2023年秋学期高一年级期末考试
英语参考答案
八、完成句子（每小题1分，满分10分）
81.passing down
82.through thick and thin
一、听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 BABCA
6-10 BACAC
11-15 CBACA
16-20 CBCBA
83.behind the scenes
84.anything but
二、阅读理解（每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
85.Last but not least
86.make up for
21-25 CADCB
26-30 CDBAB
31-35 DADBC
87.not to mention
88.get into shape
三、七选五（每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
89.be rooted in
90.to draw on
36-40 CBGEF
九、应用文写作(15分)
四、完形填空（每小题1分，满分15分)
Dear Li Hua,
Sorry to hear that you still have some difficulty adapting to your school life.In fact,young people
41-45 DBCAC
46-50 BADCB
51-55 ABDCA
at your age may go through such pressure as you're feeling when attending senior high school.So,you
五、语法填空（每小题1.5分，满分15分）
are not alone.But don't worry.Here's some advice.
First,try to understand and adopt the different ways of learning as a senior high school student.
56.who 57.its/the
58.written
59.copies
60.highly
Then,make a weekly time schedule for your study and take one step at a time.Don't push yourself too
61.to go
62.greater
63.have been translated
64.adaptations 65.after
hard.Besides,it is equally important to get yourself involved in some extracurricular activities,which
will not only relieve much pressure,but also help you make more friends.
六、选词填空（每小题1分，满分5分）
I sincerely hope that my advice is helpful.
66.assumptions 67.inspire
68.confidence
69.Traditional 70.mentally
Yours,
七、单句语法填空（每小题1分，满分10分）
Peter
71.have been admitted 72.creativity
73.to
74.is promoted 75.where
76.generosity
77.frequently
78.which 79.confusing
80.significance
写作评分说明
第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）
文章总共分两个部分，包括(1)表示理解；(2)给出建议。如两个部分都涵盖，文章段落分明，
书写清楚，字数达到要求，表达无太多错误，得分则应在10分以上。
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2023年秋学期高一年级期末考试英语试题参考答案第1页共3页盐城市四校2023-2024学年高一上学期1月期末联考
英 语 试 题
时间：120分钟 分值：150分
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where are the speakers probably
A. In a bank. B. In a shop. C. In a hotel.
2. Why does the man call
A. To look for his ring. B. To send his package. C. To ask about a ticket.
3. What are the speakers talking about
A. Fruits. B. Drinks. C. Minerals.
4. When will the movie start
A. At 7: 50 pm. B. At 8: 00 pm. C. At 8: 10 pm.
5. What does the woman want to do
A. Put off the submission date.
B. Inquire more about the budget.
C. Change the way of doing budget.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和7小题。
6. What does the woman say about the china tea set
A. It’s priceless. B. It’s classical. C. It’s well-known.
7. How will the woman deal with the china tea set
A. By collecting it herself.
B. By sending it out as a gift.
C. By selling it at a fair price.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和9小题。
8. What does the job position involve according to the man
A. Answering phones.
B. Conducting interviews.
C. Creating schedules.
9. What does the company offer to its employees
A. Insurance. B. Accommodation. C. High salaries.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至12小题。
10. What does the man want to do in the beginning
A. Buy a refrigerator. B. Repair a refrigerator. C. Return a refrigerator.
11. What does the woman do with the situation
A. She lowers the price.
B. She corrects the instructions.
C. She explains the method of use.
12. How does the man sound at the end
A. Confused. B. Embarrassed. C. Disappointed.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至16小题。
13. How often does the man go to the beach
A. Once a week. B. Twice a month. C. Once a month.
14. Why did the man join Heal the Bay
A. His cousin invited him.
B. His parents influenced him.
C. His friend recommended him.
15. Which program did the man take part in
A. Adopt-A-Beach. B. Saturday Warriors. C. Beach Captains.
16. What does the man say about the members of Heal the Bay
A. They’re brave. B. They’re creative. C. They’re warm-hearted.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至20小题。
17. Who is the speaker probably
A. A teacher. B. A hostess. C. A tourist.
18. What was the original price of the tour package
A. $1, 430. B. $2, 460. C. $2, 860.
19. What does the tour package cover
A. Flight tickets. B. Lunch and dinner. C. A 5-night hotel stay.
20. What does the speaker advise the listeners to do
A. Book in advance.
B. Travel in large groups.
C. Make the most of the promotions.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Across the world lie cultures, each different from the next. Many of these cultures have medical treatments that have worked, or assisted in the relief of illnesses. The treatments may be strange, but some are wonderful and might make a big difference to something in your life.
