2023-2024学年第一学期外研版英语七年级上册
SM1-M4质量检测命题细目表
检测内容：七年级上册英语SM1-M4 时间：90分钟 满分：100分 整卷难度预估：0.7
题型 题号 考试内容 分值 考试要求 预估难度值 能力因素 试题来源
识记 理解 应用 综合
听力 1 日常生活 1 a 0.9 √ √ 改编
2 日期 1 a 0.9 √ √ 改编
3 方位 1 b 0.8 √ √ 原创
4 职业 1 b 0.8 √ √ 改编
5 季节 1 b 0.8 √ √ 改编
6 家庭 1 b 0.8 √ √ 原创
7 1 b 0.7 √ √ 改编
8 日常生活 1 b 0.7 √ √ 改编
9 1 b 0.7 √ √ 改编
10 1 c 0.6 √ √ 改编
11 人物介绍 2 b 0.8 √ √ 改编
12 2 b 0.8 √ √ 改编
13 2 b 0.7 √ √ 改编
14 2 b 0.7 √ √ 改编
15 2 c 0.6 √ √ √ 改编
单项选择 16 冠词 1 a 0.9 √ √ 原创
17 名词 1 b 0.8 √ √ 原创
18 介词 1 b 0.6 √ √ 原创
19 数词 1 ｂ 0.7 √ √ 原创
20 代词 1 b 0.7 √ √ 原创
21 疑问副词 1 b 0.7 √ √ 原创
22 形容词 1 c 0.5 √ √ √ 原创
23 连词 1 b 0.8 √ √ 原创
24 动词词组 1 c 0.6 √ √ √ 原创
25 交际用语 1 b 0.8 √ √ 原创
完型填空 26 名词 1 b 0.8 √ √ 改编
27 形容词 1 c 0.6 √ √ √ 改编
28 动词 1 b 0.8 √ √ √ 改编
29 名词 1 c 0.6 √ √ √ 改编
30 副词 1 c 0.5 √ √ √ 改编
31 连词 1 b 0.8 √ √ 改编
32 动词 1 b 0.7 √ √ √ 改编
33 介词 1 b 0.6 √ √ √ 改编
34 动词词组 1 c 0.5 √ √ √ √ 改编
35 疑问代词 1 c 0.5 √ √ √ √ 改编
阅读理解 36 获取信息 2 a 0.9 √ √ 改编
37 获取信息 2 a 0.9 √ √ 改编
38 细节理解 2 a 0.8 √ √ 原创
39 细节理解 2 a 0.8 √ √ 原题
40 细节理解 2 a 0.8 √ √ 改编
41 细节理解 2 b 0.7 √ √ 改编
42 主旨大意 2 c 0.6 √ √ √ 改编
43 细节理解 2 a 0.8 √ √ 原题
44 猜测词义 2 a 0.7 √ √ √ 原题
45 细节理解 2 c 0.6 √ √ √ 改编
46 主旨大意 2 c 0.6 √ √ √ 改编
47 推理判断 3 c 0.6 √ √ √ √ 原创
任务型阅读 48 根据回答 1 a 0.8 √ √ √ 原创
49 根据回答 1 a 0.8 √ √ √ 原创
50 根据提问 1 a 0.8 √ √ √ 原创
51 根据提问 1 a 0.8 √ √ √ 原创
52 根据回答 1 a 0.8 √ √ √ 原创
词汇运用 53 be动词 1 b 0.6 √ √ √ 原创
54 动词不定式 1 b 0.6 √ √ √ 原创
55 名词 1 a 0.8 √ √ √ 原创
56 指示代词 1 b 0.7 √ √ √ 原创
57 形容词 1 b 0.6 √ √ √ 原创
58 名词 1 a 0.7 √ √ 原创
59 名词 1 a 0.7 √ √ 原创
60 副词 1 b 0.7 √ √ 原创
61 名词 1 a 0.9 √ √ 原创
62 人称代词 1 a 0.8 √ √ 原创
63 名词 1 a 0.7 √ √ 原创
64 形容词 1 a 0.7 √ √ 原创
65 名词 1 b 0.6 √ √ 原创
66 介词 1 b 0.6 √ √ 原创
67 动词 1 b 0.6 √ √ 原创
书面表达 68 应用文介绍学校与活动 15 b 0.7 √ √ √ √ 原创中小学教育资源及组卷应用平台
2023-2024学年第一学期外研版英语七年级上册
SM1-M4质量检测听力材料
第一节：听小对话，选出正确的图片。
1. W: Hi, Mike. When do you have time for dinner
M: How about Friday I like Friday best.
