云南省保山市2023-2024学年高一上学期1月期末质量监测英语试题（含解析，无听力音频有听力原文）
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| 名称 | 云南省保山市2023-2024学年高一上学期1月期末质量监测英语试题（含解析，无听力音频有听力原文） |  | |
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| 版本资源 | 人教版（2019） | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2024-02-02 02:49:01 | ||
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保山市2023-2024学年高一上学期1月期末质量监测
英语
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考场号、座位号、准考证号在答题卡上填写清楚。
2. 每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。
3. 考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When do the speakers plan to go to the museum
A. On Sunday. B. On Saturday. C. On Monday.
2. Which language is the woman’s first language
A. German. B. English. C. Spanish.
3. Which hat will the woman buy
A. The yellow one. B. The white one. C. The blue one.
4. Who is most probably the man
A. The woman’s husband. B. The woman’s student. C. The woman’s co-worker.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a taxi. B. At the bus stop. C. At the train station.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Family members. B. Schoolmates. C. Waiter and customer.
7. What kind of taste does the woman like
A. Sweet. B. Spicy. C. Sour.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Why does Nicole want to save money
A. To plan a trip. B. To buy a concert ticket. C. To join in a summer camp.
9. Who wants to be a dancer
A. Nicole. B. John. C. David.
10. What are the speakers talking about
A. Summer plans. B. Weekend activities. C. Career planning.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。
11. What will the woman do tomorrow morning
A. Go to the airport. B. Travel to Cambodia. C. Have a business trip.
12. When will the woman return to the company at the earliest
A. At 12:20 p.m. B. At 1:20 p.m. C. At 2:00 p.m.
13. What does the man remind the woman to do
A. Hand in a formal request.
B. Drive back as soon as possible.
C. Attend the department meeting.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。
14. Which club does the woman want to join
A. Yoga club. B. Basketball club. C. Dance club.
15. Why does the woman want to join the club
A. To make new friends. B. To enrich school life. C. To learn something new.
16. How often will the man have football training
A. Once a month. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. What was the speaker’s feeling when he got home
A. Relaxation. B. Anxiety. C. Excitement.
18. How did the speaker go to Peru
A. By ship. B. By train. C. By air.
19. What happened in Peru
A. There was a plane crash.
B. A tower fell in the earthquake.
C. Many people got injured in the storm.
20. When did the speaker get back to the shore
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
How to Visit the Louvre in 2024
People line up at more than one entrance to get into the largest museum on the planet, the Louvre. In this guide, we’ll walk you right through something you need to know to visit the Louvre. This way, you’ll be prepared to visit one of the greatest collections of art in the world.
Opening Hours
Monday: 9 a.m. — 6 p.m.
Tuesday: Closed
Wednesday: 9 a.m. — 6 p.m.
Thursday: 9 a.m. — 6 p.m.
Friday: 9 a.m. — 9:45 p.m.
Saturday: 9 a.m. —6 p.m.
Sunday: 9 a.m. —6 p.m.
Lucky for you, the museum also has a night opening on Fridays where the museum stays open until 9:45 p.m.
Tickets
Tickets can be bought at the museum for ?15 or online for ?17. Admission is free for anyone under 18 with an official ID card and residents of the European Economic Area under 26 with an official certificate of residence or valid ID card.
How Long to Spend at the Louvre
Short Answer: 3 hours inside. The museum is massive—the largest on Earth, so that should be something to take into consideration. It also has a rich collection of artwork, sculpture, and even medieval ruins.
Click on the link for more information. hutps://thetourguy.com/.
21. When is the Louvre not open
A. Monday. B. Tuesday. C. Wednesday. D. Sunday.
22. How much should a Chinese couple pay to visit the Louvre by booking tickets online
A. ?15. B. ?17. C. ?30. D. ?34.
23. Where is the text taken from
A. A website. B. A novel. C. A magazine. D. A newspaper.
B
Caring 17-year-old, Lauren Schroeder, was inspired to help bring healthy food to needy families in her community. Volunteering during the pandemic at a food shelter when she was just 14, she felt that something was missing from the donated groceries: fresh vegetables. “I thought it would be great to change that,” Lauren told the Washington Post, making a plan to grow and donate homegrown produce.
This kindhearted teen then told her parents of her wish to start a garden on part of their family farm in Dixon, Iowa, in order to supply local families in need with fresh produce including lettuce, carrots, tomatoes and zucchini. Lauren researched plants online, checking which species needed more shade, how much water was required, and about the best time to harvest each crop.
This year, Lauren doubled the size of her garden to an acre, adding ten more plant varieties including herbs and cauliflower.
In the past two years, this admirable high school junior has donated more than 3,175 kilograms of homegrown produce, with a value of $15,000 as reported on Insider Edition.
She has also won the admiration of her community. Jenna Kingsley, a Future Farmers of America advisor at Lauren’s high school tells MSN that, “Her self-confidence and generous hand to help those in need has left an impact larger than she could have imagined.”
24. Why did Lauren start a garden on her family farm
A. To develop her personal hobby.
B. To increase her family income.
C. To run a food store in her community.
D. To provide fresh produce for needy families.
25. What plant varieties did Lauren add to her garden this year
A. Herbs and zucchini. B. Herbs and cauliflower.
C. Tomatoes and zucchini. D. Lettuce and cauliflower.
26. Which of the following can best describe Lauren
A. Brave and self-confident. B. Curious and hard-working.
C. Generous and kind-hearted. D. Outgoing and open-minded.
27. Which of the following would be the best title for this article
A. A Teen Offers Tips to Grow a Family Garden
B. A Teen Brings Fresh Vegetables to the Needy
C. A Teen Sells Healthy Produce to the Community
D. A Teen Learns to Plant Vegetables on Family Farm
C
Scientists are worried about the future of the axolotl, an unusual Mexican salamander (蝾螈), and they’re asking for help. A new program lets people “adopt” an axolotl to raise money to support efforts to save the endangered animal.
The axolotl is a strange, but amazing animal, with a long body, short legs, and a long tail. Its body is covered with smooth, slimy skin. Axolotls are famous for their ability to cure themselves. If an axolotl loses a leg, or even part of its heart, brain, or lungs, it can regrow them. Scientists have long been interested in how the axolotl does this. Some people think the information could help solve some human medical problems.
Sadly, axolotls are in trouble. The number of axolotls in Mexico has dropped 99.5% in less than 20 years. There are a number of reasons for the drop in axolotls. One is that the water in the lakes has become more and more polluted. Another is that there are invasive (入侵的) fish in the lakes which are eating the axolotls’ food, and even their babies.
Scientists at Mexico’s National Autonomous University (UNAM) have been working for years to try to protect the axolotls. Last year, the UNAM scientists started a program they called “AdoptAxolotl”. They asked people to donate money to help pay for efforts to save the axolotls. The program was a big hit, and raised more than $26,000. The money was used to help clean up some of Mexican lakes and for a program to raise axolotls in a safe environment. Besides, people were encouraged to pay $30 to virtually (虚拟的) “adopt” one of the animals for a month or pay for food for an axolotl.
