高一英语参考答案及评分标准
2024.01
第一部分 听力(共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分)
1-5 CBBAC 6-10 CACCB 11-15 ABCAB 16-20 CABAA
第二部分 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 50 分）
21-23 CBD 24-27 DBBA 28-31 DDAC 32-35CCDB 36-40 GECBF
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节；满分 30 分）
第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
41-45 ACDCB 46-50 DBCBA 51-55ACBDA
第二节 语法填空（共 10 小题， 每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
56. popularity 57. that/which 58. their 59. made 60. had broken 61. but 62. together
63. more important 64. funny 65. like
第四部分 写作(共三节，满分 40 分)
第一节 单词拼写 （共 10 小题，每小题 1 分；满分 10 分）
66. typical 67. recommend 68. attract 69. decorated 70. basis 71. response 72. negative
73. positive 74. proves 75. destroyed
第二节 应用文写作 （满分 15 分）
One possible version:
Dear Richard,
I'm Li Hua. Learning that our school is about to celebrate its 100th anniversary and that
volunteers are wanted, I am writing with pleasure to apply for this position.
I think I'm qualified for the job. My advantages are as follows. First and foremost, I have a
good command of oral English, allowing me to communicate with foreign guests with great ease.
What's more, I excel at communication, which makes me capable of interacting with a variety of
people of all backgrounds. Last but not least, a strong sense of responsibility and a huge passion
have given me a tremendous advantage over others.
Should you take my application into consideration and give me the opportunity, I would
appreciate it very much.
Yours,
Li Hua
评分标准
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为 15分，按 5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡
量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于 60和多于 100的，从总分中减去 2分。
4.评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上
下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以
考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点：（见试题）
三、各档次的给分范围及要求
第五档(13~15分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
——覆盖所有内容要点
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——应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致。
——有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(10~12分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
一一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或
词汇所致。
—一应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(7~9分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
一一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
——应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4~6分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
—一较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(1~3分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或
所写内容无法看清。
四、说明
1.内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2.应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。
第二节 读后续写 (满分 15分)
One possible version:
And he gently put his fingers near her mouth. The baby horse leant close to him, and Martin
smiled, feeling the warmth he had never felt before. For the first time, he realized how much joy
he could find in caring for another living being. I could see something changed in Martin's eyes.
Watching the horse sleep, Martin cried, “I'll be her mom and care for her.” From that day
on, Martin made it his mission to care for the baby horse. As he did, he felt his anger and
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sadness slowly melting away. He became more empathetic, more patient, and more connected to
the world around him. As we watched Martin's transformation unfold, we knew that our “boy-
horse communication program” had done its job. That was the true power of the ranch - not just
to help boys in trouble, but to heal their spirits and give them hope for the future.
附：听力原文
Text 1
W: Can you keep quiet please I am trying to watch the news in the living room. The noise you
made in the kitchen made me hardly hear the news.
M: Sorry. (1)I'll go outside to play with Bob in the garden.
Text 2
W: What's wrong, Fred You were so excited this morning about your first day in the new
school. (2)It didn't go well
M: It went fine. But John and I are not in the same class, so I'm pretty sad now.
Text 3
M: Oh, I'm so tired. I stayed up late to write a newspaper article last night.
W: Poor you. But being a nurse isn't easy either. I'm busy all day every day. (3)
Text 4
W: Sir, here are your two chicken hamburgers and a Coke. That will be 15 please. Are you
paying with cash or card
M: Cash. Here is 20.(4)
Text 5
W: For seven nights in Spain, including flights, hotel rooms and breakfast, it will cost you1400
per person. Do you want to take it
M: Yes, I will book for two people. (5)
Text 6
M: Good afternoon, Miss. Can I help you
W: Yes. I have lost my cat. I've been searching my neighborhood for two days but found nothing.
M: What does your cat look like
W: His body is white, but his tail is black, and his name is Frodo. (6)
M: I'm afraid I haven't seen a cat like that. There was an orange cat named Terry this morning,
but the owner came for her a while later.
W: Could you keep an eye out for him
M: Sure. Can I have your phone number (7)
W: Of course.
Text 7(第 9题为推断题)
W: Now the key to recovering after hurting your back is to avoid lifting things.
M: I see. Can I play football
W:I suggest that you take two weeks off. Do you go to the gym (8)
M: Yes, three times a week. (8)
W: If you do, avoid lifting any weights. If you want to go for a run or jog, it's okay.
M: Okay. Does this happen often
W: It does. Usually, the reason why problems like this occur is that you haven't warmed up
properly.
M: I never warm up.
W: Then you should start doing it. It will reduce the risk of being hurt and help you work out
better.
M: Thank you, doctor.
W: You're welcome.
