湖北省部分市2023-2024学年高一上学期1月期末考试英语试题(PDF版含答案 无听力音频 无听力原文)

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名称 湖北省部分市2023-2024学年高一上学期1月期末考试英语试题(PDF版含答案 无听力音频 无听力原文)
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科目 英语
更新时间 2024-01-31 12:57:05

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2023-2024 学年高一元月期末考试
英语解析及评分细则
A篇
本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了巴黎的四个著名旅游地。
21. C 细节理解题。根据Louvre部分中的“The Mona Lisa may not be your cup of tea, but we recommend (推荐) at least Liberty Leading the People.”可知,游客在卢浮宫可以欣赏名画《蒙娜丽莎》。故选C。
22. D 推理判断题。根据Giverny部分中的“Lying about 45 miles from Paris, this village is the hometown of the late artist Claude Monet.”可知,莫奈的故乡Giverny可能最吸引莫奈的画迷。故选D。
23. A 细节理解题。根据四个小标题段落中的内容,可知每个旅游地都有艺术相关的项目,所以它们的共同点是适合艺术爱好者。故选A。
B篇
本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了“我”为了回答老师的最佳好友的提问而虚构了一个好朋友Hayley并从中获得了心灵慰藉的故事。
24. D 推理判断题。根据第三段内容“I have to imagine a best friend because there have been too many times I’ve been asked to describe this person, too many times I’ve replied, “I don’t have one,” and too many times I’ve heard, “Why not Don’t you want a best friend ””可知,作者虚构Hayley的原因是被问了太多次最佳好友的问题,已经感到厌烦了。故选D。
25. B 细节理解题。根据第四段 “I’ve often wondered: Does not having a best friend mean I am defective (有缺陷的) Should I be awkward that the only people I hang out with are my parents Will I have to face heartbreak and failure alone ”以及“take psychology (心理) tests on my phone to find out why I am defective”可知作者因自己没有最佳好友的事情而对自己产生了怀疑。故选B。
26. C 推理判断题。根据第五段“Hayley can say what my mind tells her, “You can only do so much, and self-doubt uses most of the ‘so much’ you can really do.””可知,Hayley会对作者说她能做的有限,要放下内心的怀疑和担忧。故选C。
27. D 标题概括题。通读全文可知,本文前三段介绍了“我”创造虚构好友的原因——为了回答老师的问题,后三段写了创造虚构好友给我带来的心灵慰藉以及老师对我的回答的肯定。由此可推知,作者旨在讲述“我”回答最佳好友问题时发生的故事。故选D。
C篇
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了接触泥土能给孩童带来身心健康上的好处的研究发现。
28. A 推理判断题。第一段用以前的家长对待孩子玩泥巴时的否定态度来引出第二段的话题,即玩泥巴其实对孩子有好处。故选A。
29. A 细节理解题。根据第三段“Outdoor play can also offer valuable learning experiences.”可知在户外玩耍可以提供给孩子宝贵的学习经历。故选A。
30. C 词义猜测题。根据最后一段第一句“Surprisingly, people who spent most of their childhood in the countryside show a better reply to stressful events like public speaking compared with those who grew up in cities. ”及划线短语后一句话“However, people who have spent lots of time in nature since childhood are generally stronger in recovery and more positive.” 可知童年时期接触大自然更多的人在(面对压力时)恢复得更快,也更积极,可反推前一句话中在城市长大的人在面对压力时比较脆弱,恢复得更慢,更不容易处理好压力。故选C。
31. B 推理判断题。通读全文可知,文章主要介绍了接触泥土能给孩童带来身心健康上的好处的研究,因此应该来源于网站中的健康一栏。故选B。
D篇
本文是一篇议论文。文章论述了AI对环境的影响不仅仅是创作和训练AI时产生的碳排放,更重要的是AI的应用方式对环境的影响。
32. C 细节理解题。根据第二段中的“The influence of AI systems is going to be from their applications, not the cost of training them.”可知,Dodge认为AI系统对环境的影响来自于他们的应用方式,而不是训练它们的碳排放代价。故选C。
33. B 推理判断题。根据第四段中的“such as” “one such”可知,作者是通过举例子的手法来展开第四段的。故选B。
34. A 推理判断题。根据最后一段中“AI could be a valuable tool in the fight against climate change—if the AI industry can reduce its harmful climate effects. ‘Both AI and climate rules have roles to play.’”可知,如果对AI有规则约束,可以帮助AI成为对抗气候变化的工具。故选A。
35. D 主旨大意题。根据第一段中“But its environmental effect is more than its carbon (碳) footprint.”以及全文内容可知,本文主要论述了AI对环境的影响不仅仅是创作和训练AI时产生的碳排放,更重要的是AI的应用方式对环境的影响。故选D。
七选五
本文是一篇说明文。文章鼓励读者充分利用两年的时间做出改变,并从设立目标、投入行动、自律自控三个方面给出了具体建议。
36. D 根据空前的“Two years is extremely easy to waste”和空后的三个“You can”排比句可知,空前提到了两年时间很容易被浪费,空后举例说明两年时间中可以做的事情。空处应为一个转折句并概括引领后文。D项“但是两年时间内可以做很多事情”符合语境。故选D。