28. What do we know about the axolotls from paragraph 2
A. They can live without hearts or lungs.
B. They have short bodies and long legs.
C. They can solve some human problems.
D. They have the ability to cure themselves.
29. What has caused the drop of the axolotls’ population
A. Water pollution. B. Habitat loss. C. Invasive disease. D. Serious overfishing.
30. What do the underlined words “a big hit” most probably mean
A. A great success. B. A big mistake. C. A complete failure. D. A total imagination.
31. Why did the UNAM scientists start the “AdoptAxolotl” program
A. To let people clean up Mexican lakes.
B. To get money for scientists’ own projects.
C. To raise money to help axolotls live better.
D. To encourage people to take axolotls home.
D
A United Nations report warns that technology in classrooms may not help as much as many believe. The report suggests that technology should be used less in schools, and that smartphones should be banned (禁止) from classrooms.
The goal of the report was to improve how technology is used in education. The report says that technology can be helpful, but it shouldn’t be the focus. Instead, technology should be used to support learning.
UNESCO says that technology changes so fast that it’s hard to study how it really affects students. Many of the studies showing that technology helps students come from rich countries.
The report also points out that some of the studies in favor of technology come from companies that sell technology to schools. UNESCO agrees that technology can help in many ways. It can allow students to learn in ways that are more interesting; it can help teachers explain difficult ideas; it can also help students who have special needs.
But UNESCO says technology can also be very distracting (使人分心的). When students use phones in class, it can disturb their learning. One study that was carried out in 14 countries showed that even just having a smartphone nearby can be distracting. Even so, UNESCO says that less than 25% of the world’s countries ban phones in schools.
“We need to teach children to live both with and without technology,” said John Smith, the director behind the UNESCO report. The report suggests that the best way to learn is still to work closely with teachers. Working with other classmates also helps students learn. UNESCO says that most schools should spend more money on things like books, classrooms, and teachers.
32. What’s the passage mainly about
A. Technology should be used less in schools.
B. UNESCO calls for a stop of using technology.
C. Schools should spend more money on education.
D. Smartphones can be very distracting for students
33. What does UNESCO say about the technology in paragraph 3
A. Schools support companies selling technology.
B. The technology is only good for rich countries.
C. The technology changes too fast to keep track of.
D. Teachers can not explain difficult ideas without technology.
34. What can we learn from the fourth paragraph
A. Smartphones are important for school lessons.
B. Most countries do not allow smartphones in class.
C. Keeping a smartphone close is not a distraction at all.
D. Smartphones might make it hard for students to focus.
35. What’s John Smith’s attitude to the technology in schools
A. Positive. B. Objective. C. Uninterested. D. Negative.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Explore the Benefits of Walking
Taking one step at a time may seem simple, but often the most worthwhile things in life are the easiest to do. 36 , walking will be your best choice. You’ll be surprised at the great benefits it can have on your physical, mental, and emotional health.
Walking increases creativity
A Stanford University study found that 81 percent of participants increased their creativity just by walking. Going for a walk allows your ideas to wander. This can lead to breakthroughs and “ah-ha” moments. 37 . Charles Dickens used to walk 30 miles a day to brainstorm for his novels, and Charles Darwin, Steve Jobs and Winston Churchill all enjoyed walking.
38
Walking gets your heart pumping, a great way to improve cardiovascular health. While walking, blood circulation increases, which carries more nutrients and oxygen throughout the body. 39
Walking gives you a chance to spend time in nature
40 . You’ll take in vitamin D, which helps strengthen bones and may prevent disease. Plus, spending time outdoors may improve sleep and help reduce stress. So, look for parks nearby to stretch your legs, find hiking paths in the woods, or take a nice walk by the sea.
A. Walking helps lose weight
B. Walking may improve heart health
C. If you want to enrich your knowledge
D. In fact, some of the greatest thinkers walked regularly
E. If you’re looking for a way to relax and refresh yourself
F. It also reduces both your blood pressure and blood sugar levels
G. Going for a walk outside, you get to enjoy the benefits of spending time in nature
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Once a famous painter lived in a certain city. Thousands of people used to come to see his art exhibition. People would never get tired of 41 his works.
One day, he thought, “Do people praise me only in front of me and talk about 42 in my works behind my back ” The next day, he 43 early and took one of his paintings to a busy square of his city. There he kept his painting with a(an) 44 written below — “Whoever finds any mistake in this painting should 45 a mark on that place.”
In the evening, when he went to the square to see the painting, he became 46 as there were hundreds of marks on his painting. Seeing this, he got very disappointed and 47 picked up his painting and went home. This incident left a negative (消极的) influence on him and he 48 painting and started shying away from meeting people.
His friend realized that the painter was troubled by something and 49 him the reason. The painter told him everything with a sad heart. 50 it, his friend asked him to do one thing.
The next morning he put a new painting at the square. With a note written below it — “Whoever finds any mistake in the painting, 51 it.” In the evening when the painter and his friend went to check the painting, it was still the same as it was in the morning. The painter was 52 to see this. His friend noticed his amazement and said, “Do you understand something There is no 53 in taking the opinions of people who only want to find fault with others. 54 , understand that fault was not in your picture but in asking for 55 from such people!”
41. A. buying B. praising C. commenting D. revising
42. A. mistakes B. secrets C. images D. styles
43. A. made up B. woke up C. cheered up D. cleaned up
44. A. invitation B. letter C. document D. note
45. A. apply B. bury C. put D. imagine
46. A. sad B. curious C. amazed D. confused
47. A. calmly B. wisely C. silently D. happily
48. A. tried B. appreciated C. enjoyed D. stopped
49. A. gave B. asked C. told D. shared
50. A. Seeing B. Recording C. Hearing D. Reading
51. A. admire B. contact C. destroy D. correct
52. A. surprised B. anxious C. frightened D. confident
53. A. hope B. point C. doubt D. shame
54. A. Therefore B. However C. Otherwise D. Anyway
55. A. support B. information C. advice D. help
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chinese calligraphy is an ancient art of writing Chinese 56 (character), often with a brush and ink on xuan paper. Chinese calligraphy’s development started with the 57 (old) known Chinese writing found on bones of animals from the Shang Dynasty. Over time, calligraphy gradually took shape as a form of art rather than 58 means of record.
Chinese calligraphy is also a demanding and 59 (advance) art. The kind of brush, the thickness of ink, 60 the kind of paper all affect how the writing looks. The way the brush is held and how fast the writer writes 61 (be) all important too. How each letter is formed and how they 62 (arrange) together also matter for good calligraphy.
People also believe that the calligraphy expresses the writer’s feelings and thoughts, and that is the reason 63 Chinese calligraphy can touch so many people.
Where there is calligraphy, there is beauty. The art is still 64 (high) valued today, for it is more than just writing, it is a 65 (culture) and living heritage.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
寒假即将来临，请你以“How to Be a Civilized Tourist”为题写一篇短文，建议如何做一名文明游客。
注意：1. 词数80词左右；
2. 可适当发挥，以使行文连贯。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
David was an 8-year-old boy living in Memphis with his family. When 4 years old, David got his face burnt by hot water, leaving scars (伤疤) on his cheeks. David was home-schooled by his mother, but as he grew older, his parents decided to send him to a private school. David was afraid of being made fun of, but his parents encouraged him to face everything bravely.
