湖南省长沙市雨花区2023-2024学年高一上学期期末考试英语试题(含答案 含听力音频 无听力原文)

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名称 湖南省长沙市雨花区2023-2024学年高一上学期期末考试英语试题(含答案 含听力音频 无听力原文)
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更新时间 2024-01-25 11:26:01

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长沙市雨花区2023-2024学年高一上学期期末考试英语期末质量监测试题参考答案
第一部分 听力(共两节,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
1-5 CBCBA 6-10 ACACA 11-15CABCC 16-20 CABBC
阅读理解(共两节,每小题2.5分,满分50分)
21-25 CBACD 26-30 BDBAD 31-35 CDDBA 36-40 BGFCE
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
(一) (每小题1分, 满分15分)
41-45 ADBAC 46-50 BDBBC 51-55 DBCAD
(二) (每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
56. yourself 57. on 58. impossible 59. who/that 60. but
61. blindly 62. Hearing 63. it 64. To make 65. more important
第四部分 写作 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节(15分)应用文作文:
评分参考原则:
1. 总分15分,按5个档次给分。中档属于第三档(7-9分)。
2. 评分时,先跟据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 总词数明显不足的,可在本题总得分中扣去1分。
4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和正确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。各要素的权重大体为:卷面书写(1分),内容9分(其中要点5分,语意连贯4分),语法结构、单词拼写、标点(4分),词数(1分)。 5. 拼写与标点符号是语言正确性的一个方面,评分时应视其对交际的影响程度 予以考虑。
各档次的给分范围和要求:
一类(13-15分):写出全部内容要点,语句流畅。基本无语法和词汇方面的错误,少数错误主要是由于较高级词汇或复杂结构所致。词数达到要求。基本无单词拼写及标点错误。
二类(10-12分):写出大部分要点类容。语句较流畅。有少量语法和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。有少量单词拼写及标点错误。
三类(7-9分):写出部分要点。语句基本通顺。有一些语法和词汇错误,有少量单词及标点错误。
四类(4-6分):写出少量内容要点,语句不通顺。语法、词汇、单词拼写、标点错误较多。只有少量句子表达正确。
五类(0-3分):基本上没有写出内容要点,语法、词汇、单词拼写错误较多。基本上没有通顺的句子。只写出一些单词,不知所云。
说明:
1、要点可用不同方式表达。
2、对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。 凡不写任何内容,抄袭、所写内容无法看清者一律给0分。
One possible version:
Dear Linda,
I'm sorry to hear that you're upset at being laughed at by your classmates because of your obesity. But I think it unnecessary for you to care about that.
In my opinion, you shouldn't be embarrassed about your weight, you are great as you are. After all, it is what you are rather than how you look that counts. On the other hand, I have some advice for you if you want to lose some weight. Firstly, change your eating habits and keep a balanced diet, which will help prevent diseases. Secondly, take exercise regularly, and I am sure it is a good way for you to get rid of your obesity. Thirdly, make sure you get enough sleep.
I hope my advice will be helpful and you can get out of trouble soon.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(25分)
读后续写评分要点:
1.本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
21-25, 16-20, 11-15, 6-10, 1-5, 0
2.评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数明显很少的,从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
1.与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
2.内容的丰富性和对所给关键词语的覆盖情况;
3.应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
4.上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
One possible version:
Suddenly he had an idea. He dashed into his room, and took out a pencil and a piece of blank paper from his desk. Then he began to write carefully, with his eyes sparkling. After he finished writing, he copied it neatly and got another envelope from his dad. He put the letter into the envelope with great care and thought his mom would love the present. A smile of satisfaction flashed across his face. He rose from his chair, stretched himself, and went to bed happily
The next morning, Jim handed his present to his mom. Seeing the present, her face brightened up. “I hope you will like it, mom," Jim looked at his mom eagerly. His mom gave him a big smile ,“Thank you, my dear! Whatever it is, I will like it." Then she took out the letter, reading, "Dear mom, thank you for making me meals and dessert, telling me stories and giving me hugs. Thank you for everything. I love you!" Mom hugged Jim tightly, “Thank you, my son. I love you, too. This is the best present I have ever received."长沙市雨花区2023-2024学年高一上学期期末考试英语
满分150分 时量120分钟
考生注意:
1、本试题共分为I卷和II卷。时量 120分钟,满分150分。答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考场号、座位号填入答题卡相应位置内。
2、客观题请用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上,主观题用黑色的笔书写在答题卡上。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共 5 小题; 每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the man do tonight
