sorry, Jessy. I knocked your cup off the table just now and it broke. I’ll buy you a new one.
W: Don’t worry about it, Steve. I’ve got another one.
Test 2
M: Cathy, can you lend me some money
W: I’m sorry. You know money always burns a hole in my pocket.
M: You’ve gone through all your salary so quickly I thought you were well-off.
Test 3
W: Honey, we’d better be quick, or we’ll be late for the flight.
M: No rush. It’s 7:30 now. We still have two hours.
W: But it takes at least one hour to get to the airport. Hurry up!
Test 4
W: Ken, my daughter has a fever and I must take her to hospital. I’m afraid I can’t go to the meeting. Could you please help me hand in my report to Mr. Smith
M: Sure, no problem. Just take good care of your baby and don’t worry about the meeting.
Test 5
M: Only two weeks left before my vacation!
W: Oh, so great! Remind me again, how long will it last
M: I’ll be in Hawaii for a week, and then Japan for two weeks.
W: That’s so wonderful. We’ll miss having you around the office though.
Test 6
M: Jane, do you have a garden
W: Yes, a small one. My father is helping me to make it larger.
M: Cool! How did you get the idea to start a garden
W: I was visiting my cousin in Delhi and I saw an amazing garden on their roof. We happen to have enough place in front of our house and behind it lies a river.
M: What types of plants do you have now
W: Mostly, I have flowers and now my neighbor is helping to seed some vegetables too.
Test 7
W: Hello, Mr. Shaun. Welcome to our program. Thank you for your time to talk about your career with us.
M: It’s my pleasure.
W: How many years have you been an actor
M: About twenty years. I started to act in an advertisement when I was ten years old.
W: That’s impressive. What have you been up to recently
M: I have been focusing on making two action movies lately.
W: That sounds great. Do you have any future plans
M: Well, I’m not sure. I’m not into TV plays. Maybe in several years, I will become a movie director. In any case, I won’t retire.
W: Great! We love your movies! We look forward to seeing movies directed by you!
M: That’s very kind of you. I’m sure I’ll make it.
Test 8
W: Hello, Tip Top Trading. How can I help you
M: Hello, this is Lime. On Monday I was meant to receive 8,000 plastic strawberries from your firm.
W: Yes.
M: The delivery was made on Tuesday.
W: Oh dear!
M: And instead of 8,000 plastic strawberries, I got 800,000 plastic apples!
W: I’m really sorry to hear that, Mr Lime.
M: What on earth am I going to do with 800,000 plastic apples 800,000 plastic apples!
W: That’s totally unacceptable.
M: I didn’t even have anywhere to put them – apples are much bigger than strawberries!
W: It must have been very inconvenient for you.
M: It certainly was! When taking my order, your colleague Tom told me that Tip Top Trading was the most reliable firm in the industry!
W: You have my word that we will sort this out. We’ll remove the apples and have your strawberries sent this Thursday afternoon.
M: Good. Thank you.
W: And we will include some of our new type of plastic oranges to make up for the inconvenience.
M: Oh! Well, that would be nice!
Test 9
W: James, JAMES! Wake up!
M: What Why did you wake me up
W: Be quick, or you will be late for class again. It’s 8 o’clock now.
M: Ah, let me continue my sweet dream.
W: No, James. Listen, you need to get into a better routine.
M: Routine Like what
W: You should get up no later than 6:30. That gives you plenty of time for a 30-minute workout in the gym.
M: 6:30 You are kidding! I already exercise. It does take strength to turn off the alarm clock.
W: You need to get to bed no later than 10:00 at night.
M: T. . . Ten
W: Yes, you need at least eight hours of sleep. And going to bed at 3:00 in the morning is a terrible way to live. You need sleep; I’ve seen you fall asleep while driving. James, James, Do NOT fall asleep while I’m talking to you.
M: I’m not. I’m just resting my eyes.
W: Oh, okay, fine, fine. You fail that class, see if I care.
Test 10
Good afternoon, this is lunch time news.
A series of powerful tornadoes struck six American states over the weekend, killing at least 90 people, including workers in a candle factory in Mayfield, a Kentucky town, lakeside vacationers in Tennessee and residents in a nursing home in Arkansas.
Dozens of night-shift employees began to work in the candle factory in Mayfield when the terrible disaster happened. The workers sheltered in the bathroom area which is 加上supposed to be the safest part of the building. But it may not have been of any use because the tornado was so big. Ten more people remain missing.