When he began school, other kids didn’t want to be his friends because of his scars. Luckily, a girl named Angel offered to sit with him and helped him go through that difficult time. They became good friends, chatting happily and sharing what they were interested in.
As time went by, David’s excellent learning ability and kind behavior made him popular with the students. Since David was good at science, his classmates would turn to him for help whenever they had problems with their studies. David was always glad to help them.
On Halloween, a variety of holiday activities were held on campus. Everyone wore costumes (化装服) they liked. David wore a mask (面具), and no one could tell it was him. Unrecognized, David was walking through the classroom backdoor when he overheard his classmate Tom’s comment, “David’s face is the ugliest one I have ever seen.” Hearing this, David felt upset and depressed. He ran away secretly. Angel happened to stand behind David and saw what happened, but it was too late to stop it. As David’s best friend at school, Angel thought David was a good boy who should be treated kindly.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
After thinking for a while, Angel walked up to Tom. _________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Tom decided to say sorry to David. ______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
保山市2023-2024学年高一上学期1月期末质量监测
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1～5 ACBCB 6～10 BABCA 11～15 AACBC 16～20 BACBC
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21～23 BDA 24～27 DBCB 28～31 DAAC 32～35 ACDB
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36～40 EDBFG
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41～45 BABDC 46～50 ACDBC 51～55 DABAC
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. characters 57. oldest 58. a 59. advanced 60. and
61. are 62. are arranged 63. why 64. highly 65. cultural
语法填空评分标准
1. 每小题答对评1.5分，答错评0分，不评0.5分或1分。
2. 如果单词书写不规范导致无法辨认，按答错来认定，评0分。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【参考范文】
How to Be a Civilized Tourist
With the winter holiday coming, thousands of people pour into the tourist sites. But some tourists have some bad behaviors and habits while visiting some places of interest. So it’s important to know how to be a civilized tourist.
First, we should protect the natural environment. Don’t throw rubbish away or draw any where. Besides, when we cross roads, we must obey the traffic rules. Also in public places, we are supposed to wait in line and mustn’t talk loudly. Finally, wherever we go, we should respect local customs and traditions. Just keep it in mind that whenever we travel at home or abroad, we are representing the country to the rest of the world.
To be a civilized tourist will help build a better society. Let’s become civilized tourists!
写作第一节评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确
定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13～15分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9分）
——覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1～3分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。照抄试卷阅读理解或完形填空等。
第二节（满分25分）
【参考范文】
After thinking for a while, Angel walked up to Tom. With a trembling voice, Angel told Tom his behavior was rude and did serious harm to David. However, Tom said that he was telling the truth. A wave of annoyance flooded over Angel. She reminded Tom how David helped him with his physics. “David is always helping us solve problems. We shouldn’t judge people by their appearance,” added Angel. Hearing Angel’s words, Tom remembered the scene where David helped him with his study patiently. Ashamed and guilty, he realized what he did was wrong. Tom decided to say sorry to David. He went to David and apologized for his rude and wrong behavior sincerely. With his head down, tears welled up his eyes. David accepted Tom’s apology, and hugged him tightly. At that time, Angel and other classmates also came. They expressed their gratitude and appreciation to David, hoping David would help them like before. So moved and excited was David that tears rolled down on his cheeks. David nodded with delight. What is beauty The beauty of soul is the real beauty.
写作第二节评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21～25分）
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16～20分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度
较高。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11～15分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6～10分）
——内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1～5分）
——内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境
基本脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
【解析】
第二部分 阅读
第一节
A
21. B 细节理解题。根据Opening Hours部分的“Tuesday：Closed”可知周二卢浮宫不开放，故选B。
22. D 细节理解题。根据Tickets部分的“Tickets can be bought at the museum for ?15 or online for ?17. Admission is free for anyone under 18 with an official ID card and residents of the European Economic Area under 26 with an official certificate of residence or valid ID card.”可知，一对中国夫妻在网上购票需要34欧元。故选D。
23. A 细节理解题。根据最后一段“Click on the link for more information. https：//thetourguy.com/.”可知，这篇文章来源于网站，故选A。
B
24. D 细节理解题。根据第一段“Caring 17-year-old，Lauren Schroeder，was inspired to help bring healthy food to needy families in her community.”和“she felt that something was missing from the donated groceries：fresh vegetables.”可知劳伦觉得捐赠的食品中缺少了新鲜蔬菜，因此受到启发，决定在她家的农场上开辟一个花园种植新鲜蔬菜给有需要的人。故选D。
25. B 细节理解题。根据第三段“This year，Lauren doubled the size of her garden to an acre， adding ten more plant varieties including herbs and cauliflower.”可知，今年劳伦增加了十多种植物，包括草药和花椰菜。故选B。
26. C 推理判断题。根据全文，劳伦为社区捐赠自己种植的蔬菜，可知，她是一个慷慨和热心肠的人。故选C。
27. B 主旨大意题。文章讲述的是青少年劳伦给有需要的人带来新鲜蔬菜。故选B。
C
28. D 细节理解题。根据第二段的“If an axolotl loses a leg，or even part of its heart，brain， or lungs，it can regrow them.”可知，蝾螈有自愈功能。故选D。
29. A 细节理解题。根据第三段的“There are a number of reasons for the drop in axolotls. One is that the water in the lakes has become more and more polluted.”可知，湖泊中的水被污染是造成蝾螈数量减少的原因之一。故选A。
30. A 词义猜测题。根据第四段内容可知，这个项目很成功，筹集了26000多美元。故选A。
31. C 细节理解题。根据最后一段“Last year，the UNAM scientists started a program they called‘AdoptAxolotl’. They asked people to donate money to help pay for efforts to save the axolotls.”可知墨西哥国立自治大学的科学家们启动该计划是为了筹集资金来保护蝾螈，故选C。
D
32. A 主旨大意题。根据第一段“The report suggests that technology should be used less in schools，and that smartphones should be banned（禁止）from classrooms.”可知这篇文章主要讲了应该减少在学校使用科技产品，并且应该禁止智能手机进入教室。故选A。
