仙游一中、莆田四中、莆田六中、莆田十中
2023-2024学年高一上期末联考答案
听力 1—5 CBCCA 6—10 ACBBA 11—15 ABCAC 16—20 BBABA
阅读理解 21-23. ABC 24-27ACBC 28-31 CBDA 32-35CDAB 36-39DACD
七选五 40-44 DEACF
完形填空 45-49: CBADC 50-54 ABCDB 55-59 ACDBA
课文填空 60. awkward 61. Obviously 62. unique to 63. lose heart 64. dig out 65.deliver food 66. of great importance 67. bridge the gap 68. run over 69. give way to 70. as international as 71. in harmony with 72. are being destroyed
语法填空：73. a 74. as 75. and 76. worn 77. various 78. locals 79.warmly 80.which 81 .to treat 82. were sent
【应用文】
Nowadays, with the development of society, the number of wild animals is decreasing quickly and some of them are in danger of dying out. There are many reasons for this.
Firstly, some people are still hunting wild animals. Secondly, the habitats of wild animals are being destroyed by human beings. Lastly, the pollution of the environment also leads to the death of wild animals.
What should we do to protect the wild animals On the one hand, we must make laws to stop hunting wild animals and destroying their habitats. On the other, we must take measures to stop pollution. Only in this way can we protect the wild animals better.
Together, individuals can make a great difference! Therefore, let's take actions now and make joint efforts to protect wildlife! Changes begin with you !
课文填空评分标准
课文填空每空0.5分，共30空，总分15分。填写的词汇或短语必须与课文原文一致，填写近义词或意思相似短语不得分。
应用文评分参考
1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、
确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于80，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点，应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上
下文的连贯性。
5.拼写和标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如果书写较差，以致影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。
7.若用铅笔答题，不给分。
【分档划分标准】
第五档（很好）(13～15分)：完全完成了试题规定的任务。
(1)覆盖所有内容要点，表达清楚、合理；
(2)应用了较多复杂、高级的语法结构和词汇；
(3)语法结构或词汇方面使用准确，即使有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级
词汇所致；表现了较强的语言运用能力；
(4)自然流畅地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
整体而言，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（好）(10～12分)：完全完成了试题规定的任务。
(1)基本覆盖所有内容要点，表达比较清楚、合理；
(2)应用的复杂高级的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；
(3)语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致；
(4)应用了语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。整体而言，达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（适当）(7～9分)：基本完成了试题规定的任务。
(1)虽漏掉一些要点内容，但覆盖所有主要内容，尚能表达出作文要求；
(2)应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，句子结构有一定的变化；
(3)有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；
(4)能应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（较差）(4～6分)：未适当完成试题规定的任务。
(1)漏掉或未描述清楚一些内容要点，有些内容与主题无关；
(2)应用的语法结构单调，词汇项目有限；
(3)有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；
(4)较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（差）(1～3分)：未完成试题规定的任务。
(1)明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，偏离主题；
(2)语法结构非常单调，词汇项目非常有限；
(3)较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解，词不达意；
(4)缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分：
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判，所写内容与题目要求完全不相关0分。
Text 1
W: Who’s your best friend
M: I have two: Sam and Sara. (1) What about you
W: My best friend is Cathy. Diana comes in at a close second.
Text 2
W: You are late again. Your alarm clock didn’t go off
M: No. I got up early, but there was a traffic jam on the way. My car didn’t move for an hour. (2)
W: Sorry about that, but you missed an important meeting just now.
Text 3
W: I don’t know how to use this machine.
M: Just lift this and put what you want to copy in here. Make your choices, and then press the green button. (3)
Text 4
W: Can I come to see you at ten, Professor Brown
M: I’m sorry, Susan, but I’ll be meeting my students then. Can you come half an hour later (4)
Text 5
W: Hi, James! I haven’t seen you for ages! I went past your house last week. I was going to knock on your door and say hello!