A. Buy some shoes.
B. Go to the bank.
C. Book a hotel room.
2. What time is it now
A. 4:10. B. 4:20. C. 4:30.
3. What kind of music does the woman like best
A. Pop music.
B. Light music.
C. Classical music.
4. What does the woman mean
A. The sea is getting smaller.
B. The sea is being polluted.
C. The sea is getting cleaner.
5. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. In a bookstore.
B. In a classroom.
C. In a publishing house.
第二节 (共 15 小题; 每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料, 回答第 6、7 题。
6. What will the woman do on the weekend
A. Play football.
B. Have dinner with her friend.
C. Go to a concert with the man.
7. When will the speakers meet outside Kent Theater
A. At eight this Thursday.
B. At six this Saturday.
C. At seven next Tuesday.
听第 7 段材料, 回答第 8 至 9 题。
8. What does the man offer to do
A. Lend his umbrella to the woman.
B. Get the woman's umbrella for her.
C. Do the presentation for the woman.
9. What is the woman probably going to do right away
A. Wait for the man.
B. Study in the library.
C. Go for the presentation.
听第 8 段材料, 回答第 10 至 12 题。
10. Why is the woman moving
A. To get a job in a new place.
B. To get further education.
C. To live together with her parents.
11. Why does the woman want to leave her dog behind
A. She can't take care of it.
B. Her parents don't want her to take it.
C. The dog would not be used to the new environment.
12. Where does the woman live now
A. In a small village.
B. In a big city.
C. In the town.
听第 9 段材料, 回答第 13 至 16 题。
13. What is the woman doing
A. Attending a meeting.
B. Having a job interview.
C. Making a self-introduction in a show.
14. What is the woman's major
A. Literature.
B. Education.
C. Public administration.
15. Why was the woman out of school during high school
A. She was badly ill.
B. She had to act in a film.
C. Her father took her to America.
16. What part-time job did the woman do at college
A. A travel guide.
B. A designer.
C. A tutor.
听第 10 段材料, 回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. Where is the National Park
A. In the north of the city.
B. In the south of the city.
C. In the east of the city.
18. Why should we hike with partners
A. To cut expenses.
B. To ensure our safety.
C. To make the trip more enjoyable.
19. What is NOT needed when getting around in the park
A. A GPS. B. A guidebook. C. A map.
20. What does the speaker suggest we do at last
A. Take rocks home only for study.
B. Take enough water and snacks with us.
C. Take nothing home but pictures and memories.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Tokyo Bike Tours
Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Tokyo
Duration: 2 hours
This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see a world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Tokyo. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous mountains where they blossom. Reserve your spot in advance before the cherry blossoms disappear!
Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour
Duration:2 hours (4 miles)
Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Tokyo. Explore the monuments and memorials in the city as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water.
Capital City Bike Tour
Duration:2 hours
Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for Tokyo newcomers and locals looking to experience the city in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most, interesting stories about Mikados (日本天皇), temples, memorials, and fortable bikes and a smooth tour route(路线)make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing.
Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour
Duration:2 hours
Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Tokyo. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike to the sites of Tokyo Historic Museum and temples. Frequent stops are made for photo-taking while your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights.
21.Which tour do you need to book ahead of time
A. Capital City Bike Tour.
B. Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.
C. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Tokyo.
D. Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour.
22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour
A. Take photos.
B. Enjoy interesting stories
C. Visit well-known museums.
D. Make friends with newcomers and locals. D . Make friends with newcomers and locals.
23. What does the bicycle tour at night provide cyclists with
A .Safety lights. B .Cameras.
C .Cookies D .City maps
B
High school, for most teenagers, is a space where new adventures and challenges begin. I clearly remember my first day of high school. As I entered the schools gate, I was greeted by a crowd of students. The hallways were filled with talking and laughter. It was a lot to handle, and I felt like a tiny fish in a vast ocean. I held my schedule tightly, trying to find the right classroom. My heart raced as I was scared of getting lost.