33. C 细节理解题。根据第三段“UNESCO says that technology changes so fast that it’s hard to study how it really affects students.”可知技术变化如此之快，以至于很难研究它对学生的真正影响。故选C。
34. D 细节理解题。根据第四段“When students use phones in class，it can disturb their learning. One study that was carried out in 14 countries showed that even just having a smartphone nearby can be distracting.”可知智能手机可能会让学生难以集中注意力。故选D。
35. B 观点态度题。根据最后一段“We need to teach children to live both with and without technology.”可知，约翰·史密斯认为，我们需要教会孩子们在有和没有技术的情况下生活，所以他的观点比较客观。故选B。
第二节
36. E 考查上下文联系。本句放在段中，根据下文中“你会惊讶于它对你的身体、精神和情感健康的巨大好处。”可知，故选E。
37. D 考查上下文联系。本句放在段中，根据下文中“查尔斯·狄更斯曾经每天步行30英里，为他的小说集思广益，查尔斯·达尔文、史蒂夫·乔布斯和温斯顿·丘吉尔都喜欢散步。”可知，这几个名人均为thinker。故选D。
38. B 考查段落小标题。本句是该段落的小标题，根据本段中“散步让你的心脏跳动，这是改善心血管健康的好方法。走路时，血液循环加快，从而将更多的营养和氧气输送到全身。你还可以从心脏健康的结果中受益，比如降低血压和血糖水平。”可知本段大意为散步可以改善心脏健康，故选B。
39. F 考查上下文联系。本句放在段尾，根据“散步让你的心脏跳动，这是改善心血管健康的好方法。走路时，血液循环加快，从而将更多的营养和氧气输送到全身。”可知，该句讲解的是对心脏健康的影响，此句中的it考察代词的指代，also和前句的散步好处承接，故选F。
40. G 考查上下文联系。本句放在段首，根据下文“此外，花时间在户外可以改善睡眠，并有助于缓解压力。所以，找附近的公园伸展你的双腿，在树林里找到徒步小径，或者在海边漫步。”可知，此处的walking是在大自然中，故选G。
第三部分 语言运用
第一节
41. B 考查动词词义辨析。根据下文中“难道人们只在我的面前称赞我？”故选B。
42. A 考查名词词义辨析。根据下文中“谁在这幅画中发现任何错误，就在那个地方做个记号。”故选A。
43. B 考查动词短语词义辨析。句意：第二天，他很早就醒了，带着他的一幅画去了他所在城市的一个繁忙的广场。故选B。
44. D 考查名词词义辨析。句意：他把画放在那里，并在下面写了一张纸条(note)。故选D。
45. C 考查动词词义辨析。根据下文中“晚上，当他去广场看画时，他很伤心，因为他的画上有数百个标记。”可知他要求发现这幅画有错误的人在错误的地方做个记号(put a mark)。故选C。
46. A 考查形容词词义辨析。句意：晚上，当他去广场看画时，他很伤心，因为他的画上有数百个标记。故选A。
47. C 考查副词词义辨析。句意：看到这里，他很失望，默默地拿起他的画回家了。故选C。
48. D 考查动词词义辨析。句意：这件事给他留下了负面影响，他停止(stop) 绘画，开始回避与人交往。故选D。
49. B 考查动词词义辨析。句意：他的朋友意识到画家有什么心事，就问他原因。故选B。
50. C 考查动词词义辨析。句意：画家悲伤地把一切都告诉了他。听到这个消息，他的朋友请他做一件事。故选C。
51. D 考查动词词义辨析。句意：谁发现这幅画有什么错误，就纠正它。故选D。
52. A 考查形容词词义辨析。根据下文：His friend noticed his amazement. 句意：他的朋友注意到他的惊讶。故选A。
53. B 考查名词词义辨析。句意：听取那些只想挑别人毛病的人的意见是没有意义的。There is no point没有意义。故选B。
54. A 考查连词词义辨析。句意：因此，你要明白，错不在你的画，而在向这些人征求意见。该句和前句是因果关系，故选A。
55. C 考查名词词义辨析。句意：因此，你要明白，错不在你的画，而在向这些人征求意见。故选C。
第二节
56. characters 考查名词单复数。character是可数名词，这里指中国汉字，故填characters。
57. oldest 考查形容词最高级。根据句意“中国书法的发展始于商代的动物骨头上发现的已知最古老的汉字。”，且空格前有the，故用形容词最高级，故填oldest。
58. a 考查冠词。固定搭配a means of，意为一种手段或方法，故填a。
59. advanced 考查词性转换。根据后面的art可知应填advance的形容词形式，故填advanced。
60. and 考查连词。The kind of brush，the thickness of ink和the kind of paper是并列关系，故填and。
61. are 考查动词。and连接了两个并列成分，且为一般现在时，故填are。
62. are arranged 考查动词。they和arrange之间是被动关系，故填are arranged。
63. why 考查定语从句。该句为定语从句，先行词为reason，在从句中作状语，故填why。
64. highly 考查副词。该处用副词修饰valued，故填highly。
65. cultural 考查词性转换。根据后面的heritage可知应填culture的形容词形式，故填cultural。
听力原文
Text 1
W: What about going to the museum on Monday
M: But it is not open on Mondays. How about this weekend
W: Oh, I’m going to watch the latest movie on Saturday. Sunday is the best.
M: Okay, see you then.
Text 2
M: Your English is very clear. When did you start learning
W: I learned German and English as an adult. The most difficult part was changing my accent, because I only spoke Spanish while growing up.
Text 3
M: Why not take the white hat
W: Well, I prefer the yellow one.
M: Actually, the white one goes well with your blue skirt.
W: Oh, really I’ll take it.
Text 4
W: Why don’t you go home now It’s already six o’clock.
M: I still have a little work left. I will go home immediately after finishing it.
W: OK, see you tomorrow.
M: See you!
Text 5
M: Excuse me, do you know when the next bus will arrive
W: Probably in fifteen minutes.
M: Oh, thank you! I think it’s too late for me. I have to take a taxi now.
Text 6
W: Jim, are there any good restaurants near our school
M: There’s a Chinese restaurant. My family and I like it very much. Bella, do you like Chinese food
W: Oh, I haven’t tried it before. But I heard that there are many types of Chinese food.
M: Yes, some are spicy; some are sweet; and some are sour.
W: Great! have a sweet tooth.
M: Then I guess you will like it.
W: I can’t wait any more. Let’s go there for dinner tonight!
M: That’s nice！
Text 7
M: Nicole, what are you going to do this summer
W: Well, I’ve decided to find a part-time job. I want to save money for the concert of my favorite musician. And you, David
M: John invited me to join in the summer camp, but I refused. I have to take dance classes every day. You know, being a dancer has always been my dream.
W: Yeah, no pain, no gain. I believe you will succeed!
M: Thanks a lot, and I wish you could save enough money earlier.
Text 8
W: Lawrence, may I ask you for a half day off tomorrow
M: Of course. But could you tell me the reason, Jenny
W: My husband is going to Cambodia for a business trip. So I have to drive him to the airport.
M: Oh, when will you come back to the office
W: It will end at twelve o’clock, and I’ll drive back as soon as possible. Usually, it only takes twenty minutes.
M: Great! Don’t forget to attend the department meeting at two o’clock in the afternoon.
W: Okay!
Text 9
M: Tina, which club did you decide to join Dance club or yoga club
W: Andrew, you know, I like both clubs. But I decided to join the basketball club.
M: Are you kidding me I’ve never heard that you have an appetite for basketball.
W: I’m serious. I am good at dance and yoga, but I want to learn something new this term.
M: Good！I will join the football club. And every Tuesday afternoon I will take part in football training.
W: Oh, I will have basketball training on Monday and Wednesday.
M: By the way, will you go to the school music festival tonight
W: Sure! It’s only once in a blue moon, and I would like to make new friends there.
Text 10
M: It was really an unforgettable experience in my life. I finally felt relaxed when I got home. The first thing that happened was that there was an earthquake just as we landed in Peru in the afternoon. We couldn’t get off the plane for an hour or so, and it was very frightening. Mind you, it could have been a lot worse. If we’d touched down five minutes later, we’d have hit the ground just as it started moving and goodness knows what would have happened then. Or we could have arrived a couple of hours earlier in the morning which would have meant we were already sightseeing and one of the main sights of the city was the Central Square where a tower fell in the quake injuring quite a few people. Then a few days later a storm blew up while we were on a boat trip on Lake Titicaca. We set out in the morning, but we couldn’t get back to the shore until evening and the boat didn’t have any lights.