Coconut The Fat Fighter
Coconut oil is believed to be a trick that can help slim your waist in no time. This was discovered by the natives of Sri Lanka. Coconut oil contains MCFAs, which motivate the liver to go into fat-burning mode at a rate that is 50% faster than usual.
Ginger For The Heart
Indonesian people believe the use of ginger connects with the lower production of triglycerides (甘油三酸酯). There are studies that prove that the Indonesian people are living a heart-healthy lifestyle with all that ginger.
Mustard Baths To Relieve Muscles
In England, mustard baths are used to relieve tight and painful muscles. For a mustard bath: take 2 cups of Epsom salts, 1/4 cup of baking soda, 1/4 cup of dry mustard, then pour the mixture into your bath. Mix the water and bathe in it for at least 20 minutes.
Acupuncture For Headache Relief
Acupuncture has been around for centuries. Today, over 80 million Chinese people engage in acupuncture for headache relief. The method relaxes the scalp (头皮) which in turn relieves the pain nerves that have been overworked.
21. What is recommended for losing weight
A. Mustard. B. Ginger. C. Coconut. D. Acupuncture.
22. What is special about a mustard bath
A. It makes your muscles relaxed. B. It has a complex process.
C. It can relieve your headache. D. It is friendly to your heart.
23. In which column can we probably read this passage
A. Opinion. B. Business. C. Nature. D. Health.
B
Flower-drum dancing is a traditional Chinese folk performance. It is popular across the county especially in places such as Fengyang in Anhui, Guangshan in Henan, and Haian in Jiangsu.
The Haian flower-drum dance dates back to more than 400 years ago. It became popular in the areas of the Yangtze River and the Huaihe River in the Ming Dynasty (1368-1644). The art form was used to show the peaceful lives of local fisherwomen. It is still popular with local people, known for its lively movements and gentle music. In 2007, the Haian flower-drum dance was included in the list of art forms that make up Jiangsu's provincial intangible (非物质的) cultural heritage.
Yang Peijie, 71, is an inheritor (传承) of the Haian flower-drum dance. He has been performing the dance for more than 50 years. "It has become a part of my life," he said.
In the 1960s, Yang joined an art troupe (艺术团) and started to learn the dance from older artists. At that time, people could only learn it in this way. There were no textbooks. Worrying the art may become lost, Yang spent five years studying the history of the dance and recorded its movements in detail. He visited almost all the local artists and wrote a book about the subject in the 1980s.
According to Yang, the dance movements are easy to learn and understand as they come from everyday life. "For example, there is a movement called fengbailiu (风摆柳)，it means you twist (扭动) your body like the wind blowing the willow trees (柳树). ’’
Nowadays, Yang focuses on promoting the dance among all age groups, especially the young. He set up a team to work on this. The team members visit about eight schools each year to teach students. It has been added to break-time exercises in many local schools. "To make it easier for kids to learn, we break down difficult movements into several simple ones," Yang said. They also go to communities and parks to teach older people. "It's my responsibility to pass down the art. I don't want to see it get lost in my lifetime," Yang said.
24. What do we know about the Haian flower-drum dance
A. It was linked to the lives of local fishermen.
B. It was included in the intangible cultural heritage list in 2007.
C. It is famous for its light movements and music.
D. It originated in the areas of the Yangtze River in the Ming Dynasty.
25. What did Yang do to keep the art alive
A. He consulted the local government about its history.
B. He put down what is relevant to it in the 1980s.
C. He wrote down the local artists' dance moves in detail.
D. He joined an art troupe to learn the dance from older artists.
26. What does the last paragraph mainly talk about
A. Yang's love for flower-drum dance.
B. The ways Yang teaches flower-drum dance.
C. Yang's attempts to popularize flower-drum dance.
D. Difficulties in promoting flower-drum dance.
27. Which of the following can be a suitable title of this passage
A. Promoting a fork art B. Learning to twist your body
C. Continuing to perform a dance D. Keeping the drum beat
C
China has set new rules limiting the amount of time children can play online games. The rules it children to just three hours of online game playing a week. That is one hour between 8 p.m. and 9 p.m. on Friday, Saturday and Sunday most weeks.