My first class was English, and as I walked in, I spotted familiar faces from my previous school I breathed a sigh of relief as I took my seat, surrounded by friendly smiles. My English teacher, Mrs. Johnson, introduced herself and made everyone feel comfortable. She explained what we would be studying during the semester and encouraged us to share our thoughts and ideas. The next class was mathematics, which happened to be my weakest subject. I felt a tight feeling in my stomach as I entered the classroom, but my maths teacher, Mr. Smith, turned out to be very patient. He promised us that we would learn and improve together. His words of support made me feel more relaxed, and I began to believe that I could overcome my maths struggles.
During lunchtime, I sat with a group of students who quickly became my friends. We shared stories, and talked about our expectations for high school. It was during this time that I realized that high school wasn’t just about academics (学术); it was also about building friendships and making lasting memories.
The rest of the day flew by with a variety of classes, faces, and experiences. My first day of high school was filled with moments of anxiety, joy, and the promise of new beginnings.
24. Why did the author feel like a tiny fish in a vast ocean at first
A.Because of excitement and curiosity.
B.Because of the school’s welcoming atmosphere.
C.Because of fear of the unfamiliar environment
D.Because of good preparations for the new school.
25. Which words can best describe the English teacher
A.Outgoing and friendly.
B.Generous and powerful.
C.Responsible and patient.
D.Encouraging and supportive.
26. How did the author feel when entering the maths class
A.Excited. B.Anxious.
C.Relaxed. D.Confident.
27. What did the author realize during lunchtime
A.High school only focused on academics.
B.High school was an extremely challenging place.
C. High school was full of old friends and classmates.
D. High school was also about wonderful social experiences
C
Friends play an important part in our lives, and although we may take friendship for granted, we often don’t clearly underst-and how to make friends. While we get on well with a number of people, we are usually friends with only a very few — for example, the average among students is about 6 per person. In all the cases of friendly relationships, two people like one another and enjoy being together, but beyond that, the degree of intimacy(亲密关系) between them and the reasons for their shared interests vary greatly. As we get to know people, we take into account things like age, race, economic condition, social position, and intelligence. Although these factors are not of great importance, it is more difficult to get on with people when there is a marked difference in age and background.
Some friendly relationships can be kept on argument and discussion, but it is usual for close friends to have similar ideas and beliefs, the same opinions and interests — they often talk about “being on the same wavelength”. It generally takes time to reach this point. And the more intimate people become, the more they depend on one another. People who want to be friends have to learn to put up with annoying habits and to stand differences.
In contrast with marriage, there are no friendship ceremonies to strengthen the relationship between two people. But the supporting and understanding of each other that results from shared experiences and emotions does seem to create a powerful bond, which can overcome differences in background, and break down barriers(障碍) of age, class or race.
28. According to the 1st paragraph of the passage, ______.
A.friends are those who must share their interests
B.friends are closer than people who just get on with each other
C.all the people know how to make friends
D.every student has six friends
29. We can learn from the passage that______ .
A.there are no special ceremonies to strengthen friendship
B.friendship can overcome all differences between two people
C.standing differences in opinion can lead to friendship
D.friendship can be strengthened by smiles and soft voices
30. Which of the following is NOT implied in the passage
A.Even friends may have different opinions.
B.Someone’s habits may annoy his friends.
C.It generally takes time for people to become close friends.
D.Friends never argue with each other.
31. When people talk about “being on the same wavelength”, they mean that they ______ .
A.have the same background
B.watch the same TV programs
C.share the same way of thinking and the same interests
D.are the same in all ways
D
Research shows that isolation (隔绝) is bad for us and connected with certain diseases including depression, high blood pressure and heart disease. Yet teenagers look for isolation by using the device of our times — a screen, screens of all kinds. However, in whatever form, screens are addictive (上瘾的), and addictive from an early age. Research has shown that given the chance, six-month old babies prefer screens to real human faces.