英语
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考场号、座位号、准考证号在答题卡上填写清楚。
2. 每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。
3. 考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When do the speakers plan to go to the museum
A. On Sunday. B. On Saturday. C. On Monday.
2. Which language is the woman’s first language
A. German. B. English. C. Spanish.
3. Which hat will the woman buy
A. The yellow one. B. The white one. C. The blue one.
4. Who is most probably the man
A. The woman’s husband. B. The woman’s student. C. The woman’s co-worker.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a taxi. B. At the bus stop. C. At the train station.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Family members. B. Schoolmates. C. Waiter and customer.
7. What kind of taste does the woman like
A. Sweet. B. Spicy. C. Sour.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Why does Nicole want to save money
A. To plan a trip. B. To buy a concert ticket. C. To join in a summer camp.
9. Who wants to be a dancer
A. Nicole. B. John. C. David.
10. What are the speakers talking about
A. Summer plans. B. Weekend activities. C. Career planning.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。
11. What will the woman do tomorrow morning
A. Go to the airport. B. Travel to Cambodia. C. Have a business trip.
12. When will the woman return to the company at the earliest
A. At 12:20 p.m. B. At 1:20 p.m. C. At 2:00 p.m.
13. What does the man remind the woman to do
A. Hand in a formal request.
B. Drive back as soon as possible.
C. Attend the department meeting.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。
14. Which club does the woman want to join
A. Yoga club. B. Basketball club. C. Dance club.
15. Why does the woman want to join the club
A. To make new friends. B. To enrich school life. C. To learn something new.
16. How often will the man have football training
A. Once a month. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. What was the speaker’s feeling when he got home
A. Relaxation. B. Anxiety. C. Excitement.
18. How did the speaker go to Peru
A. By ship. B. By train. C. By air.
19. What happened in Peru
A. There was a plane crash.
B. A tower fell in the earthquake.
C. Many people got injured in the storm.
20. When did the speaker get back to the shore
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
How to Visit the Louvre in 2024
People line up at more than one entrance to get into the largest museum on the planet, the Louvre. In this guide, we’ll walk you right through something you need to know to visit the Louvre. This way, you’ll be prepared to visit one of the greatest collections of art in the world.
Opening Hours
Monday: 9 a.m. — 6 p.m.
Tuesday: Closed
Wednesday: 9 a.m. — 6 p.m.
Thursday: 9 a.m. — 6 p.m.
Friday: 9 a.m. — 9:45 p.m.
Saturday: 9 a.m. —6 p.m.
Sunday: 9 a.m. —6 p.m.
Lucky for you, the museum also has a night opening on Fridays where the museum stays open until 9:45 p.m.
Tickets
Tickets can be bought at the museum for ?15 or online for ?17. Admission is free for anyone under 18 with an official ID card and residents of the European Economic Area under 26 with an official certificate of residence or valid ID card.
How Long to Spend at the Louvre
Short Answer: 3 hours inside. The museum is massive—the largest on Earth, so that should be something to take into consideration. It also has a rich collection of artwork, sculpture, and even medieval ruins.
Click on the link for more information. hutps://thetourguy.com/.
21. When is the Louvre not open
A. Monday. B. Tuesday. C. Wednesday. D. Sunday.
22. How much should a Chinese couple pay to visit the Louvre by booking tickets online
A. ?15. B. ?17. C. ?30. D. ?34.
23. Where is the text taken from
A. A website. B. A novel. C. A magazine. D. A newspaper.
B
Caring 17-year-old, Lauren Schroeder, was inspired to help bring healthy food to needy families in her community. Volunteering during the pandemic at a food shelter when she was just 14, she felt that something was missing from the donated groceries: fresh vegetables. “I thought it would be great to change that,” Lauren told the Washington Post, making a plan to grow and donate homegrown produce.
This kindhearted teen then told her parents of her wish to start a garden on part of their family farm in Dixon, Iowa, in order to supply local families in need with fresh produce including lettuce, carrots, tomatoes and zucchini. Lauren researched plants online, checking which species needed more shade, how much water was required, and about the best time to harvest each crop.
This year, Lauren doubled the size of her garden to an acre, adding ten more plant varieties including herbs and cauliflower.
In the past two years, this admirable high school junior has donated more than 3,175 kilograms of homegrown produce, with a value of $15,000 as reported on Insider Edition.
She has also won the admiration of her community. Jenna Kingsley, a Future Farmers of America advisor at Lauren’s high school tells MSN that, “Her self-confidence and generous hand to help those in need has left an impact larger than she could have imagined.”
24. Why did Lauren start a garden on her family farm
A. To develop her personal hobby.
B. To increase her family income.
C. To run a food store in her community.
D. To provide fresh produce for needy families.
25. What plant varieties did Lauren add to her garden this year
A. Herbs and zucchini. B. Herbs and cauliflower.
C. Tomatoes and zucchini. D. Lettuce and cauliflower.
26. Which of the following can best describe Lauren
A. Brave and self-confident. B. Curious and hard-working.
C. Generous and kind-hearted. D. Outgoing and open-minded.
27. Which of the following would be the best title for this article
A. A Teen Offers Tips to Grow a Family Garden
B. A Teen Brings Fresh Vegetables to the Needy
C. A Teen Sells Healthy Produce to the Community
D. A Teen Learns to Plant Vegetables on Family Farm
C
Scientists are worried about the future of the axolotl, an unusual Mexican salamander (蝾螈), and they’re asking for help. A new program lets people “adopt” an axolotl to raise money to support efforts to save the endangered animal.
The axolotl is a strange, but amazing animal, with a long body, short legs, and a long tail. Its body is covered with smooth, slimy skin. Axolotls are famous for their ability to cure themselves. If an axolotl loses a leg, or even part of its heart, brain, or lungs, it can regrow them. Scientists have long been interested in how the axolotl does this. Some people think the information could help solve some human medical problems.
Sadly, axolotls are in trouble. The number of axolotls in Mexico has dropped 99.5% in less than 20 years. There are a number of reasons for the drop in axolotls. One is that the water in the lakes has become more and more polluted. Another is that there are invasive (入侵的) fish in the lakes which are eating the axolotls’ food, and even their babies.
Scientists at Mexico’s National Autonomous University (UNAM) have been working for years to try to protect the axolotls. Last year, the UNAM scientists started a program they called “AdoptAxolotl”. They asked people to donate money to help pay for efforts to save the axolotls. The program was a big hit, and raised more than $26,000. The money was used to help clean up some of Mexican lakes and for a program to raise axolotls in a safe environment. Besides, people were encouraged to pay $30 to virtually (虚拟的) “adopt” one of the animals for a month or pay for food for an axolotl.