Li Zhanguo has two children aged 4 and 8. Even though they do not have smart phones, they enjoy playing online games. Like many other parents, Li is happy with new government rules. But experts say it is unclear if such policies can help prevent addiction to online games. Children might just get addicted to social media instead. In the end, experts say, parents should be the ones to set limits and support good practices.
There has been a growing concern in China about gaming addiction among children. Government reports in 2018 found that about one in 10 Chinese children were addicted to the Internet. The new rules are part of an effort to prevent young people from spending too much time on unhealthy entertainment. That includes what officials call the “irrational fan culture”.
Under the new rules, the responsibility for making sure children play only three hours a day as largely on Chinese gaming companies like NetEase and panies have set up real-name registration systems to prevent young users from going past game time limits. They have used facial recognition technology to check their identities. And they have also set up a program that permits people to report what is against the law. It is unclear what punishments gaming companies may face if they do not carry out the policies. And even if such policies are performed, it is also unclear whether they can prevent online addiction.
A specialist treating internet addiction expects about 20 percent of children will find ways to break the rules by borrowing accounts of their older relatives and find a way around facial recognition. In his opinion, short-video apps such as Douyin and TikTok are also very popular in China. They are not under the same restrictions as games.
28. When can children play games according to the new rules
A. Between 8 p.m. and 9 p.m. on Tuesday.
B. Between 8 p.m. and 9 p.m. on Friday.
C. Between 10 p.m. and 11 p.m. on Saturday.
D. Between 10 p.m. and 11 p.m. on Thursday.
29. According to experts, _________.
A. parents play a greater part in limiting the time of online games
B. companies are more responsible for kids' obeying the rules
C. the new rules will help prevent children playing online games
D. the new rules can stop children's addiction to social media
30. What will children probably do to battle with the new rules
A. Design an advanced program. B. Borrow accounts of their older relatives.
C. Set up real-name registration systems. D. Use facial recognition systems.
31. Which of the following is a suitable title for the text
A. Rules Limiting Short-video Apps.
B. Rules Breaking Addiction to Social Media.
C. Rules Banning Irrational Fan Culture.
D. Rules Limiting Video Game Time.
D
Australian consumers in Adelaide are taking part in a study to help realize the potential for edible insects as a food industry. Consumers’ attitudes are being put to the test at Adelaide Central Market with an offering of roasted crickets and ants, mealworm cookies and cricket energy bars.
Researchers want to further probe into consumers’ attitudes towards edible insects and evaluate taste preferences and consumers’ willingness to buy such products. In an earlier online survey of 820 Australian consumers, the researchers found that 20% had tried edible insects. Of those surveyed, 46% said they’d be willing to try a cookie made from insect flour.
“In the earlier survey, consumers said they were most likely to try flavored or roasted insects and least likely to want to try cockroaches or spiders,” Postdoctoral Fellow Dr Anna Crump says. “In this taste test, we’ve chosen products that consumers are most likely to react positively to — apologies to anyone keen to try a cockroach or spider. The samples we’ll be offering consumers provide a good spread of the available insect products in Australia’s marketplace, some of which may be more acceptable than others.”
Dr Crump says the research will help guide the development of an edible insect industry. In Australia, edible insects remain a new agricultural industry. Consumer research is needed to improve consumers’ acceptance of edible insects, so as to realize their potential as an alternate protein source.
Associate Professor Kerry Wilkinson says edible insects could play a role in global food security. “Food security issues such as climate change, increasing global population, scarcity of agricultural land and consumers’ rapidly changing preferences, particularly in developing countries where there is increasing demand for high quality animal protein will be overcome by a shift in food consumption habits. Edible insects could provide one solution. We want to look at ways of overcoming barriers to insect consumption in Australia,” he says.