2. M: Hi, Amy. What time do you get up
W: At 6:30. And half an hour later, at about 7 o'clock, I go to school.
3. M: Jack, you are a great man. You help patients a lot.
W: Thank you. That's what doctors should do.
4. W: Unbelievable! There is a dog behind the bird.
M: Oh, no! It's in front of the bird.
5. W: Wow, white trees, white buildings. The world looks so beautiful.
M: But it is also cold. I need more warm clothes.
第二节：听较长对话，选择答案
听第一段对话，回答第6-7小题。
M: Hello, Gina！Is that girl your sister？
W: Which one
M: The girl with long hair.
W: Oh, she is my cousin.
M: What's her full name？
W: Grace Miller.
听第二段对话，回答第8-10小题。
M: Cindy, do you have a ruler I need one？
W: Yes, Alex! It's on my desk.
M: No, there is nothing on the desk.
W: Oh, maybe it's in my schoolbag. You can find it.
M: Hmm, here are two. Which one is yours, the blue one or the white one？
W: The blue one, and the white one is my sister Kate's.
M: Wow, there are many blue things in your schoolbag. You like blue, right
W: Yes, my pencil box, three pens and two pencils are all blue.
第三节：听短文，完成信息记录表。
Hello, everyone! This is my brother Tom, Tom Green. He is 13 years old. He is a new student in China. We both like playing sports, but we have different hobbies. After school, I play basketball with my friends. He runs. In the evening, we often swim in the swimming pool. He thinks it is interesting. But he has many balls, a basketball, two baseballs and four ping-pong balls. They are under his bed. He is also interested in English and good at it. He wants to teach children English in the future!中小学教育资源及组卷应用平台
2023-2024学年第一学期外研版英语七年级上册
SM1-M4质量检测
亲爱的同学：
欢迎你参加考试！
做题时要认真审题，积极思考，细心答题，发挥你的最好水平。带*生词可在试卷后面小词典里查找。最后祝你成功！
听力部分（20分）
一、听力（本题有15小题，第1-10题每小题1分，第11-15题每小题2分，共20分）
第一节：听小对话，选出正确的图片。
( )1. What day is the boy’s favorite day
A. B. C.
( )2. What does Amy do at 7 a.m.
B. C.
( )3. Who is Jack
B. C.
( )4. Where is the bird
B. C.
( )5. Which season are they talking about
A. B. C.
第二节：听较长对话，选择答案
听第一段对话，回答第6-7小题。
( ) 6. The girl is Gina's _______.
A. sister B. cousin C. friend
( ) 7. We can call the girl with long hair _______.
A. Grace B. Miller C. Gina
听第二段对话，回答第8-10小题。
( ) 8. Cindy's ruler is _______.
A. in the schoolbag B. on the desk C. in the bookcase
( ) 9. _______ has a white ruler.
A. Cindy B. Alex C. Kate
( ) 10. How many blue things are mentioned*
A. Six В. Seven C. Eight
第三节：听短文，完成信息记录表。
Name 11 Green
Age 12
Sport He 13 after school.
Place The balls are 14 .
Job He may be a 15 in the future.
( )11. A. Tony B. Tom C. Mike
( )12. A. 11 B. 12 C. 13
( )13. A. runs B. plays basketball C. swims
( )14. A. under my bed B. on his bed C. under his bed
( )15. A. teacher B. manager C. worker
笔试部分（80分）
二、单项选择（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
( ) 16. Chen Meng likes to have _______ banana when she plays badminton.
A. a B. an C. the D. /
( ) 17. -So many people, and who are they
-My parents, my brothers and my sisters. I have a big _______.
A. school B.family C. city D. picture
( ) 18. -Is the basketball under the chair
-No. Close the door and you can see it is _______ the door.
A. behind B.from C. on D. under
( ) 19. Our country was _______ years old in 2019, and now she is 72.
A. thirty B. fifty C. seventy D. ninety
( ) 20. -Is your friend Emma from England or America
-England. But_______ father is Chinese.
A. my B. our C. his D. her
( ) 21. -_______ does Kingba come from
- It comes from Asia.
A. Who B. Where C. What D. When
( ) 22. Reading for fun and reading for study are not the _______.
A. nice B. same C. new D. big
( ) 23. - What do you think of your new school
- It’s big _______ beautiful. I like it.
A. and B. or C. so D. but
( ) 24. -Study is important, Tony!