M: Well, it’s good that you didn’t. My parents bought a new apartment in town, so we’re there now! (5)
Text 6
W: What did you do last weekend, Bob (6) Did you stay at home again
M: No, I visited a friend. (6) Then I went to a dance party.
W: Did you enjoy the dance
M: No, I didn’t. There were too many people there. What did you do, Ann
W: I watched TV on Saturday morning and went shopping in the afternoon. I played tennis on Sunday morning. (7)
M: Ah, did you win
W: Yes, I did.
M: Great. Can we play a game sometime this weekend
W: Sure.
Text 7
W: I’m going to Thailand at the end of the month. You spent a year there, right Do you have any ideas about where I should go I’ve looked up a few places on the Internet, but I’d love to hear from someone who’s already been there.
M: I taught English in Mae Sot for a year. (8) It was great. You should go visit the Elephant Nature Park in Chiang Mai and the beaches down south. Bangkok is very interesting if you like nightlife.
W: Is there hiking in Thailand I like to go hiking no matter where I go. (9)
M: Yes, of course. If you like swimming, the ocean is really warm.
W: Will I get used to the food
M: Thai food is wonderful! You’d love it.
Text 8 (第10题为推断题)
M: Good afternoon. I would like to speak with the manager, please.
W: Why What’s the problem
M: Well, I just picked up a TV at your store yesterday afternoon, and when I was taking it out of the car, it sort of accidentally fell. (11) It looks OK, but the picture is pretty unclear. Do you think I can have someone look at it or get it exchanged
W: OK. I will talk to the manager right now. Please wait a moment.
M: Thank you.
W: Well, we can have someone repair it for you. But as the damage was caused by you, I’m afraid you’ll have to pay half of the repair fee. We will pay the other half. (12)
M: That will be fine. Thank you.
Text 9
W: What a great movie! It was so funny. The hero even forgot the girl’s name. (13)
M: Hmm, what did you say
W: Tom, you must be still thinking about that job interview.
M: Yes, I really want that job, Mary.
W: I know you do. The pay sounds amazing. And the company is not far away from our home.
M: Most importantly, it offers further training. (14) I think the boss seemed to think I have the abilities they want, but there has been no answer yet.
W: Why don’t you call him and ask (15)
M: I’m sure they’ll let me know as soon as they’ve decided. I’ll just have to wait.
W: You’re right. Now, let’s think about what to order. What are the specialties here (16)
M: They used to serve a very delicious soup. But it isn’t on the menu anymore.
W: What a pity! Well, let’s try something else.
M: OK.
Text 10
Lake Bell is an American actress and director. She was born in 1979 in New York City and lived in Vero Beach, Florida as a teenager. (17) She starred in many plays in college, but began her acting career in 2002 in the movie Speakeasy and the TV drama ER. (18) She acted in many other films and television shows in the years that followed, and she became a regular character on the show Boston Legal until 2005. In 2008, she won the Newport Beach Film Festival Award for Outstanding Performance in Acting for her role in the movie Under Still Waters. (19) She voiced a character in Shrek Forever After in 2010. In that same year, she wrote and directed her first short film Worst Enemy. (20) It was shown at the 2011 Sundance Film Festival. Her first feature film In a World…, in which she also acted, was shown at the 2013 Sundance Film Festival. She is married to artist Scott Campbell. Together, they have a daughter named Nova.仙游一中、莆田四中、莆田六中、莆田十中 2023-2024 学年
高一上期末联考英语试卷
（考试时间 120 分钟，试卷总分 150 分）
注意事项
1．本科考试分试题卷和答题卷，考生须在答题卷指定位置上作答，答题前，请按要求填写学校、
班级、考号、姓名。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30分）
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳
选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话
仅读一遍。
第一节
1. Who is the man’s best friend
A. Cathy. B. Diana. C. Sara.
2. Why was the man late
A. His alarm clock didn’t work.
B. He was caught in traffic.
C. His car broke down on the way.
3. What is the man doing
A. Typing a letter. B. Repairing a machine. C. Teaching the woman something.
4. When does the man ask the woman to meet him
A. At 9:30. B. At 10:00. C. At 10:30.
5. What does the man mean
A. He has moved. B. He misses his parents. C. He will go downtown.
第二节
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选
项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个
小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
1
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
听第 6段材料，回答第 6、7题。
6. What did the man do last weekend
A. He visited a friend. B. He went shopping. C. He stayed at home.
7. When did the woman play tennis
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday morning.