32. What does the underlined phrase “probe into” in Paragraph 2 probably mean
A. study B. assess C. compose D. dive
33. Why have the researchers chosen those insect products for the taste test
A. They are richer in protein than other insects.
B. It is not difficult to flavor or roast them.
C. They are widely acceptable in Australia.
D. They are probably to consumers’ taste.
34. Kerry Wilkinson thinks consumers can help remove food security problems by __________.
A. controlling their appetite B. altering their eating habits
C. expanding agricultural land D. Overcoming barriers to insect consumption
35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text
A. Insects make food security no longer a problem
B. Edible insects appear to be gaining in popularity
C. Could edible insects help global food security
D. What counts most when it comes to edible insects
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
New Year gift ideas for parents
Getting New Year gifts for your parents does not have to be that hard. 36 Following these unique gift ideas, you express warmth and love to your parents and make them feel super special.
A restaurant gift card for dinner.
After all those busy schedules and tough work routines, your parents definitely need a relaxing break on New Year’s Day. You can send them a restaurant gift card. 37 If you don’t have enough money, you can split this gift price with your brothers and sisters and give your parents a perfect New Year dinner in a top restaurant.
Joy and happiness.
When parents get old, they appreciate family joy time. They love partying with their grown-up sons and daughters, and spending time with their grandchildren. 38 Let all the family members welcome New Year together, enjoy those delicious desserts and dinners, and play those New Year night games together.
39
A sweet New Year wish from children can bring a smile on your parents’ face. So, wish them a happy New Year and make them feel extra special. Write a beautiful New Year wish on a greeting card, and present it to your mom and dad with a nice bouquet(花束) of bright flowers.
Other than all this, you can also perform a secret check in your parents’ room and make a list of things you think should be gifted to them for this New Year. 40
A. This is why the new year starts with it.
B. Treat them to a nice dinner on New Year’s Eve.
C. Here we show you some best ideas of New Year gifts for parents.
D. New Year marks the beginning of the new calendar year.
E. Giving them a greeting card or sending them a New Year text message.
F. This gift can be any gift that makes them remember you when they use it.
G. To fulfill this wish of your parents, you can arrange a grand family get-together.
第三部分 语言运用(共五节，满分55分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
On the final day of my second year of high school, I was hit in the face with a baseball bat. After weeks in hospital, ____41____, I returned home with a broken nose. The following months were ____42____. It felt like everything was on pause. And I became painfully ____43____ that my return to baseball was not smooth.
After a year of self-doubt, I ____44____ not to let my injury get me down. If things were going to improve, I knew I was the one ____45____ for making it happen.
When I began college, I ____46____ getting my life in order. While my peers stayed up late and played video games, I ____47____ good sleep habits. In the ____48____ world of a college dorm, I kept my room neat and tidy. These ____49____ were small, but they gave me a sense of control over my life. I started to feel _____50_____ again. I improved my _____51_____ habits and managed to earn straight A’s. I made it a habit to lift weights, and my body _____52_____ from a featherweight 170 to a strong 200 pounds.
Changes that seem small at first will contribute to _____53_____ results if you stick with them for years. My sleep habits, study habits, and strength-training habits _____54_____. Six years after the _____55_____, I was named to the Academic All-America Team.
41. A. positively B. slightly C. hopefully D. fortunately
42. A. safe B. tough C. peaceful D. easy
43. A. suspicious B. eager C. aware D. resistant
44. A. determined B. hesitated C. afforded D. failed
45. A. admirable B. available C. responsible D. suitable
46. A. agreed on B. focused on C. ended up D. drew on
47. A. built B. quit C. broke D. rid
48. A. harmonious B. noisy C. tolerant D. messy
49. A. additions B. contributions C. improvements D. arguments
50. A. discontent B. confident C. relaxed D. depressed
51. A. study B. exercise C. food D. sleep
52. A. ranged B. transformed C. prevented D. protected
53. A. disappointing B. ordinary C. contradictory D. remarkable
54. A. took off B. caught up C. paid off D. sped up
55. A. injury B. victim C. threat D. disability
第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Louis Cha (Chinese: Cha Leung Yung; 10 March 1924 - 30 October 2018), better known by his pen name Jin Yong, was a great master of Chinese swordsman fictions, ___56___ co-founded the Hong Kong daily newspaper Ming Bao in 1959 and served as ___57___ first editor-in-chief. He was Hong Kong’s most famous writer.