Judy Burton is a Mayfield local who spoke to the reporter about the storm this morning. She said that she was able to take shelter in the basement of her apartment building before the tornado hit. Local officials said the fire station was seriously damaged and most of the town’s police cars were destroyed. Many buildings were reduced to nothing.2023~2024 学年度第一学期期末考试
高 二 英 语
考生注意：
1.本试卷考试时间为 120分钟,满分 150 分。
2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
3.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题; 每小题1.5 分, 满分7.5分)
听下面五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What did the man do
A. He knocked down a table. B. He bought a new cup. C. He broke a cup.
2. What can we learn about the woman
A. She is eager to spend money.
B. She hates lending money.
C. She likes saving money.
3. When does the plane take off
A. At 7:30. B. At 8:30. C. At9:30.
4. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Turn in her report to Smith.
B. Take her daughter to hospital.
C. Go to a meeting instead of her.
5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Colleagues. C. Neighbors.
第二节(共15 小题; 每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where is the woman's garden
A. On her roof. B. Behind the river. C. In front of her house.
7. Who is helping the woman grow vegetables
A. Her father. B. Her neighbor. C. Her cousin.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What is the woman
A. An actress. B. A director. C. A hostess.
9. What has the man been doing recently
A. Recording programs.
B. Making action movies.
C. Shooting advertisements.
10. What does the man expect to do in several years
A. Direct movies. B. Make TV plays. C. Retire from acting.
高二英语试卷 第 1 页 (共8页)
听第8段材料， 回答第11至 13题。
11. When did the man expect to receive his order
A. On Monday. B. On Tuesday. C. On Thursday.
12. What do we know about the man
A. He was nervous. B. He was angry. C. He was ashamed.
13. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A wrong delivery. B. A well-known firm. C. Different plastic fruits.
听第9段材料,回答第 14 至 17题。
14. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In the gym. B. In the bedroom. C. In the classroom.
15. Why did the woman wake James up
A. To ask him to work out.
B. To tell him a funny joke.
C. To remind him of his class.
16. What does the woman suggest James do
A. Get up at 7:00 a. m.
B. Exercise for 60 minutes.
C. Sleep for at least 8 hours.
17. How does the woman feel about the man
A. Disappointed. B. Satisfied. C. Grateful.
听第10段材料, 回答第 18至 20题。
18. Who was killed in the tornado in Mayfield
A. Lakeside vacationers.
B. Nursing home residents.
C. Candle factory workers.
19. When did the tornado hit Mayfield
A. At noon. B. At night. C. In the morning.
20. What do we learn about Judy Burton
A. She is a policewoman. B. She is a local official. C. She is a na tive of Mayfield.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15 小题; 每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
You can either travel or read, but either your body or soul must be on the way. Here are four books that you can take on your trip.
1. On the Road, 1957, by Jack Kerouac
The book is a popular guidebook about youth. The main character drives across the US continent with several young people and finally reaches Mexico. After the trip, the characters begin to realize the meaning of life.
2. Life Is Elsewhere, 1975, by Milan Kundera
Jean-Jacques Rousseau once said, “Man is born free, and everywhere he is in chains.” The book describes a young artist's romantic but bitter life, about how he reads, dreams and has a relationship during his trip to Central Europe. The book invites you to deeply reflect on your current life and to honor the Czech-born writer Kundera.
高二英语试卷 第2 页 ( 共8页)
3. My Name Is Red, 1998, by Orhan Pamuk
The book, a masterpiece of the Nobel Prize winner for Literature Orhan Pamuk, has been translated into more than 50 languages and published around the world. It describes a young man, who was away from home for 12 years, coming back to his hometown in Istanbul. What embraces him is not only love, but a series of murder cases as well.
4. The Unlikely Pilgrimage of Harold Fry,2013, by Rachel Joyce
The novel tells a story of a 60-year-old man who lived a boring and unhappy life, until one day, he received his old friend's letter who got cancer. In deep shock and sorrow, he went out to send his reply letter.627 miles in 87 days, he walked depending on one belief that “his friend can survive as long as he walks”.