37. F 根据空前三个“You can”排比句可知这几个句子讲述的是两年时间内可以做的事情的举例,F项“你也可以创业并成功”和空前句子构成并列关系,符合语境。故选F。
38. C 本段的主旨句是“Set a goal for what you’ve wanted to do.”。空前提到了要设立目标去完成以前想做的事情,空后“You are still able to do extreme sports, play a musical instrument or become a photographer if you wish to. Don’t let age or past experiences decide who you are… Age is just a number.”提到你可以完成的梦想,而且不要让年龄限制你。C项“无论年龄多大都可以完成小时候的梦想”承上启下,符合语境。故选C。
39. B 上一段主旨句提到要设立目标去完成梦想,本段空后句“The easiest way to reach goals is through daily small actions.”讲述最简单的达成目标的方式是通过日常的小行动。可知空处应为承上启下的功能,B项“但是,没有行动的目标只是空想”符合语境。故选B。
40. A 通过本段主旨句“Be in control”可知本段讲述人要自律自控的建议,空前提到自律自控不过是选择把电视节目换成书籍,或者选择爬楼梯和骑车上班的行动。A项“坚持这些行动,你就可以创造奇迹”符合语境。故选A。
完形填空
本文是一篇记叙文,讲述了轮椅篮球队队长Adolfo Damian Berdun为小学生做篮球教练,实现了自己的教练梦,激发了学生们对篮球的热情和运动员精神的故事。
41. B 考查动词辨析。根据下文中的“the children learned the 43 skills”可知,Berdun是去教授 (taught)篮球技能的。故选B。
42. D 考查名词辨析。根据语境可知“At School I Learn to Play Without Limits”是一个为期五周的教学项目 (project)。故选D。
43. C 考查形容词辨析。根据上文中的“four classes of elementary-school kids”可知,Berdun的教学对象是小学生,所学篮球技能应为基础 (basic)技能。故选C。
44. A 考查名词辨析。根据上文中“As captain of Argentina’s national wheelchair basketball team, Adolfo Damian Berdun has led his team to many victories and is the MVP (most valuable player) of his Italian Cup-winning team.”可知Berdun是一名带领团队赢得多次胜利的优秀残疾人篮球运动员,所以是一个运动传奇人物 (legend)。故选A。
45. A 考查动词辨析。根据上文中的“As captain of Argentina’s national wheelchair basketball team”及语境可知,Berdun是轮椅篮球队队长,他去训练场地应为坐着轮椅 (wheeled)到场。故选A。
46. C 考查形容词辨析。根据语境可知,Berdun作为一名残疾人教练,第一天为学生教授篮球知识,学生的反应是比较惊讶的 (wide-eyed)。故选C。
47. A 考查形容词辨析。根据语境,可知Berdun在看到学生们惊讶的表情后就向学生们讲清楚 (make it clear)他们应该关注篮球而不是他消失的腿。故选A。
48. B 考查形容词辨析。根据下文中“Berdun 52 how he lost his leg at age 13 after being hit by a truck in his hometown.”可知Berdun在车祸中失去了一条腿 (missing leg)。故选B。
49. D 考查动词辨析。根据上下文语境可知,篮球课程已经开始还没结束,因此当前篮球课程正在推进 (progress)中。故选D。
50. D 考查名词辨析。根据上文中“As captain of Argentina’s national wheelchair basketball team”及下文中“Berdun 52 how he lost his leg at age 13 after being hit by a truck in his hometown.”可知Berdun是残疾人,他到处去宣讲他是如何接受/忍受他的残疾 (disability)的。故选D。
51. A 考查名词辨析。根据上文语境Berdun教授小学生篮球技能,以及下文中的“The most beautiful thing is that they managed to 55 the barrier (障碍) between the coach with one leg in a wheelchair and his dream of being a coach.” Berdun最终实现了做教练的梦想,可知他是第一次有机会被称作“教练 (Coach)”。故选A。
52. D 考查动词辨析。根据下文中的“asking him several questions”和语境可知,此处Berdun在给孩子们解释 (explain)他的腿是如何在车祸中失去的。故选D。
53. B 考查名词辨析。根据下文中“after asking him several questions, they couldn’t wait to go on doing basketball practices.”和语境可知,Berdun很惊讶 (surprise)孩子们没有过多关注他的残疾,而是更多投身于篮球运动上。故选B。
54. B 考查动词辨析。根据上文中“after asking him several questions, they couldn’t wait to go on doing basketball practices.”和语境可知,孩子们没有过多关注他的残疾,很快就忘掉 (forgot)他的残疾情况,转而投身于篮球运动上。故选B。
55. C 考查动词短语辨析。根据全文语境可知,这个故事最美的一点就是Berdun和孩子们一起打破了 (broke down)只有一条腿的坐轮椅的教练 (可能会被另眼相看)和他当教练的梦想之间的障碍。故选C。
语法填空
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了《牛津词典》的发展历史。
56. most famous考查形容词的最高级。此处指“最著名的一本英语词典”。故填most famous。
57. growing 考查非谓语动词作动名词。此处意为“该词典一直在被印刷,一直在不断增长”,growing作keeps的宾语。故填growing。
58. began 考查谓语动词。分析句子结构可知,此处缺谓语动词,根据句子的时间状语in 1857可知本句讲的是“该词典开始于1857年”,应用过去时。故填began。
59. when 考查定语从句。分析句子结构可知,空处引导定语从句,先行词是1870s,指时间,从句中缺少时间状语,应用when引导该从句。故填when。
60. in 考查介词的搭配。根据上下文语境可知,此处考查be buried in动词短语的搭配。故填in。
61. written 考查非谓语动词作过去分词。本句意为“Murray和团队埋头于收集成千上百万份纸条,每一张上都有一个单词和一个例句或短语被写在上面”,考查with+宾语+宾补的用法,written作宾语补语,与其所修饰的a word and an example sentences or phrase之间为被动关系。故填written。