28. What do we know about the axolotls from paragraph 2
A. They can live without hearts or lungs.
B. They have short bodies and long legs.
C. They can solve some human problems.
D. They have the ability to cure themselves.
29. What has caused the drop of the axolotls’ population
A. Water pollution. B. Habitat loss. C. Invasive disease. D. Serious overfishing.
30. What do the underlined words “a big hit” most probably mean
A. A great success. B. A big mistake. C. A complete failure. D. A total imagination.
31. Why did the UNAM scientists start the “AdoptAxolotl” program
A. To let people clean up Mexican lakes.
B. To get money for scientists’ own projects.
C. To raise money to help axolotls live better.
D. To encourage people to take axolotls home.
D
A United Nations report warns that technology in classrooms may not help as much as many believe. The report suggests that technology should be used less in schools, and that smartphones should be banned (禁止) from classrooms.
The goal of the report was to improve how technology is used in education. The report says that technology can be helpful, but it shouldn’t be the focus. Instead, technology should be used to support learning.
UNESCO says that technology changes so fast that it’s hard to study how it really affects students. Many of the studies showing that technology helps students come from rich countries.
The report also points out that some of the studies in favor of technology come from companies that sell technology to schools. UNESCO agrees that technology can help in many ways. It can allow students to learn in ways that are more interesting; it can help teachers explain difficult ideas; it can also help students who have special needs.
But UNESCO says technology can also be very distracting (使人分心的). When students use phones in class, it can disturb their learning. One study that was carried out in 14 countries showed that even just having a smartphone nearby can be distracting. Even so, UNESCO says that less than 25% of the world’s countries ban phones in schools.
“We need to teach children to live both with and without technology,” said John Smith, the director behind the UNESCO report. The report suggests that the best way to learn is still to work closely with teachers. Working with other classmates also helps students learn. UNESCO says that most schools should spend more money on things like books, classrooms, and teachers.
32. What’s the passage mainly about
A. Technology should be used less in schools.
B. UNESCO calls for a stop of using technology.
C. Schools should spend more money on education.
D. Smartphones can be very distracting for students
33. What does UNESCO say about the technology in paragraph 3
A. Schools support companies selling technology.
B. The technology is only good for rich countries.
C. The technology changes too fast to keep track of.
D. Teachers can not explain difficult ideas without technology.
34. What can we learn from the fourth paragraph
A. Smartphones are important for school lessons.
B. Most countries do not allow smartphones in class.
C. Keeping a smartphone close is not a distraction at all.
D. Smartphones might make it hard for students to focus.
35. What’s John Smith’s attitude to the technology in schools
A. Positive. B. Objective. C. Uninterested. D. Negative.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Explore the Benefits of Walking
Taking one step at a time may seem simple, but often the most worthwhile things in life are the easiest to do. 36 , walking will be your best choice. You’ll be surprised at the great benefits it can have on your physical, mental, and emotional health.
Walking increases creativity
A Stanford University study found that 81 percent of participants increased their creativity just by walking. Going for a walk allows your ideas to wander. This can lead to breakthroughs and “ah-ha” moments. 37 . Charles Dickens used to walk 30 miles a day to brainstorm for his novels, and Charles Darwin, Steve Jobs and Winston Churchill all enjoyed walking.
38
Walking gets your heart pumping, a great way to improve cardiovascular health. While walking, blood circulation increases, which carries more nutrients and oxygen throughout the body. 39
Walking gives you a chance to spend time in nature
40 . You’ll take in vitamin D, which helps strengthen bones and may prevent disease. Plus, spending time outdoors may improve sleep and help reduce stress. So, look for parks nearby to stretch your legs, find hiking paths in the woods, or take a nice walk by the sea.
A. Walking helps lose weight
B. Walking may improve heart health
C. If you want to enrich your knowledge
D. In fact, some of the greatest thinkers walked regularly
E. If you’re looking for a way to relax and refresh yourself
F. It also reduces both your blood pressure and blood sugar levels
G. Going for a walk outside, you get to enjoy the benefits of spending time in nature
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Once a famous painter lived in a certain city. Thousands of people used to come to see his art exhibition. People would never get tired of 41 his works.
One day, he thought, “Do people praise me only in front of me and talk about 42 in my works behind my back ” The next day, he 43 early and took one of his paintings to a busy square of his city. There he kept his painting with a(an) 44 written below — “Whoever finds any mistake in this painting should 45 a mark on that place.”
In the evening, when he went to the square to see the painting, he became 46 as there were hundreds of marks on his painting. Seeing this, he got very disappointed and 47 picked up his painting and went home. This incident left a negative (消极的) influence on him and he 48 painting and started shying away from meeting people.
His friend realized that the painter was troubled by something and 49 him the reason. The painter told him everything with a sad heart. 50 it, his friend asked him to do one thing.
The next morning he put a new painting at the square. With a note written below it — “Whoever finds any mistake in the painting, 51 it.” In the evening when the painter and his friend went to check the painting, it was still the same as it was in the morning. The painter was 52 to see this. His friend noticed his amazement and said, “Do you understand something There is no 53 in taking the opinions of people who only want to find fault with others. 54 , understand that fault was not in your picture but in asking for 55 from such people!”
41. A. buying B. praising C. commenting D. revising
42. A. mistakes B. secrets C. images D. styles
43. A. made up B. woke up C. cheered up D. cleaned up
44. A. invitation B. letter C. document D. note
45. A. apply B. bury C. put D. imagine
46. A. sad B. curious C. amazed D. confused
47. A. calmly B. wisely C. silently D. happily
48. A. tried B. appreciated C. enjoyed D. stopped
49. A. gave B. asked C. told D. shared
50. A. Seeing B. Recording C. Hearing D. Reading
51. A. admire B. contact C. destroy D. correct
52. A. surprised B. anxious C. frightened D. confident
53. A. hope B. point C. doubt D. shame
54. A. Therefore B. However C. Otherwise D. Anyway
55. A. support B. information C. advice D. help
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chinese calligraphy is an ancient art of writing Chinese 56 (character), often with a brush and ink on xuan paper. Chinese calligraphy’s development started with the 57 (old) known Chinese writing found on bones of animals from the Shang Dynasty. Over time, calligraphy gradually took shape as a form of art rather than 58 means of record.
Chinese calligraphy is also a demanding and 59 (advance) art. The kind of brush, the thickness of ink, 60 the kind of paper all affect how the writing looks. The way the brush is held and how fast the writer writes 61 (be) all important too. How each letter is formed and how they 62 (arrange) together also matter for good calligraphy.
People also believe that the calligraphy expresses the writer’s feelings and thoughts, and that is the reason 63 Chinese calligraphy can touch so many people.
Where there is calligraphy, there is beauty. The art is still 64 (high) valued today, for it is more than just writing, it is a 65 (culture) and living heritage.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
寒假即将来临，请你以“How to Be a Civilized Tourist”为题写一篇短文，建议如何做一名文明游客。
注意：1. 词数80词左右；
2. 可适当发挥，以使行文连贯。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
David was an 8-year-old boy living in Memphis with his family. When 4 years old, David got his face burnt by hot water, leaving scars (伤疤) on his cheeks. David was home-schooled by his mother, but as he grew older, his parents decided to send him to a private school. David was afraid of being made fun of, but his parents encouraged him to face everything bravely.
When he began school, other kids didn’t want to be his friends because of his scars. Luckily, a girl named Angel offered to sit with him and helped him go through that difficult time. They became good friends, chatting happily and sharing what they were interested in.