His martial arts novels have a widespread following in Chinese communities worldwide. His 15 works ___58___ (write) between 1955 and 1972 earned him a reputation as one of the greatest and most popular martial arts novelist ever. By the time of his death he was the best-selling Chinese author, and over 100 million ___59___ (copy) of his works were sold worldwide. According to The Oxford Guide to Contemporary World Literature, Jin Yong’s novels are ___60___ (high) evaluated and are able to appeal to people from all walks of life. His works have the unusual ability ___61___ (go) beyond geographical and ideological barriers separating Chinese communities of the world, achieving ___62___ (great) success than any other contemporary writer.
To date, his works ___63___ (translate) into many languages, including English, French, Korean, Japanese, Vietnamese, Thai, Burmese, Malay and Indonesian. There are many fans outside of Chinese-speaking areas, as a result of the numerous ___64___ (adapt) of his works into films, television series, comics and video games. It is also widely known that the asteroid (小行星) 10930 Jinyong (1998 CR2) is named ____65____ him.
第三节 选词填空 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
选择并使用所给英语单词的正确形式完成句子。有两个是多余词。
confident assume contribute tradition mental attach inspiration
66. We need to challenge some of the basic ________ of Western philosophy.
67. What we should keep in mind is to ________ kids at a young age to understand that engineering is a great career.
68. They think if a person goes through too much failure, he will collapse and lose ________ in his life.
69. ________ teaching methods sometimes only succeeded in putting students off learning.
70. Although her club is quiet, Fan says it keeps members healthy, ________ and physically.
第四节 单句语法填空 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
71. As a father, nothing has made him more proud than the fact that three of his four children ________ (admit) into Peking University.
72. A city is the product of the human hand and mind, reflecting man's intelligence and ________ (create).
73. The language adopted in the book must be familiar ________ young children.
74. If someone ________ (promote), he will be given a more important job or rank in the organization that he works for.
75. He got into a situation ________ it is hard to decide what is right and wrong.
76. He is best known for the ________ (generous) he shows to his faithful and hard-working employees.
67. She ________(frequent) wonders what would have happened if she had made
different choices in her life.
78. They stayed with me for three weeks during ________ time they drunk all the wine I had.
79. Many students find the experience of attending university lectures to be a ________ (confuse) and frustrating experience.
80. Those private reflections may have historical ________ (significant) long after the author's death.
第五节 完成句子 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
根据句意和所给汉语提示，用适当的英文短语完成句子。
81. As an advantage, music education of teachers colleges could play a positive role in protecting and ________ ________ (流传，相传) nationality folk music.
82. I think the real friends who can be with you _________ _________ ________ _________ (同甘共苦), you can trust, and will not betray your people.
83. You have to be able to sell yourself and your ideas, both publicly and ________ ________ ________ (在幕后).
84. The boys knew they had broken the rules, and they were ________ ________ (根本不)happy when they were called to the office.
85. ________ ________ ________ ________ (最后但同样重要的), we should call on citizens to take the bus instead of driving a car as much as possible.
86. As a result, people will eat more food to try to _________ _________ ________ (弥补)that something missing.
87. We must solve the problem, _________ ________ ________ (更不用说) that this is not a small issue.
88. For those who want to ________ ________ ________ (强身健体), rock climbing is a fun and effective way.
89. Without tour country, there is no happiness. Everyone must ________ ________ ________ (扎根于) the soil of our country.
90. To ensure the future of mankind, it is necessary ________ ________ ________ (凭借，利用) our experience from the past
第四部分 应用文写作 (满分15分)
91. 假定你是某英文报社的编辑Peter，读者李华写信向你求助，表示尽管高一上学期已接近尾声，他发现自己仍然难以适应高中生活。请给他写封回信，内容包括：
1.表示理解；
2.给出建议。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Li Hua,
Sorry to hear that you still have some difficulty adapting to your school life.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I sincerely hope that my advice is helpful.
Yours,
Peter