62. and考查并列连词。此句中finished和published为并列关系。故填and。
63. has been put 考查谓语动词。分析句子结构可知,此处缺谓语动词,根据时间状语So far可知,此处应填现在完成时,根据句意可知,it和put之间为被动关系,it为第三人称单数。故填has been put。
64. reference 考查动词转为名词的词性转换。根据语境可知,此处意为“《牛津词典》作为一本参考书……”。故填reference。
65. an 考查不定冠词。根据语境可知,“《牛津词典》是英语国家文化历史的一部分”,important为元音开头的单词。故填an。
应用文写作评分细则
一、评分原则:
1. 本题总分为15分,按各档次评分标准给分。
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 词数少于60,酌情扣分。
4. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:写作格式、时态、人称、内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。将新闻报道写成信件格式的降档扣分。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档 (13-15分)
覆盖了所有内容要点,表述清楚、合理。
使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有个别小错,但完全不影响理解。有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构清晰,意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 (10-12分)
覆盖了所有内容要点,表述比较清楚、合理。
使用了比较多样并且恰当的词和语法结构,可能有些许错误,但不影响理解。比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 (7-9分)
覆盖了大部分内容要点,有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构,有一些错误或不当之处,但基本不影响理解。基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4-6分)
遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点,或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
所使用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多,影响理解。
几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不够清,意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档 (1-3分)
遗漏或未清表述大部分内容要点,或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
所使用的词汇有限,语法结单调,错误多,严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。
完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答、所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
读后续写评分细则
【续写思路】
1.由续写第一段首句内容“然后我遇到了Christensen女士”可知,第一段可描写Christensen女士帮助“我”发现自己的天赋一一写作,让“我”不再生活在姐姐们的阴影下。她鼓励“我”勇敢做自己,并通过各种方法让“我”建立自信。
2.由续写第二段首句内容“是Christensen女士给了我成为一名作家的力量”可知,第二段可具体描述Christensen女士是如何帮助“我”找到了人生的追求。而且该段可以承接上文提到的专业评论,讲述“我”所取得的进步和感受,并且在文章最后点题:走自己的路。
续写线索:老师认可——给予肯定——建立自信——确定职业——自我认知升华感受。
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分25分,按各档次评分标准给分。
评分要综合考虑情节和语言。情节只要合理,不一定要与范文一模一样。情节极不合理但语言很出彩的作文不能给第五档(21-25)。情节非常好但语言不好按照语言来评分。
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;内容的丰富性和创新性;应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性:上下文的连贯性。
4. 不足120词扣2分;对词数没有上限,即超词不扣分。
5. 如果仅续写一个段落, 三档中位12.5分为上限,在此基础上相应扣分。
6. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的程度影响予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
7. 如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
8. 摘抄阅读理解或前文的一律记0分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21-25分)
创造了丰富、合理的内容,富有逻辑性,续写完整,与原文情境融洽度高。
使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有个别小错,但完全不影响理解。有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构清晰,意义连贯。
第四档(16-20分)
创造了比较丰富、合理的内容,比较有逻辑性,续写比较完整,与原文情境融洽度较高。 使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有些许错误,但不影响理解。
比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。
第三档(11-15分)
创造了基本合理的内容,有一定的逻辑性,续写基本完整,与原文情境相关。
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构,有一些错误或不恰当之处,但基本不影响理解。基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
第二档(6-10分)
内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题,续写不够完整,与原文情境有一定程度脱节。所使用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多,影响理解。
未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义不够连贯。
第一档(1-5分)
内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题,或有部分内容抄自原文,续写不完整,与原文情境基本脱节。
所使用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多,严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。