As time went by, David’s excellent learning ability and kind behavior made him popular with the students. Since David was good at science, his classmates would turn to him for help whenever they had problems with their studies. David was always glad to help them.
On Halloween, a variety of holiday activities were held on campus. Everyone wore costumes (化装服) they liked. David wore a mask (面具), and no one could tell it was him. Unrecognized, David was walking through the classroom backdoor when he overheard his classmate Tom’s comment, “David’s face is the ugliest one I have ever seen.” Hearing this, David felt upset and depressed. He ran away secretly. Angel happened to stand behind David and saw what happened, but it was too late to stop it. As David’s best friend at school, Angel thought David was a good boy who should be treated kindly.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
After thinking for a while, Angel walked up to Tom. _________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Tom decided to say sorry to David. ______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
保山市2023-2024学年高一上学期1月期末质量监测
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1～5 ACBCB 6～10 BABCA 11～15 AACBC 16～20 BACBC
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21～23 BDA 24～27 DBCB 28～31 DAAC 32～35 ACDB
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36～40 EDBFG
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41～45 BABDC 46～50 ACDBC 51～55 DABAC
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. characters 57. oldest 58. a 59. advanced 60. and
61. are 62. are arranged 63. why 64. highly 65. cultural
语法填空评分标准
1. 每小题答对评1.5分，答错评0分，不评0.5分或1分。
2. 如果单词书写不规范导致无法辨认，按答错来认定，评0分。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【参考范文】
How to Be a Civilized Tourist
With the winter holiday coming, thousands of people pour into the tourist sites. But some tourists have some bad behaviors and habits while visiting some places of interest. So it’s important to know how to be a civilized tourist.
First, we should protect the natural environment. Don’t throw rubbish away or draw any where. Besides, when we cross roads, we must obey the traffic rules. Also in public places, we are supposed to wait in line and mustn’t talk loudly. Finally, wherever we go, we should respect local customs and traditions. Just keep it in mind that whenever we travel at home or abroad, we are representing the country to the rest of the world.
To be a civilized tourist will help build a better society. Let’s become civilized tourists!
写作第一节评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确
定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13～15分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9分）
——覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1～3分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。照抄试卷阅读理解或完形填空等。
第二节（满分25分）
【参考范文】
After thinking for a while, Angel walked up to Tom. With a trembling voice, Angel told Tom his behavior was rude and did serious harm to David. However, Tom said that he was telling the truth. A wave of annoyance flooded over Angel. She reminded Tom how David helped him with his physics. “David is always helping us solve problems. We shouldn’t judge people by their appearance,” added Angel. Hearing Angel’s words, Tom remembered the scene where David helped him with his study patiently. Ashamed and guilty, he realized what he did was wrong. Tom decided to say sorry to David. He went to David and apologized for his rude and wrong behavior sincerely. With his head down, tears welled up his eyes. David accepted Tom’s apology, and hugged him tightly. At that time, Angel and other classmates also came. They expressed their gratitude and appreciation to David, hoping David would help them like before. So moved and excited was David that tears rolled down on his cheeks. David nodded with delight. What is beauty The beauty of soul is the real beauty.
写作第二节评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21～25分）
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16～20分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度
较高。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11～15分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6～10分）
——内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1～5分）
——内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境
基本脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
【解析】
第二部分 阅读
第一节
A
21. B 细节理解题。根据Opening Hours部分的“Tuesday：Closed”可知周二卢浮宫不开放，故选B。
22. D 细节理解题。根据Tickets部分的“Tickets can be bought at the museum for ?15 or online for ?17. Admission is free for anyone under 18 with an official ID card and residents of the European Economic Area under 26 with an official certificate of residence or valid ID card.”可知，一对中国夫妻在网上购票需要34欧元。故选D。
23. A 细节理解题。根据最后一段“Click on the link for more information. https：//thetourguy.com/.”可知，这篇文章来源于网站，故选A。
B
24. D 细节理解题。根据第一段“Caring 17-year-old，Lauren Schroeder，was inspired to help bring healthy food to needy families in her community.”和“she felt that something was missing from the donated groceries：fresh vegetables.”可知劳伦觉得捐赠的食品中缺少了新鲜蔬菜，因此受到启发，决定在她家的农场上开辟一个花园种植新鲜蔬菜给有需要的人。故选D。
25. B 细节理解题。根据第三段“This year，Lauren doubled the size of her garden to an acre， adding ten more plant varieties including herbs and cauliflower.”可知，今年劳伦增加了十多种植物，包括草药和花椰菜。故选B。
26. C 推理判断题。根据全文，劳伦为社区捐赠自己种植的蔬菜，可知，她是一个慷慨和热心肠的人。故选C。
27. B 主旨大意题。文章讲述的是青少年劳伦给有需要的人带来新鲜蔬菜。故选B。
C
28. D 细节理解题。根据第二段的“If an axolotl loses a leg，or even part of its heart，brain， or lungs，it can regrow them.”可知，蝾螈有自愈功能。故选D。
29. A 细节理解题。根据第三段的“There are a number of reasons for the drop in axolotls. One is that the water in the lakes has become more and more polluted.”可知，湖泊中的水被污染是造成蝾螈数量减少的原因之一。故选A。
30. A 词义猜测题。根据第四段内容可知，这个项目很成功，筹集了26000多美元。故选A。
31. C 细节理解题。根据最后一段“Last year，the UNAM scientists started a program they called‘AdoptAxolotl’. They asked people to donate money to help pay for efforts to save the axolotls.”可知墨西哥国立自治大学的科学家们启动该计划是为了筹集资金来保护蝾螈，故选C。
D
32. A 主旨大意题。根据第一段“The report suggests that technology should be used less in schools，and that smartphones should be banned（禁止）from classrooms.”可知这篇文章主要讲了应该减少在学校使用科技产品，并且应该禁止智能手机进入教室。故选A。
33. C 细节理解题。根据第三段“UNESCO says that technology changes so fast that it’s hard to study how it really affects students.”可知技术变化如此之快，以至于很难研究它对学生的真正影响。故选C。