- Sorry, mum. I will _______ soon.
A. have breakfast B. play basketball
C. do homework D. watch TV
( ) 25. -Hi, Jim. This is my sister Mary.
-_______.
A. How are you B. Fine, thank you.
C. You’re very kind. D. Nice to meet you.
三、完形填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
Hi! I'm Tony. I love weekends. I always get up late on weekends. For breakfast, I only have 26 . It's usually an apple. I have a big lunch. After lunch, I like to eat ice-cream. It tastes* 27 . In the afternoon, I like to 28 . I usually play basketball. Sometimes I swim. In the evening, I get the house tidy*—I like clean 29 . I always go to bed 30 , at about 23:00.
31 my sister doesn't like weekends. She has a job in a big shop and she always 32 on weekends. She never goes out 33 her friends. She usually gets home from work at 22:00. After taking a shower, she 34 . Sometimes she reads in bed. But don't ask her 35 she reads. She always falls asleep* after reading one or two pages*.
( )26.A. eggs B. milk C. vegetables D. fruit
( )27.A. delicious B. bad C. beautiful D. happy
( )28.A. sing B. draw C. exercise D. read
( )29.A. rooms B. schools C. shops D. offices
( )30.A. early B. late C. well D. then
( )31.A. And B. So C. But D. Because
( )32.A. writes B. works C. calls D. plays
( )33.A. about B. from C. of D. with
( )34.A. gets up B. goes to work C. goes to bed D. does sports
( )35.A. when B. what C. why D. where
四、阅读理解 (本题有12小题，第36到46每小题2分，第47小题3分)
A
My name is Li Lei. I'm from Guangzhou. I'm 14 years old and I'm a student in Class Five Grade Eight. I like Chinese and English. My favorite sport is basketball，but I can't play football.
This is my friend Alex. He is 13 years old and he is from Beijing. He is in Class Seven Grade Eight. He likes playing chess. He can play football and basketball. We often play basketball on Sunday.
This is a new student in my class. Her name is Sarah and She's 12 years old. She is from New York. It’s a big city in America. She can swim.
( )36. Li Lei can __________.
play basketball B. play football
C. swim D. play chess
( )37. Li Lei and his friend play basketball on __________.
Friday B. Thursday C. Saturday D. Sunday
( )38. What class is Sarah in
A. Class Five Grade Eight. B. Class Seven Grade Eight.
C. Class Five Grade Seven. D. Class Eight Grade Seven.
B
Lydia is 14 years old. She lives in a small house with her parents and two brothers, Daniel and Henry. Daniel is 12 years old, and Henry is 9 years old. Daniel and Henry often complain* about the small house. They want to live in a big house. Their dream house is very big. In the house, they each have a bedroom, a desk and a computer. In front of the house, there is a big beautiful garden. In the garden, there are some fruit trees. They like eating fruit very much. Behind the garden, there is a swimming pool. They like swimming, too. They can ask their friends to come to their house on weekends. They can play computer games, swim and do their homework together. They say they will have a lot of fun that time.
( )39. How many people are there in the family
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six
( )40. Why do Daniel and Henry want to have fruit trees in the garden
A. Because they like eating fruits very much.
B. Because they can play games under the trees.
C. Because fruit trees can make the garden beautiful.
D. Because their parents like eating fruits.
( )41.What can Daniel and Henry do in their dream house on weekends
A. Take a walk after dinner.
B. Water fruit trees in the garden. .
C. Play and study with their parents.
D. Swim in the swimming pool
( )42. What is the passage mainly about
A. What Daniel and Henry's dream house is like.
B. What Daniel and Henry can do in their bedroom.
C. What Daniel and Henry like to have in the garden. .
D. What Daniel and Henry's house is like.
C
Judy wants to take a trip to Disneyland*. And she likes to go there in a Snow White dress.
“Dad, can you buy me a Snow White dress ” Judy asks her father.
“We don't need to buy one, my dear,” Dad says. “I can make one for you.”
Judy's dad is really great, right He can make a dress for his daughter. And he can do more. He makes breakfast and lunch for Judy. She has the same food for breakfast—milk, an egg and bread. But she has different lunches at school every day—rice on Monday, a hamburger on Tuesday...After school, Dad plays ping pong with her, helps her with her math, and watches sports games on TV with her.
“I have no mom,” Judy says, “but Dad can do everything. I love him.”
( )43. Judy wants to ________.