Hand in hand with this addiction to screens, we are seeing an increase of teenage mental health problems. Social media claims to be inclusive (包容的) keeping you connected. But it’s not. It isolates you from real people. Screens have even been described as being poisonous for teenagers.
Psychologist Jean Twenge, a professor at San Diego State University, believes today’s teenagers are “on the edge” of a major mental health crisis and requests, “do anything that doesn’t connect with a screen”. The problem is, she claims, children born between 1995 and 2012 have grown up with a smart phone in their hands, and it has “changed every aspect” of their lives. The number of teenagers who really see their friends very often has dropped by more than 40% since 2000. In 2015, only 56% of 17-year-old went on a date(约会), down from 85%. Modern teenagers are slower to learn to drive, or earn money and spend more time at home. They’re “on their phone, in their room, alone and often depressed”, she says.
Some critics ( 评论家), however, say we should encourage our children to spend more time online. Robert Hannigan, former director of GCHQ, said in August that Britain is badly short of engineers and computer scientists, and encouraged children to develop cyber skill to compete in the digital industry.
I’m not the first to say that social media is worsen than real human communication, and harms mental health. Studies show teens who spend three hours a day online are 35% more likely to suicide (自杀). The suicide rate among girls aged 12 to 14 has more than doubled in a decade.
32. Why does Jean Twenge call on teens to surf online less
A.Social media is inclusive and keeps them connected.
B.Social media has changed every aspect of their lives.
C.Social media does great harm to their eyesight.
D.Social media is addictive and leads to mental problems.
33. Robert Hannigan may agree that we should________.
A.allow teens to isolate themselves from real social contact
B.call on teens to do anything that doesn’t involve a screen
C.urge children to contact people face to face instead of online
D.encourage children to spend more time on the Internet
34. What is the author’s attitude towards social media
A.Objective. B.Disapproving.
C.Doubtful. D.Supportive.
35. What may be the best title for the text
A.Teenagers looking for isolation using screens
B.Social media causing teenagers health problems
C.Teenagers’ heavy addiction to social media
D.Different opinions on social media use
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Four ways to make someone else smile
In a world surrounded by bad news, it may feel like an unhappy place sometimes. However, you can make a difference. If you make even one person smile today, you can help make this world a better place. 36 What are you waiting for Go ahead!
Send a handwritten letter
In this day and age, where everything is sent via email, Facebook, WhatsApp and Snapchat, it’s a shock to receive a letter through the post. 37 . Even a postcard with a couple of sentences could really make someone’s day – all for the price of a stamp!
Volunteer
38 Whether you volunteer at your local youth group or take dogs from shelters for a walk, the simple fact that you are giving up your time to help someone else is incredible. There are so many opportunities, so you are sure to find one that is right for you. And it doesn’t necessarily have to take up all your time. It could be once a week or a couple of times a year.
39
Whether you’re creative or not, taking time to make something for someone else shows how much you appreciate them. Even if you think you’re not creative, the recipient will feel lucky to get such a unique gift that you put your precious time into. Some ideas could include a card, painting, drawing, song, poem or cake!
Tell someone ‘I love you’
Before you go ‘yuck’, it can be anyone – your mum or dad, grandparents, family member, friend, boyfriend or girlfriend. 40 Perhaps you can tell a friend that you appreciate all they are to you, or remind your mum that you love her. Sometimes, in our busy lives we forget to take a moment to tell people what they mean to us.
A.Try to be creative.
B.Here is a list of ideas to help you.
C.Make something for a special person.
D.This can help get more help from your friend.
E.And you don’t even have to say ‘I love you’.
F.Volunteering is one of the nicest things you can do.
G.Writing to a friend can be an easy way to make a positive impact.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
At the age of 60, my father was hit by a car when he walked to a nearby supermarket to buy vegetables. After sleeping for two months in hospital, he finally woke up. His waking up__41__all our family. Unluckily, he didn’t know any of us. Doctors said his brain was hurt so___42___that he had lost all his memory. And his mental age was only five. We were sorry to hear about the bad news.
Since I was his only child, it was my___43___to look after him. He forgot nearly everything, but he did remember he liked sweets. I used the sweets as a way of__44____bad behaviors. I would give him one sweet___45___he didn’t sit on the ground, a second for stopping painting on the wall, and another for not trying to put clothes on the dog.