34. D 细节理解题。根据第四段“When students use phones in class，it can disturb their learning. One study that was carried out in 14 countries showed that even just having a smartphone nearby can be distracting.”可知智能手机可能会让学生难以集中注意力。故选D。
35. B 观点态度题。根据最后一段“We need to teach children to live both with and without technology.”可知，约翰·史密斯认为，我们需要教会孩子们在有和没有技术的情况下生活，所以他的观点比较客观。故选B。
第二节
36. E 考查上下文联系。本句放在段中，根据下文中“你会惊讶于它对你的身体、精神和情感健康的巨大好处。”可知，故选E。
37. D 考查上下文联系。本句放在段中，根据下文中“查尔斯·狄更斯曾经每天步行30英里，为他的小说集思广益，查尔斯·达尔文、史蒂夫·乔布斯和温斯顿·丘吉尔都喜欢散步。”可知，这几个名人均为thinker。故选D。
38. B 考查段落小标题。本句是该段落的小标题，根据本段中“散步让你的心脏跳动，这是改善心血管健康的好方法。走路时，血液循环加快，从而将更多的营养和氧气输送到全身。你还可以从心脏健康的结果中受益，比如降低血压和血糖水平。”可知本段大意为散步可以改善心脏健康，故选B。
39. F 考查上下文联系。本句放在段尾，根据“散步让你的心脏跳动，这是改善心血管健康的好方法。走路时，血液循环加快，从而将更多的营养和氧气输送到全身。”可知，该句讲解的是对心脏健康的影响，此句中的it考察代词的指代，also和前句的散步好处承接，故选F。
40. G 考查上下文联系。本句放在段首，根据下文“此外，花时间在户外可以改善睡眠，并有助于缓解压力。所以，找附近的公园伸展你的双腿，在树林里找到徒步小径，或者在海边漫步。”可知，此处的walking是在大自然中，故选G。
第三部分 语言运用
第一节
41. B 考查动词词义辨析。根据下文中“难道人们只在我的面前称赞我？”故选B。
42. A 考查名词词义辨析。根据下文中“谁在这幅画中发现任何错误，就在那个地方做个记号。”故选A。
43. B 考查动词短语词义辨析。句意：第二天，他很早就醒了，带着他的一幅画去了他所在城市的一个繁忙的广场。故选B。
44. D 考查名词词义辨析。句意：他把画放在那里，并在下面写了一张纸条(note)。故选D。
45. C 考查动词词义辨析。根据下文中“晚上，当他去广场看画时，他很伤心，因为他的画上有数百个标记。”可知他要求发现这幅画有错误的人在错误的地方做个记号(put a mark)。故选C。
46. A 考查形容词词义辨析。句意：晚上，当他去广场看画时，他很伤心，因为他的画上有数百个标记。故选A。
47. C 考查副词词义辨析。句意：看到这里，他很失望，默默地拿起他的画回家了。故选C。
48. D 考查动词词义辨析。句意：这件事给他留下了负面影响，他停止(stop) 绘画，开始回避与人交往。故选D。
49. B 考查动词词义辨析。句意：他的朋友意识到画家有什么心事，就问他原因。故选B。
50. C 考查动词词义辨析。句意：画家悲伤地把一切都告诉了他。听到这个消息，他的朋友请他做一件事。故选C。
51. D 考查动词词义辨析。句意：谁发现这幅画有什么错误，就纠正它。故选D。
52. A 考查形容词词义辨析。根据下文：His friend noticed his amazement. 句意：他的朋友注意到他的惊讶。故选A。
53. B 考查名词词义辨析。句意：听取那些只想挑别人毛病的人的意见是没有意义的。There is no point没有意义。故选B。
54. A 考查连词词义辨析。句意：因此，你要明白，错不在你的画，而在向这些人征求意见。该句和前句是因果关系，故选A。
55. C 考查名词词义辨析。句意：因此，你要明白，错不在你的画，而在向这些人征求意见。故选C。
第二节
56. characters 考查名词单复数。character是可数名词，这里指中国汉字，故填characters。
57. oldest 考查形容词最高级。根据句意“中国书法的发展始于商代的动物骨头上发现的已知最古老的汉字。”，且空格前有the，故用形容词最高级，故填oldest。
58. a 考查冠词。固定搭配a means of，意为一种手段或方法，故填a。
59. advanced 考查词性转换。根据后面的art可知应填advance的形容词形式，故填advanced。
60. and 考查连词。The kind of brush，the thickness of ink和the kind of paper是并列关系，故填and。
61. are 考查动词。and连接了两个并列成分，且为一般现在时，故填are。
62. are arranged 考查动词。they和arrange之间是被动关系，故填are arranged。
63. why 考查定语从句。该句为定语从句，先行词为reason，在从句中作状语，故填why。
64. highly 考查副词。该处用副词修饰valued，故填highly。
65. cultural 考查词性转换。根据后面的heritage可知应填culture的形容词形式，故填cultural。
听力原文
Text 1
W: What about going to the museum on Monday
M: But it is not open on Mondays. How about this weekend
W: Oh, I’m going to watch the latest movie on Saturday. Sunday is the best.
M: Okay, see you then.
Text 2
M: Your English is very clear. When did you start learning
W: I learned German and English as an adult. The most difficult part was changing my accent, because I only spoke Spanish while growing up.
Text 3
M: Why not take the white hat
W: Well, I prefer the yellow one.
M: Actually, the white one goes well with your blue skirt.
W: Oh, really I’ll take it.
Text 4
W: Why don’t you go home now It’s already six o’clock.
M: I still have a little work left. I will go home immediately after finishing it.
W: OK, see you tomorrow.
M: See you!
Text 5
M: Excuse me, do you know when the next bus will arrive
W: Probably in fifteen minutes.
M: Oh, thank you! I think it’s too late for me. I have to take a taxi now.
Text 6
W: Jim, are there any good restaurants near our school
M: There’s a Chinese restaurant. My family and I like it very much. Bella, do you like Chinese food
W: Oh, I haven’t tried it before. But I heard that there are many types of Chinese food.
M: Yes, some are spicy; some are sweet; and some are sour.
W: Great! have a sweet tooth.
M: Then I guess you will like it.
W: I can’t wait any more. Let’s go there for dinner tonight!
M: That’s nice！
Text 7
M: Nicole, what are you going to do this summer
W: Well, I’ve decided to find a part-time job. I want to save money for the concert of my favorite musician. And you, David
M: John invited me to join in the summer camp, but I refused. I have to take dance classes every day. You know, being a dancer has always been my dream.
W: Yeah, no pain, no gain. I believe you will succeed!
M: Thanks a lot, and I wish you could save enough money earlier.
Text 8
W: Lawrence, may I ask you for a half day off tomorrow
M: Of course. But could you tell me the reason, Jenny
W: My husband is going to Cambodia for a business trip. So I have to drive him to the airport.
M: Oh, when will you come back to the office
W: It will end at twelve o’clock, and I’ll drive back as soon as possible. Usually, it only takes twenty minutes.
M: Great! Don’t forget to attend the department meeting at two o’clock in the afternoon.
W: Okay!
Text 9
M: Tina, which club did you decide to join Dance club or yoga club
W: Andrew, you know, I like both clubs. But I decided to join the basketball club.
M: Are you kidding me I’ve never heard that you have an appetite for basketball.
W: I’m serious. I am good at dance and yoga, but I want to learn something new this term.
M: Good！I will join the football club. And every Tuesday afternoon I will take part in football training.
W: Oh, I will have basketball training on Monday and Wednesday.
M: By the way, will you go to the school music festival tonight
W: Sure! It’s only once in a blue moon, and I would like to make new friends there.
Text 10
M: It was really an unforgettable experience in my life. I finally felt relaxed when I got home. The first thing that happened was that there was an earthquake just as we landed in Peru in the afternoon. We couldn’t get off the plane for an hour or so, and it was very frightening. Mind you, it could have been a lot worse. If we’d touched down five minutes later, we’d have hit the ground just as it started moving and goodness knows what would have happened then. Or we could have arrived a couple of hours earlier in the morning which would have meant we were already sightseeing and one of the main sights of the city was the Central Square where a tower fell in the quake injuring quite a few people. Then a few days later a storm blew up while we were on a boat trip on Lake Titicaca. We set out in the morning, but we couldn’t get back to the shore until evening and the boat didn’t have any lights.
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