零分
未作答、所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判,所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相 关。2023-2024学年高一元月期末联考英语参考答案
听力1-5 BAACA 6-10 CBBCB 11-15 CBABA 16-20 CACBC
阅读理解 21-23 CDA 24-27 DBCD 28-31 AACB 32-35 CBAD 36-40 DFCBA
完形填空41-45 BDCAA 46-50 CABDD 51-55 ADBBC
语法填空 56. most famous; 57. growing; 58. began; 59. when; 60. in;
61. written; 62. and; 63. has been put; 64. reference; 65. an.
应用文参考范文:
Last week, our school held a competition of making Chinese relics models with the purpose of raising students’ awareness of protecting cultural heritage.
The activity attracted students from all three grades, who handed in a total of 300 works, including the four great inventions and mini terra-cotta figures. The models were creatively made with all kinds of materials like clay and paints. Some students even attached a brief introduction to their works. Then their works were exhibited in the school hall and were judged by other students. Finally, 20 works stood out as the final winners.
The activity was well received. It was through the activity that the students gained more insights into the essence of Chinese traditional culture and realized the importance of protecting cultural heritage.
读后续写参考范文:
And then I met Ms. Christensen. Even though she knew my sisters, she never compared me with them. She wanted me to be the unique one. “What is your story ” she would ask. It was inspiring to have a teacher seeing me like this, not based on grades, not even based on the good reputation of my sisters. She encouraged me to write my own story. She then invited me to read my stories in front of other students, which built up my confidence gradually.
It was Ms. Christensen that gave me the power to be an author. An author wasn’t a career that anyone I knew had pursued. Ms. Christensen told me that I could be what I couldn’t see, which wasn’t an impossible dream. And she pushed me. Her professional remarks helped me to better my skill of writing. In her classroom, I found my voice and no longer hid in the shadows. In her classroom, I realized I didn’t have to fill my sisters’ shoes. I could walk in my own.
听力材料:
Text 1
W: How did you get to the supermarket, by bus or by bike
M: At first, I planned to ride my bike. (1) Then I decided to drive my car because of the rain.
Text 2
M: Do you want to eat out tonight We could see a movie after that.
W: Sounds good. But I’ve got a cold. (2) I’ll just stay at home.
Text 3
W: Hello. It’s Amy. Can you tell me when my goods will arrive
M: Well, (3) they are leaving on January 21, and the journey takes five days.
Text 4
W: I heard you got an A in the English examination. (4) Congratulations!
M: (4) Thanks! You also got a good score.
Text 5
M: (5) Mr. Green explained the math problem very clearly.
W: (5) Did he Unluckily, it was all Greek to me. (5) I couldn’t follow him at all.
Text 6
W: Did you hear that Mr. Williams is going to leave the company (6) He is going to take a trip around the world. He said it was always his dream to travel in other countries.
M: (7) Really But why He’s one of the most successful lawyers in the city. He has a bright future here.
W: Well, I guess he’s looking for a change. Anyway, we are holding a party to say goodbye and wish him good luck.
Text 7
M: Anna, do you have any plans for tomorrow
W: I have no good idea. Maybe I’ll just go swimming.