A. go to Disneyland in a Snow White dress
B. buy a Snow White dress in Disneyland
C. ask her father to go to Disneyland with her
D. ask her father to make her a Snow White dress
( )44. The underlined word “different” means “________” in Chinese.
A. 多余的 B. 健康的 C. 干净的 D. 不同的
( )45. What do we know from the story
A. Judy has many beautiful dresses. B. Judy only has breakfast at school.
C. Judy’s mother don’t live with them. D. Judy makes lunch for her father.
( )46. Which is the best title* for the story
A. Judy’s delicious food B. Judy’s great father
C. Judy’s trip to Disneyland D. Judy and her parent
( )47. Why don’t they need to buy a Snow White dress
_______________________________________________________________________________
五、任务型阅读 （本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
A: Hello! I am Tom. 48
B: My name’ s Helen.
A: 49
B: I am twelve.
A: What class are you in
B: 50
A: How many students are there in your class
B: 51
A: 52 Goodbye.
B: Bye.
六、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空。每词限用一次。
53. Look! There________one dog and five pigs in this farm.
54. It’s important ___________ in class.
55. ________ is healthy food, and it is good for you.
56. ________are my books. Those books are Jack’s.
57. I am so hungry! Do you have________food
B.根据短文内容和所给的中文提示，用单词的正确形式完成以下短文。
Hello! My name is Dave. I am from London, the 58 (首都) of England. Here is a 59 (照片)of my happy family in Wenzhou. My grandparents are on the right. They 60 (真正地) love Chinese food. On the 61 (左边) are my parents. They help children with science at school. 62 (他们的) jobs are very important. Look! The cool boy in 63 (黑色的) is my brother. He eats very well every day. He doesn’t eat 64 (甜的) food, because it is bad for his 65 (牙齿). All of us wants to be healthy 66 (如同，像) him. So 67 (记住): eat the right food and stay healthy.
七、书面表达（15分）
68. 假如你是阳光中学七年级学生李明，下周你将负责接待来自英国的交换生Mike，请用英语给他发一份电子邮件介绍一下你们学校的情况。
Yangguang Middle School
Buildings Activities
classroom study
library read books
dining hall have breakfast
playground do sports
...
注意：
1. 必须包含表格内所有信息，可适当发挥，使文章通顺、完整；
2. 60词左右，文章的开头己经给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Mike,
Welcome to our school! _______________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Ming
七年级上册英语期中质量检测中小学教育资源及组卷应用平台
2023-2024学年第一学期外研版英语七年级上册
SM1-M4质量检测答案
听力部分（20分）
一、听力（本题有15小题，第1-10题每小题1分，第11-15题每小题2分，共计20分）
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B B A C C B A A C B B C A C A
笔试部分（80分）
二、单项选择（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A B A C D B B A C D
三、完形填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
D A C A A C B D C B
四、阅读理解 (本题有12小题，第36到46每小题2分，第47小题3分)
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46
A D A C A D A A D C B
Because Judy’ s father loves her so much and he wants to make a dress for her. (合理即得分）
任务型阅读 (本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
48 49 50 51 52
A D E B C
六、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
53. is 54. to listen 55. Milk 56. These 57. any
capital 59. photo/picture 60. really 61. left 62. Their
black 64. sweet 65. teeth 66. like 67.remember
七、书面表达（本题有1小题，共计15分）
第五档（14-15分） 包含所有要点，完全完成了试题规定的任务；有清晰的文本框架，较多的语法结构和词汇；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑、行文连贯、表达清楚；语言基本无误。
第四档（11-13分） 基本包含所有要点，遗漏少量次要点，较全面地完成了试题规定的任务；有较清晰的的文本框架，比较多样的语法结构和词汇；行文连贯，表达基本清楚；语言有少量错误。
第三档（8-10分） 包含大多数要点，基本完成了试题规定的任务；少许语句不通顺，语言错误较多，但不影响整体理解。
第二档（4-7分） 只包含少数要点，未恰当完成试题规定的任务；多数语句不完整，语法结构单调，词汇项目有限，语言有较多错误，影响理解。
第一档（1-3分） 只包含个别要点，未完成试题规定的任务。多数语句不完整或意思不明，内容不连贯，错误很多。
（0分） 未能传达给读者任何信息；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
注意：评分时，按内容和表述两方面评分。注重语篇结构，注意思维的逻辑性和语言的流畅性，而不是局限在一两个语法点上。对于表达完整，能充分体现考生语言综合运用能力，但语言有少量错误的文章，可提高一个档次评分。作文词数超过太多酌情扣分。