21. Whose book can make you rethink your own life
A. Jack Kerouac. B. Milan Kundera.
C. Orhan Pamuk. D. Rachel Joyce.
22. Which of the following books was sold globally
A. My Name Is Red. B. On the Road.
C. Life Is Elsewhere. D. The Unlikely Pilgrimage of Harold Fry.
23. Why did the old man walk 627 miles to send a letter
A. He walked to keep healthy.
B. He was in deep shock and sorrow.
C. He expected his friend to live longer.
D. He lived a very boring and unhappy life.
B
A mother of nine started medical school, graduated with her degree and plans to be a neurosurgeon(神经外科医生).
Sarah Merrill, now 41, said her journey to medical school began at age 17. She then met her husband and got married. But she decided to follow her dream of attending medical school. Certainly, it was a challenge. She owed her success to her husband’s approval. “When I was accepted by the Medicine School, we moved from Pennsylvania to Arizona to start my internship(实习). In fact, they volunteered these movements. I know it was tough for all of us.” said Merrill.
Merrill and her children often have “homework parties” where they study their own courses. Merrill's choice has given a stimulus to her children. Merrill felt touched when knowing her daughter and son want to become a doctor.
Merrill's next step will come into a male-dominated field where women doctors only take up 5%.Dr. Halyard at the Medicine School said Merrill was known as a focused student and added, “If you have the ability to deal with nine children, the internship should be a piece of cake because no amount of stress will make you fail.”
Merrill had considered choosing a more family-friendly major, but, again, chose to dream big and follow her original pursuit. It's the same advice she would give to all. “Set the goal that is what you're really enthusiastic about, and it helps to think small. If you know what your priorities are, focus on the next step. Then you'll get where you want to go.”
高二英语试卷 第 3 页 (共8页)
24. Why does Merrill speak of their movements
A. To show the support of her family.
B. To stress her determination to be a doctor.
C. To reflect difficulties in attending college.
D. To describe the process of pursuing her dream.
25. What does the underlined word “stimulus” mean in paragraph 3
A. Commitment. B. Inspiration. C. Entertainment. D. Confusion.
26. What does Halyard mean in paragraph 4
A. Merrill will have more stress to handle.
B. Being Mom makes Merrill a better doctor.
C. Staying focused and sensible is key to success.
D. She is confident of Merrill's being a neurosurgeon.
27. What does Merrill suggest at last
A. Starting with important things. B. Getting your priorities right.
C. Being true to your passion. D. Having the courage to dream big.
C
Art is everywhere. Any public space has been carefully designed by an artistic mind to be both functional and beautiful. Then why is art still widely considered “the easy subject” at school, insignificant to wider society, a waste of time and effort
Art can connect culture with commercial products; art generates money and holds significant emotional and cultural value within communities. When people attend a concert, they are paying for music, maybe even hotel rooms, meals, and transport, but they also gain an incredible experience.
What's more, the arts can bring communities together, reducing loneliness and making people feel safer. Social bonds are created among individuals when they share their arts’ experiences through reflection and discussion, and their expression of common values.
The arts clearly have a pretty positive impact on physical and psychological health. It is found that people who frequent cultural places or participate in artistic events are more likely to gain good health compared to those who do not; more engagement with the arts is linked to a higher level of people's well-being. The Public Health discovered that music and art, when used in hospitals, help to improve the conditions of patients by reducing stress, anxiety and blood pressure.
Children who are involved with the arts make greater achievements in their education: those engaged with drama have greater literary ability while others taking part in musical practice exhibit greater skills in math and languages. Kids with preference for the arts have a greater chance of finding employment in the future. Participating in the arts is essential for child development; encouraging children to express themselves in constructive ways could help to form healthy emotional responses in later life.
Vital to human life, art is celebrated and used across the world. Life without art would be boring,
for art is a part of what makes us human.
高二英语试卷第 4 页 ( 共8页)
28. Art products differ from most other commercial products because .
A. their prices may climb up as time passes
B. most people purchase them for collection
C. they are more expensive and less accessible
D. they have both commercial and cultural values
29. By sharing their arts experiences, community members can .
A. develop a stronger tie between them
B. keep the community safe from illnesses
C. learn to appreciate their own works of art
D. offer honourable solutions to their problems
30. How does kids' engagement with the arts benefit them
A. It helps to make responsible people out of them.
B. It inspires their creativity in designing their future career.
C. It promotes their academic performance and emotional growth.
D. It gives them more confidence in exhibiting their learning skills.
31. What is the best title for this passage
A. How Art Cures Our Hearts B. How Art Benefits Communities
C. Art:A Bridge Between Cultures D. Art: A Blessing to Humankind
D
In the hands of Chinese sill artisans(手艺人), flour is made into lovely models of people or animals. This art form is called do ugh figurine(面塑). Among the various styles, Beijing's Dough Figurine Lang is a unique folk art. His delicate and lovely handicrafts are storytellers of old and new Beijing. In 2008, it was included in the list of national intangible cultural heritage.