听第 7段材料，回答第 8、9题。
8. Where did the man teach English
A. In Chiang Mai. B. In Mae Sot. C. In Bangkok.
9. What does the woman like
A. Eating Thai food. B. Going on hikes. C. Going swimming.
听第 8段材料，回答第 10至 12题。
10. Who is the woman
A. A saleswoman. B. A repairman. C. Amanager.
11. What happened to the man’s TV set
A. It was dropped on the ground. B. The screen was broken. C . It doesn’t work at all.
12. What will the shop do for the man
A. Return half of the money.
B. Pay half of the repair fee.
C. Exchange the TV for a new one.
听第 9段材料，回答第 13至 16题。
13. What is the woman talking about at first
A. The food. B. An interview. C. The movie.
14. What does the man like most about the job
A. The further training. B. The company’s location. C. The pay.
15. What is the woman’s advice to the man
A. Waiting for the results. B. Seeing the movie again. C. Calling the boss.
16. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At home. B. In a restaurant. C. In a movie theater.
听第 10段材料，回答第 17至 20题。
2
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
17. Where was Lake Bell born
A. In Vero Beach. B. In New York City. C. In Boston.
18. In which movie did Lake Bell act in 2002
A. Speakeasy. B. Under Still Waters. C. Shrek Forever After.
19. What did Lake Bell do in 2008
A. She got married. B. She won an award. C. She graduated from college.
20. In what year did Lake Bell direct her first movie
A. 2010. B. 2011. C. 2013.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 60分）
第一节（共 19小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 47.5分）
A
UNESCOWorld Heritage Sites were created to celebrate and safeguard the most unique
places around the world. Below are my 4 favorite UNESCOWorld Heritage Sites.
Cinque Terre, Italy
With cars banned here, you’ll really get to feel the unique history and character of the Cinque
Terre’s five centuries-old coastal villages. The breathtaking views of harbors（港口）far below the
wild coastline along with the rich colors will definitely make it a memorable holiday.
AngkorWat, Cambodia
Angkor Wat is the world’s largest religious（宗教的）monument and it contains impressive
remains from the Khmer Empire（9th to 15th century）. The site has dozens of iconic temples like
Ta Prohm（a magnificent temple ruin hidden in the jungle）. Hosting more than two million
visitors annually, this artistic masterpiece is a must-see site.
Petra, Jordan
Petra’s rock-cut architecture has contributed to its nickname, the Rose City, based on the
color of the stone it was carved from. The delicate constructions of temples and tombs along with
the remains of churches and temples are only a couple of reasons why this world-famous site is a
must-visit destination.
Yellowstone National Park, USA
Yellowstone’s vast wilderness includes mountain ranges, lakes and waterfalls. One of the
main reasons for tourists to visit Yellowstone is to observe the amazing wildlife like grizzly bear,
bison, bighorn sheep wander the plains and valleys.
For a daily moment of travel inspiration, click here to follow me.
21. Where can tourists enjoy beautiful harbor views
A. In Cinque Terre. B. In Angkor Wat.
C. In Petra. D. In Yellowstone National Park.
3
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
22. What do Angkor Wat and Petra have in common
A. Colorful stones. B. Religious relics. C. Coastal villages. D. Amazing wildlife.
23. Where is the text probably from
A. A news report. B. A wildlife brochure. C. A travel blog. D. A culture guidebook.
B
Aman came home from work late to find his 5-year-old son waiting for him at the door.