M: Why not go to the Musical Box Museum Last week my wife and I took our son there. It was really exciting. My son was amazed to see different kinds of music boxes. (8) You know he enjoys music very much.
W: Does the museum offer free guided tours
M: Yes. The guide introduced the museum’s history and collections. If you want to own a music box or get it as a gift, the museum has a shop.
W: Oh, that sounds exciting! (9) I can’t wait to visit it.
Text 8
W: Excuse me. Where is the closest bank
M: It’s not far from here. Look, do you see the green building over there
W: (10) The taller one or the smaller one
M: The taller one. The bank is next to it on the left.
W: Ok. Do you know if there is any supermarket around here
M: I don’t think so. The closest one is on the 6th Street, but it may not open now.
W: I really need to buy something from it.
M: (11) Then you can take No. 8 bus to the 20th Street. There are a few supermarkets opening 24 hours a day.
W: Thank you. (12) I’ll get some money first.
Text 9
M: Hello. Sunrise Hotel. May I help you
W: Yes. (13) This is room 603. I’m calling to ask whether you could check my coat at the lost and found. I can’t find it.
M: I’m sorry to hear that. Don’t worry. I can help with it. What’s it like
W: (14) It’s a brown coat. There is a black wallet with red flowers on it inside the left pocket.
M: When was the last time you saw it
W: Last night. I think I may have left it near the front desk.
M: Ok. I’ll check the lost and found. We’ll do our best to find it.
W: I appreciate that. Oh, could you send some fruit to our room
M: Sure. What kind of fruit do you want We can provide apples, pears, and grapes.
W: (15) Grapes. Thanks a lot!
M: My pleasure. Do you need any other service Cleaning or breakfast reservation
W: Neither. (16) But please send more blankets by the way.
M: Ok. They will be sent to your room soon.
Text 10
(17) In school, kids are told to drink water in class. Radios remind us to remember our bottles on public transport, and experts tell us that water will help us have good skin and keep fit. (20) But how much should we actually be drinking A famous health tip says you’d better drink eight glasses of water, about two liters a day. However, the results of a new study suggest that less is needed. An international group led by scientists at the Shenzhen Institute of Advanced Technology in China found that the average daily water requirement of a man in his twenties should be 1.5 to 1.8 liters, (18) while it should be 1.3 to 1.4 liters for a woman in the same age group. And the water requirements will drop as people age. Actually, most people perhaps don’t have to drink 8 glasses of water a day. Weight, age and activity level all affect how much water someone should drink. (19) According to data, athletes and people who live in hot and wet weather may need more water than others. (20) So, next time if you are thirsty, reach for a glass of water, but if you’re not, don’t worry about it! Your body knows what it’s doing.2023-2024学年高一元月期末考试
英语试卷
2024.1
本试卷共12页,共67题。本试卷满分150分,考试用时120分钟。
★祝考试顺利★
注意事项:
1.答题前,先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上,并将准考证号条形码
粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.选择题的作答:每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂
黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3.非选择题的作答:用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、
草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4.考试结束后,请将本试卷和答题卡一并上交。
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)】
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答
案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最
佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段
对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A.£19.15.
B.£9.18.
C.£9.15.
答案是C。
1.How did the man get to the supermarket
A.By bike.
B.By car.
C.By bus.
2.What would the woman like to do this weekend
A.Stay at home.
B.See a movie.
C.Eat outside.
3.When will the goods probably arrive
A.On January 25th.
B.On January 21st.
C.On January 17th.
英语试卷第1页(共12页)
4.What's the probable relationship between the speakers
A.Teacher and student.B.Mother and son.
C.Classmates.
5.What does the woman mean
A.She failed to understand the teacher.
B.She could explain everything clearly.
C.Mr.Green was unable to speak Greek.
第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个
选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各
个小题,每小题5秒钟:听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读
两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6.Why is Mr.Williams going to leave the company
A.To change his job.
B.To live in another country.
C.To travel around the world.
7.How does the man feel about Mr.Williams'leaving
A.Excited.
B.Surprised.
C.Disappointed.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8.Who is a music lover
A.The man.
B.The man's son.
C.The man's wife.
9.What is Anna going to do tomorrow
A.Go shopping.
B.Go swimming.
C.Go to the museum.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10.How many green buildings are there
A.One
B.Two.
C.Three.
11.Where can the woman find a supermarket open now
A.On the 6th Street.
B.On the 8th Street.
C.On the 20th Street.
英语试卷第2页(共12页)
同课章节目录