It was created by Lang Shao'an. He created animals and characters from legends, historical stories, and local operas. The finished product is either put at the end of a thin stick, or on a table for display. Some are mostly for children to eat or play with, with simple forms and vivid decorations, while some are delicate pieces of art work for display only. For this reason, during the making process they are often mixed with additives(添加剂) to prevent them from breaking up, and being eaten by insects. Over the course of his long career, Lang Shao’an developed a set of sill fingers with an elegant artistic sense.
Lang Jiaziyu, born in 1995, is the third-generation inheritor of Dough Figurine Lang. When he was 15, he created Beijing Olympic Mascot shaped dough figurines which were highly praised. He looks a bit more fashionable than other folk artisans. In his skilled hands, some figures such as Nezhe are popular with young people.
Like most of the other intangible cultural heritage handicrafts in China, Dough Figurine Lang does not get as much attention from the public. Few young people are willing to take the time to master a skill that does not make money, which has led to a decline in the number of those who are devoted to the handicraft. Good handicrafts need the devotion of artisans from one generation to another.
高二英语试卷 第 5 页 (共8页)
32. What is special about Dough Figurine Lang
A. It reflects Beijing's culture.
B. It is created by many famous artists.
C. It shows people's lifestyles and beliefs.
D. It is popular with both tourists and the locals.
33. Why do artisans add additives to dough figurines
A. To make do ugh figurines taste good.
B. To keep colors brighter and last longer.
C. To better preserve the finished products.
D. To help shape do ugh into various forms.
34. What is the third paragraph mainly about
A. Suggestions for other folk artisans.
B. Different art styles of dough figurines.
C. The popularity of modern dough figurines.
D. Lang Jiaziyu’s achievements as an artisan.
35. What is the main purpose of the passage
A. To call on people to master a skill.
B. To appeal to people to value this folk art.
C. To teach people ways to appreciate the handicraft.
D. To persuade people to protect national cultural heritage.
第二节(共5 小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分 12.5 分)
The question “Who am I ” can bring on a series of thoughts, emotions, and feelings, but what if you don't know how to answer 36 We're here to help you find all the answers you're looking for.
37 Think about where you want to see yourself in 5 days, months, or years. What goals can you make to turn that vision into your reality These goals don't have to be big; they can be as simple as making the bed every morning. Write down your goals and refer to them whenever you feel lost, remembering to take each day one step at a time.
Question your body image. 38 Are they negative or positive Can you rewrite the negative remarks in a more positive way Confidence in your body can transfer to confidence in other parts of your life, so try to reframe hateful words into something loving.
Practice self-care. It can be hard to find time to reflect on yourself when you're feeling overwhelmed. Taking care of yourself physically and mentally is essential to being the best version of you, so don't forget to schedule time to do something for yourself. 39
Write in a journal. To process your thoughts and experiences, write down what you did, felt, and thought throughout the day. 40 If you had a terrible experience, set down why it affected you. If you made a mistake, identify what you could do better.
A. Set reasonable goals.
B. Learn more about yourself.
C. List words about the way you look.
D. If you were happy, put down what delighted you.
E. This can help you feel more at peace with life and yourself.
F. By doing this, you will find it rewarding to share your time with others.
G. Feeling lost or confused about who you are is more common than you may think.
高二英语试卷 第 6 页 (共8页)
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15 小题; 每小题1分,满分 15分 )
A much-liked university janitor(看门人) was surprised by 230 of the school's students as they provided him with a truly 41 vacation back in June of this year.
Herman Gordon 42 after Bristol University in England as if it were his own home. Many of his adoring fans at the university 43 him as a “legend ”and “hero”, and these students thought it their duty to make sure this “cheerful” man could get 44 what he deserved.
One student in particular posted on social media about how the 65-year-old janitor had not been 45 to see his family in Jamaica for four years. He set up a JustGiving page to collect donation. 46 , the site managed to raise enough money.
One of the donors handed Herman the 47 gift in an envelope filled with cash. The 48 was caught on camera, showing Herman 49 down in tears, greatly moved by the 50 . The video was 51 thousands of times online, showing all the donors what they had 52 .