“Daddy, may I ask you a question ”
“Yeah sure, what is it ” replied the man.
“Daddy, how much do you make an hour ”
“If you must know, I make $20 an hour.”
Looking up, the little boy asked, “Daddy, may I please borrow $10 ”
The father was angry, “If the only reason why you asked that is that you can borrow some
money to buy a silly toy or some other nonsense, then you march yourself straight to your
room and go to bed. Think about why you are being so selfish. I work hard every day for such this
childish behavior ”
The little boy quietly went to his room and shut the door. The man sat down and started to get
even angrier about the little boy’s questions. “How dare he ask such questions only to get some
money ”
After about an hour or so, the man had calmed down and started to think: “Maybe there was
something he really needed to buy with that $10 because he really didn’t ask for money very
often.”
The man went to the door of the little boy’s room and opened the door. “Are you asleep,
son ” He asked. “No daddy, I’m awake,” replied the boy.
“I’ve been thinking, maybe I was too strict with you earlier,” said the man. “It’s been a long
day and I took out my bad feelings on you. Here’s the $10 you asked for.” The little boy sat
straight up, smiling, “Oh, thank you, daddy!” Then, reaching under his pillow he pulled out some
crumpled (褶皱的) bills.
The man, seeing that the boy already had money, started to get angry again. The little boy
slowly counted out his money, then looked up at his father. “Why do you want more money if you
already have some ” the father complained. “Because I didn’t have enough, but now I do,” the
little boy replied. “Daddy, I have $20 now. Can I buy an hour of your time Please come home
early tomorrow. I would like to have dinner with you.”
24．Why was the father angry at first
A. Because he misunderstood his son. B．Because he worked too late that day.
C．Because his son wanted to buy a silly toy. D．Because his son asked for too much money.
25．Why did the father go to his son’s room
A．To offer his son more money. B．To check if his son was asleep.
4
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
C．To make an apology for his strictness. D．To take out his bad feelings on his son.
26．What made the father angry again in the last paragraph
A．That his son owed（欠） him money. B．That his son had owned money.
C．That his son had told a lie to him. D．That his son refused to talk to him.
27．How would the father feel after knowing the truth
A．Inspired. B．Annoyed. C．Regretful. D．Doubtful
C
What killed King Tut Historians and scientists have long believed that ancient Egypt’s most
famous king was probably murdered. But a recent scientific study claims to have found a different
answer to this more than 3,300-year-old mystery. A team of researchers now say that King Tut, the
boy ruler, died of complications(并发症) from a broken leg.
Tut’s full name was Tutankhamun. He was just 9 years old when he became the ruler of
Egypt. His treasure-filled tomb was discovered almost a century ago. It was filled with royal
riches, including a solid-gold coffin, a gold mask, and piles of jewelry.
Unfortunately Tut died at the age of 19. Many experts have thought that Tut was killed by one
of his advisers, named Ay, who wanted to be king. But thanks to a major modern science project,it
seems Ay is innocent.
Researchers set out to solve the mystery of King Tut’s death by using the tools of science,
including DNA tests and electronic scans of his mummy(木乃伊). Scientist Carsten Pusch
conducted the tests on Tut for the new study. He thinks a broken leg contributed to the young
king’s death.
More than 100 walking sticks were found in King Tut’s tomb. This supports the team’s
findings.But how could a person die from a simple broken leg
Pusch also found DNA evidence in Tut’s body that indicates he had malaria(疟疾),a disease
carried by mosquitoes. Malaria severely weakens the immune system.
Pusch and his fellow researchers believe the malaria and the bone disease together caused the
king’s fracture(骨折) to become deadly. Finally, the young king was just too weak to recover. So
effects of the disease combined with the bad luck of a broken bone—not a jealous adviser—are
likely the real causes of King Tut’s death.
28.It has long been believed by historians and scientists that___________. .
