2023一2024学年第一学期期末教学质量检测
七年级英语试题
(满分150分时间120分钟)
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试题卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号
条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.请将选择题答案用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡指定题号里：将非选择题的答案用0.5毫
米黑色墨水签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内，答在试题卷上无效。
3.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。
一、听力测试（共25小题；1一20小题，每小题1分；21一25小题，每小题2分；总计30分；
每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间)
(一)听句子，选择与其相对应的图片。每个句子读一遍(5分)
1
B
B
B
七年级英语试题第1页共8页
(二)听五段短对话，选择正确答案。(5分)
6.When is the book sale
A.On Thursday morning.
B.On Thursday afternoon.
C.On Thursday evening.
7.What can Diana speak
A.English.
B.Thai.
C.Chinese.
8.What does Andy think of his music teacher
A.Nice.
B.Kind.
C.Funny.
9.Who can help Jim with his math now
A.His teacher.
B.His father.
C.His mother.
10.What does the boy's brother need for sports
A.A white T-shirt.
B.A red T-shirt.
C.A blue T-shirt.
(三)听独白，选择正确答案。独白读两遍。(5分)
11.What Middle.School is Bob in
A.No.5.
B.No.6.
C.No.7.
12.What is Bob's favorite day
A.Monday.
B.Wednesday.
C.Friday.
13.What doesn't Bob do in P.E.classes
A.Run.
B.Play football.
C.Play baseball.
14.Who is Bob's favorite teacher
A.Mr.Brown.
B.Mr.Smith.
C.Mrs.Brown.
15.Where does Bob often go after school
A.The library.
B.The park.
C.The art club.
(四)听力填表。（共5小题；录音播放前，你有20秒钟的读题时间）(5分)
录音中有一篇短文，听短文两遍后，请根据表格内容提示，记录相关信息，完成表格（每
空一词)
Lucy's Friend,Peter
His appearance(外貌)
Short with (16)
blue eyes.
Clothes
Usually in blue trousers and a white (17)
His parents
Be of great (18)
Time
Usually has dinner with his parents at (19)
p.m..
His favourite food
(20)
(五)听力答句。（共5小题；录音播放前，你有20秒钟的读题时间）(10分)
录音为作为交换生的Mary来到德州后与你进行的对话。录音中有5个问题，每个问
题听两遍，然后根据自身情况用英语作答（答案不唯一，但须符合常识），每小题有15秒钟
的答题时间。
21.
七年级英语试题第2页共8页七年级上学期期末考试答案
听力测试(1-20小题每小题1分，21-25小题每小题2分；共30分）
1-5 BBCBA 6-10 BCABC 11-15 BCCAA
16. small 17.T-shirt 18. fun 19. 7/7:00/seven 20. Hamburgers
21. 根据考试当天星期几来作答。（Today is Wednesday.)
22.It is very cold in Dezhou in winter.答案不唯一。
23.There are three/four/five/six buildings in/at our school. 答案不唯一。
My favorite animal is tiger/lion/dog/cat/fish. 答案不唯一。
I search for information/do my homework/check my emails/play games on the computer.答案不唯一。
二、阅读理解（每小题2.5分，共50分）
26-30 BCABC 31-35 BCBAB
36-40 BBCBD 41-45 AACDD
三、配对阅读（每小题2分，共10分）
46-50 BECDA
四、综合填空（每小题1.5分，共30分）
A篇
51.ride 52.by 53.students 54.But 55.difficult
56.quickly 57.afraid 58.to play/playing 59.like 60.leave
B篇
hear 62.tell 63.is talking 64.is 65.looks
66.is calling 67.to climb 68.can get/gets 69.thanks 70.to have
五、阅读表达（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
71. She is quite beautiful with big eyes and brown hair.
72. He/She/The writer is/comes from Los Angeles.
73.Susan's grandma is cooking dumplings, Susan's grandpa is making red lanterns.
74.She wishes to sweep away all the bad luck.
75.答案不唯一，言之有理即可。
六、书面表达(20分)
（一）One possible version:
Dear Sir，
I'd like to recommend my classmate Sam to be a Shining Star in our school. His first name is Sam, His last name is Smith. He is very tall and thin. He has a round face and long hair. He wears glasses. He loves sports,reading and traveling. He is good at playing basketball. He is very friendly and kind. We all like him. He often does some housework, such as cleaning the house, sweeping the floor and cooking the meal. He also tells his grandparents some interesting stories. We all like to recommend him. Thank you.
Yours，
Wang Hu
(二) 评分说明
要求考生用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语，完整准确地表达所提示的内容，并对开放性内容进行适当发挥，书写工整，分五档评分：
1.（18~20分）很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有的内容要点，结构完整，语句通畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少，书写规范。
2.（14~17分）较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有的内容要点，结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，书写较为规范。
3.（10~13分）基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，书写基本规范。
4.（6~9分）未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，影响理解，书写欠规范。
5.（0~5分）未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或者意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。