Herman and his wife had an 53 vacation. After Herman 54 photos of his celebrity treatment at a five star hotel, he wrote to the Bristol students, saying: “God bless you all. Everybody will see this and think that I'm a (n) 55 .”
41. A. recommended B. deserved C. understood D. accepted
42. A. takes B. goes C. asks D. looks
43. A. described B. mistook C. welcomed D. appointed
44. A. over B. down C. back D. through
45. A. willing B. able C. ready D. determined
46. A. Honestly B. Eventually C. Particularly D. Actually
47. A. festival B. birthday C. surprise D. comfort
48. A. accident B. chance C. deal D. moment
49. A. slowing B. climbing C. breaking D. falling
50. A. kindness B. politeness C. thoughtfulness D. smartness
51. A. shared B. bought C. reported D. edited
52. A. designed B. achieved C. overlooked D. witnessed
53. A. economical B. educational C. adventurous D. amazing
54. A. found B. retouched C. released D. exchanged
55. A. millionaire B. adventurist C. tourist D. explorer
第二节 (共 10 小题; 每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Language Days at the United Nations seek 56 (promote) multilingualism(多语言) and cultural diversity as well as increasing equal use of all six official languages throughout the Organization.
The date for the Chinese day was selected from Guyu, which is the 57 (six) of 24 solar terms(二十四节气) in the traditional East Asian calendars. In the Gregorian calendar(公历), it 58 (usual) begins around April 20.
Chinese was established as an official language of the United Nations in 1946. However, in early 59 (year), Chinese was not commonly used in the work of the United Nations. 60 situation was improved after the People's Republic of China regained the lawful rights(权利) in the United Nations in 1971. In 1973, the General Assembly(联合国大会) 61 (include) Chinese as a working language, 62 was followed by the Security Council in 1974. More and more UNoffices and staff members work with Chinese language.
In 63 (celebrate) of United Nations Chinese Language Day 2021,UNSRC Chinese Book Club is organizing three events under the theme “Highlighting Pictographs(象形文字)”. The three events focus 64 three types of pictographs 65 (associate) with three cultures and three UNESCO World Heritage sites. All three events will be conducted live.
高二英语试卷 第 7 页 (共8页)
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分 15 分)
假定你是李华，你校将举办以“急救”为主题的英语演讲比赛。请你写一篇演讲稿，内容包括:
1.急救的意义(挽救生命，减轻痛苦等)；
2.呼吁学习急救知识。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右：
2.请按如下格式在答题卡相应位置作答。
Good morning!
Thank you!
第二节 (满分 25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
An Honest Mistake
Alice double-checked the words on her spelling test. If she got 100 percent today, she'd win her class's First-Quarter Spelling Challenge and a brand-new dictionary that came with videos and other cool stuff. Plus, Lisa had promised to do a handstand if anyone got a perfect score.
Three more words to go. n-i-c-c-l-y. q-u-i-c-k-l-y. h-o-n-e-s-t-y. Wait! She’d spelled “honesty”, not “honestly”! She hurriedly erased the t-y and wrote l-y before handing in her paper.
“I’ll correct and grade these test papers at the break”, said Lisa. Alice hurried into the classroom. She sat restlessly in her seat with her fingers crossed. Then Lisa walked to the front of the room and cleared her throat.
“Congratulations, Alice! You did it!” she announced. The whole class burst into applause! Lisa presented Alice with her prize. Alice grinned(咧嘴笑) as she read the label on the box: To Alice Carter, for her perfect first-quarter score in spelling.
“Is everything OK ” Mom asked as Alice burst through the front door after school. “Everything is
perfect!” Alice shouted, showing Mom her spelling test paper and prize. Mom hugged her. “Put the test on the fridge so Dad can see it when he gets home. And Casper, too.”Alice scooped(抱起) up her cat. “Casper, can you spell nicely, quickly and honestly ” Alice's heart missed a beat suddenly. “Honestly ” H-O-N-E-S-L-Y!
“Alice, what's the matter ” said Mom. “I don't feel so good,” Alice said, putting Casper down and stuffing the test paper into her backpack. “Probably too much excitement.” Mom rubbed her back. “How about some tea ” Alice swallowed, “How did you know A “t” is exactly what I needed.
注意：1.续写词数应为 150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Shortly afterwards, Alice dashed into her room and pulled out the test paper..
Alice pushed the door of Lisa's office open.
高二英语试卷 第 8 页 (共8页)