A.King Tut was the youngest ruler in the world history
B.King Tut was the richest ruler in the history of Egypt
C.King Tut was murdered by one of his advisers
D.King Tut was poisoned by one of his servants
29.From the passage we can learn that .
A.the king had been dead for 3,300 years
5
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
B.the king was buried grandly
C.the king was born with a bad immune system
D.the king’s body was well kept in the tomb
30. Researchers uncovered the mystery of King Tut’s death by________________.
A.testing the king’s immune system
B.studying the walking sticks found in the tomb
C.performing experiments on mosquitoes
D.applying DNA tests and electronic scan technology
31.The passage mainly tells us about __________. .
A.a different answer to King Tut’s death
B.a famous boy king in ancient Egypt
C.a treasure-filled tomb discovered in Egypt
D.a team of researchers studying ancient tombs
D
Though fireworks (烟花) on bonfire night bring joy to many people, it is likely to be a night
of fright and pain for the UK’s geese (鹅).
Research by Anglia Ruskin University has found that fireworks displays (表演) cause wild
birds to suffer significant pain, and researchers have recommended that displays should not take
place in areas with large wildlife populations. A study, published in the journal Conservation
Physiology, is one of the first carried out into the effects of fireworks on wildlife. It found that the
heart rate (率) of geese increases by 96% when they are influenced by fireworks displays.
The study involved 20 wild grey lag geese fitted with recorders to record their heart rate and
body temperature, which are measures of physiological stress. Claudia Wascher, who led the
research, found that the average heart rate increased from 63 to 124 beats per minute, and their
average body temperature increased from 38℃ to 39℃, in the first hour of fireworks displays. It
took the geese about five hours before the birds displayed normal body temperatures, with
average readings returning by 5 am.
“Ours is one of the first scientific studies to examine whether fireworks disturb wildlife.
There have been previous studies showing that fireworks can cause anxiety in pets, for example in
dogs, but little research has been done into how animals in the wild react. We need to carry out
further research to conclusively tell whether the geese are reacting to the noise or the light
pollution from the fireworks, or a combination of both. Many people get a lot of enjoyment from
fireworks but it’s important that we consider animals both pets and wildlife — whenever planning
a display,” Wascher said.
32. What advice do researchers give according to the findings of the study
6
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
A. Geese should be protected especially at night.
B. Great attention should be paid to the UK’s geese.
C. Fireworks displays should be held without harming wildlife.
D. Fireworks displays should take place to bring joy to people.
33. Why were 20 wild grey lag geese fitted with recorders
A. To compare the heart rates between them.
B. To make them safe and sound in the wild.
C. To keep their body temperature normal.
D. To measure their physiological stress.
34. How long do the geese need to get over the effect of fireworks displays on body temperature
A. About five hours. B. About four hours. C. About two hours. D. About one hour.
35. What may Wascher’s further research about
A. The relations between light pollution from fireworks and geese.
B. The effects of noise and light pollution from fireworks on geese.
C. Whether fireworks influence other wild animals.
D. The influence of a display on pets and wildlife.
E
Parents can cut the chances of their children getting fat simply by keeping them longer at
table. Just three extra minutes at a family mealtime could help avoid child fatness. Research found
that the reasons might lie in communication and the importance of a scheduled mealtime.
Dr.Barbara Fiese said, “ Children, whose families have a 20-minute meal over four times a
week, weigh less than kids who leave the table after 15 to 17 minutes. Over time, those extra
minutes per meal add up and become really powerful.”
Researchers studied 200 family mealtimes, testing the influences of mealtime behavior of
families with children in primary school. They found that families, who said that shared
mealtimes were an important part of family life and had special meaning for them, were less
likely to have fat children. Similarly, families, who talked more together and communicated more
positively during the meal, were more likely to have healthy-weight children.
Teaching families how to make the most of family mealtimes was a wise idea. Dr. Fiese said,
“ This is something we can target and teach.” She added. “It’s also important to recognize the
increasing differences of families and their sometimes complex living schedules that may
challenge their abilities to plan ahead and set some time to communicate with each other.”