Dad became the___46___child in town. He broke my window with a ball and___47__our telephone in water like washing clothes. When I told him he was doing___48___things, he would answer smilingly, “I like that!” My son, then aged five, and two eight-year-old daughters, welcomed their___49___playmate. He would happily make them real cigarettes, and____50__his sweets with them.
It is eight years since the___51___. Dad has accepted the fact that he is the___52___of his three playmates but not a brother. He has also accepted that they grow taller but his___53__stays the same. Though it is still___54___to take care of him, he brings us a lot of fun. In some way I think it is a(n)___55__thing to look after dad like looking after a child. How many people can have the chance to care for a child-like parent
41.A.excited B.calmed C.hurt D.protected
42.A.slowly B.strangely C.lightly D.seriously
43.A.idea B.duty C.favor D.habit
44.A.stopping B.performing C.accepting D.planning
45.A.so B.though C.if D.before
46.A.cleverest B.oldest C.bravest D.kindest
47.A.repaired B.designed C.answered D.cleaned
48.A.useless B.wrong C.kind D.impolite
49.A.foolish B.big C.shy D.foreign
50.A.show B.lend C.share D.sell
51.A.graduation B.invention C.mistake D.accident
52.A.teacher B.grandfather C.doctor D.uncle
53.A.weight B.age C.height D.look
54.A.tiring B.relaxing C. amusing D.interesting
55.A. perfect B.important C.easy D.happy
第 II 卷
第二节(共10小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
“Don't judge a book by its cover,” the old saying goes. As a teenager, however, that is often exactly what you do to 56 (you). Standards(标准) of beauty in the media can have a big influence 57 what you think of your appearance. These standards are simply 58 (possible)for most of the population to reach. If you have friends 59 are good looking or have a great fashion sense, it can feel like you are living in their shadow. Their influences can't be avoided, 60 there are certainly ways to deal with them. First of all, keep in mind not to follow popular beauty standards 61 (blind). Another tip is to recognize that you are unique and talk about your feelings with someone you trust. 62 (hear) how much they value you can help you feel comfortable in your own skin. Finally, 63 is a good idea to draw your attention away from negative thoughts. 64 (make) it, you should do something you enjoy. You may often judge yourself by what is on the outside, rather than on the inside. However, just like a book, your contents are much 65 (important) than your cover.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节:应用文写作(满分15分)
假定你是李华,你的美国笔友Linda因为肥胖问题(obesity)而遭到同学的嘲笑,为此她感到非常尴尬,写信向你求助。请你给她写一封回信,内容包括:
1. 给予安慰;2. 提供建议。 注意:1. 词数80左右;
Dear Linda,
________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节:读后续写 阅读下面短文,根据所给情节进行续写,使之构成一个完整的故事。
Jim sat on the couch. Mother’s Day was coming up, and he didn’t have a present. “How can I buy a present without money ” he thought.
Jim picked up the newspaper that was lying on the couch. He noticed a large advertisement on the front page. The local department store was hosting a contest. “Tell us why your mom is special and win a shopping spree(疯狂购物) for her,” said the ad.
“This is perfect!” thought Jim. He ran to his room with the newspaper, taking a pencil and a blank piece of paper from his desk, he started to write.
“My mom is the best mother in the world. She always makes a lunch for me to take to school, and she never forgets my dessert. She reads as many books to me before bed as I want. And she gives the best hug, but never in front of my friends, who would laugh at me for hugging my mom.”
Jim liked what he had written. He copied it neatly and got an envelope and a stamp from his dad. He ran to the mailbox with his entry(参赛作品), “Mom will love having a shopping spree,” he thought.
Jim checked the mailbox every day for his prize. Days passed by, and then weeks. Soon it was the day before Mother’s Day. Jim still hadn’t heard anything about the contest.
“What am I going to do now ” he wondered. He didn’t have a present, and he didn’t have a shopping spree, and he still didn’t have any money. He had to think of something. Jim closed his eyes and thought so hard that his ears hurt.
注意: 续写词数应为150 左右;
Suddenly he had an idea.
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The next morning, Jim handed his present to his mom.
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