Families in poorer US neighborhoods faced a lot of problems, including poor chances of
getting healthy food. But even so, regular high quality family mealtimes made a difference to the
7
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
children’s weight. Dr. Fiese said, “Three to four extra minutes per meal will make a healthy
weight more possible.
36. How long is reasonable for a family mealtime according to the text
A. About 10 minutes. B. About 15 minutes. C. About 17 minutes. D. About 20 minutes.
37. What does the author want to tell us in Paragraph 3
A. The result of a study. B. Different eating habits.
C. Causes of child fatness. D. The importance of normal eating.
38. What is the advantage of a longer family mealtime
A. Children can enjoy their meals better.
B. Children can have a good rest while eating.
C. Children can communicate more during the time.
D. Children can have more time to choose what they like.
39. What can be the best title of the text
A. Mealtime Talk Helps Lose Weight.
B. Poorer Families Have Thinner Kids.
C. Healthy Food Makes Normal Weight.
D. Longer Family Mealtime Helps Prevent Child Fatness.
第二节 七选五 （共 5小题，每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5 分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多
余选项。
Five steps to better handwriting
Some kids love handwriting, but others hate when it’s time to put their pen to paper. Maybe
they are worried about their handwriting. Are you one of them
40 . Here are five steps that really work!
Get a correct grasp
Try this — hold your pencil at the top and try to write your name. Pretty hard But when you
hold your pencil the correct way, writing is much easier. 41 .Hold it in place with your
thumb（拇指）, and your index (食指) and middle fingers.
Let the lines be your guide
Lined paper is your friend! Those lines can help you create letters that are the right size and
proportion (均衡). 42 . Also be sure to fill up the lined space completely. Those capital
letters should be from the bottom line to the top one.
8
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
Slow down
If your writing is hard to read, try slowing down a little. If you rush, it’s hard to control where
you stop and start your letters.
Lower the pressure
43 .That makes it harder to make the smooth lines. Try easing up and don’t hold the
pencil too tightly.
44
Lots of games require you to write or draw pictures. So even though it’s not schoolwork,
you’re still using the skills you need to control your pen better.
A. So “a” should be half the height of a capital “A”.
B. You’ve been writing since you were a little kid.
C. Some kids press down really hard when they write.
D. The good news is that just about everyone can improve their handwriting.
E. The best way to hold a pen or pencil is to let it rest next to the base of your thumb.
F. Play games
G. Ask for more advice
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 45分）
第一节 完形填空（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Natalie Barnes is a bus driver in Wisconsin, US. She offered comfort and support to a
homeless passenger many times, which warmed the hearts of many people across the state.
She was 45 on a cold Saturday night when a man named Richard 46 the bus.
Richard, who Barnes had met on her bus before, rode the bus 47 they got to the end of her
route. Barnes then used her____48___ to start a conversation with Richard. As they ____49___,
Richard told her that the house he had been living in was ___50___ in a fire. For a week, he had
been 51 and sleeping on the street. Heartbroken by his 52 , Barnes said he could ride her
bus so he wouldn't have to be out in the cold. And she often __53__ to get him something to eat.
"Now I don’t know what to say but to 54 you,” Richard told the kind driver. He insisted that
he would 55 her back, but she refused. At her next break, Barnes 56 a friend working at a
community organization to help Richard get into temporary shelter and they are now working to
9
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
find him permanent(长期的) housing.
The bus company finally 57 related videos on their website, praising Barnes for her 58 .
According to the company, this is Barnes’s third time being 59 for good deeds on the job.
45. A. repairing B. recovering C. driving D.measuring
46. A. started B. boarded C. admired D. missed
47. A. until B. before C. once D. unless
48. A. humor B. emotion C. wisdom D. break
49. A. argued B. quarreled C. chatted D. observed
50. A. destroyed B. decorated C. updated D. reserved
51. A. hungry B. homeless C. lonely D. embarrassed
52. A. status B. position C. situation D. reaction
53. A. promised B. refused C. agreed D. offered
54. A. hurt B. thank C. trouble D. blame
55. A. pay B. hold C. take D. allow
56. A. reminded B. forgave C. contacted D. noticed
57. A. allowed B. applied C. benefited D. posted
58. A. memory B. kindness C. punishment D. case
59. A. honored B. removed C. stuck D. inspired
第二节 句子填空 （共 30空，每个空格 0.5分，满分 15分）
根据所给汉语及提示，在句子中填入适当形式的单词或短语。
60. But I was wrong. I didn’t feel __________(尴尬的) or frightened at all.
61. ____________(显而易见地), I was unhappy, but I won’t quit.
62. You can then spend three days exploring the rainforest with a local guide and enjoying the
plants and animals ________ ________ (是...特有的) the rainforest.
63. Losing two important players was a big challenge, but Lang Ping did not ______ _______(失
去信心).
64. Soon after the quakes, the army sent 150,000 soldiers to Tangshan to _____ _______（挖掘）
those who were trapped and to bury the dead.
10
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
65. However, dangerous conditions and damaged roads will make it difficult to _____
_______(运送食物) and supplies.
66. That writing system was ________ _________ ________ （非常重要的） in uniting the
Chinese people and culture.
67. If I'm talking to a close friend, I can use short requests, like “Open the window ”—our
relationship is close and we’re equals, so I only need a few words to ________ _________
________ （消除隔阂） between us.
68. Not only had the countries found a path to the future that did not ________ ______ （牺牲、
碾压） the relics of the past, but they had also learnt that working together can build a better
tomorrow.
69. There comes a time when the old must ______ _______ _____ （让步）the new, and it is not
possible to preserve everything from our past as we move towards the future.
70. Today, the caves are just _______ __________ _____ (和...一样国际化) they were at the
time when people travelled the Silk Road.
71. Only when we learn to exist ______ _______ _______ （和谐）nature can we stop being
a threat to wildlife and to our planet.
72. In this way a lot of animal homes _______ _______ _________ （正在被破坏）.
第三节 语法填空（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Recently, a group of children from Nanning, Guangxi, wearing orange down jackets
and blue pants, took ____73____ unique study tour in Harbin. They are fondly referred to
___74___ the "little tangerines(柑橘)", with the oldest just 6 and a half years old, with the
youngest only 3 years and 5 months old. The nickname symbolizes both their cute orange
outfits ___75____ Guangxi's well-known production. The use of orange coats
____76__(wear) by the children was chosen by a vote among the parents, primarily for
safety reasons.
11
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
Each day, their attractive presence is trending on ____77____ (variety) social media
platforms. Wherever they go, they are hugged and showered with love by the
___78___(local). In Harbin, they enjoyed the local delicacies, and watched a firework
display amid the snowy landscape. On their arrival in Mohe, the tour group was____79____
(warm) welcomed by a local travel agency as well as the city's tourism bureau(局 ). At the
northern most police outpost of China, they sang the national anthem and showed respect
for the border guards, ___80___ marked an important part of their educational
trip. Moreover, the police officers at the station prepared snow sculptures and snowmen
___81___(treat) the "little tangerines".
To express gratitude for the hospitality( 好 客 ) received in Heilongjiang, a lot of
tangerines from Lipu of Guangxi ___82___(send) to the province last Thursday.
第四部分 写作（满分 15分）
假如你是李华，结合以下主要内容，给 21st Century 报社写一份倡议书，倡议大家
关注野生动物的保护。主要内容包括：
1. 野生动物减少的原因;
2. 需要采取的措施（至少 2 条）。
注意：词数 80左右；
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
12
{#{QQABTQwAogCAQAJAAQgCQwGKCACQkAEAAAoGhAAMoAAAyRFABAA=}#}