Text 8
W: Hi, Tim. (10)(11)(12)Welcome to our program. (10)
M: Hi, Jayne. Thanks for having me. (10)
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W: Well, our listeners have some questions for you. (10) Firstly, how did you get into
writing (11)
M: I first became interested in writing since I was a child. (11) But I didn't take it seriously until
I studied English literature (文学) at university.
W: You are known for some great children's books. Have you ever written other types of books
M: I also wrote some short stories. Once I surprisingly found a little boy focusing on my Red
Apple Tree on my train to France. I guess that's why I continue writing.
W: That's cool. So, how do you come up with the ideas for your books (12)
M: The ideas are in everyday life, all around me. (12)All I have to do is go for a walk, open
my eyes and see the world. I avoid watching TV shows or movies.
W: Interesting.
Text 9
W: Hey, Karl. (13)(14)(15)How was your trip to Brazil (13)
M: Oh, Rachel, it was amazing. I spent three nights in the forest with a local family. They taught
me so much. (13)
W: Like what (13)
M: I learned things like how to get in touch with nature, how to hunt for food, (13) how to setup
a place to live, and how to tell apart the sounds of different animals.
W: Were the sounds scary
M: At night time, yes. And it was especially scary when it rained heavily at night. (14)You can't
see anything in front of you.
W: Wow. What were the local people like (15)
M: Pretty good. (15) They didn't speak English, so my guide had to translate for me. But they
were friendly and so skillful. (15) Even the children could build houses and find food.
W: Interesting. Did you take photos (16)
M: Yes. And I have printed out all of them. Let me show you some. (16)
W: That sounds great. (16)
Text 10
M: I am here today to tell you about building your self-confidence. (17) When I was a student at
this school, I was very shy and nervous, and I didn't use the opportunities to practice speaking in
front of people. I regret that, and that's why I advise you all to try and speak during classes. The
more you speak, the more confident you'll become. Many of you know Mr. Wilson, our drama
teacher. He helped me a lot in speaking in public. (18)In my final year, he chose me to play the
leading role in the school play. This really helped increase my self-confidence. For my job now,
working as a salesman, (19) I must speak to people all the time but I'm not nervous any more. So,
my advice is not being afraid of making mistakes. All you have to do is face them and carry on.
(20)Now I shall pass you over to the head teacher.
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枣庄市薛城区2023-2024学年高一上学期期末考试
英 语
2024.01
第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题; 每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the man now
A. In the living room. B. In the garden. C. In the kitchen.
2. How was Fred feeling in the morning
A. Surprised. B. Excited. C. Sad.
3. What does the woman do
A. She is a writer. B. She is a nurse. C. She is a reporter.
4. How much money will the man get back
A. $5. B. $10. C. $15.
5. What is the man doing
A. Asking about flight prices. B. Leaving a hotel. C. Booking a trip.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7小题。
6. What color is Frodo’s tail
A. White. B. Orange. C. Black.
7. What does the man ask the woman for
A. Her phone number. B. Her address. C. Her name.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9小题。
8. How often does the man work out in the gym
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
9. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a gym. B. On a football field. C. At a hospital.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Friends. B. Hostess and guest. C. Teacher and student.
11. When did Tim first write
A. When he was little. B. When he went to university.
C. When he started teaching English.
12. How does Tim get ideas for his books
A. From travel. B. From everyday life. C. From movies.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. What did Karl learn during his trip in Brazil
A. How to speak the local language. B. How to take care of animals.
C. How to hunt for food.
14. What made Karl scared during his trip
A. The heavy rain at night. B. Touching animals. C. Sleeping alone.
15. What did Karl think of the local people
A. They were shy. B. They were friendly. C. They were humorous.
16. What will the woman probably do next
A. Have some food. B. Go to a print shop. C. Look at some pictures.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. What is the talk mainly about
A. How to improve self-confidence.
B. How to write a good speech.
C. How to get high grades.
18. Who helped the speaker practice speaking
A. His classmate. B. His teacher. C. A drama actor.
19. Which industry does the speaker work in now
A. Sales. B. Education. C. Drama.
20. What does the speaker suggest doing at the end of the talk
A. Facing mistakes bravely.
B. Taking part in the school play.
C. Talking with the head teacher.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Huanglong Scenic and Historic Interest Area
The “World Wonder” and “Fairy Land on Earth” are names enjoyed by the Huanglong Scenic and Historic Interest Area, which is famous for its colorful lakes, snow-capped mountains and valleys. It was included in the UNESCO World Heritage List in 1992.
Huanglong Scenic and Historic Interest Area includes the Huanglong Valley, Mounigou Valley and so on. The major scenery is concentrated in the 3.6-kilometer long Huanglong Valley that includes snow-covered mountains and the easternmost glaciers in China. The Mounigou Valley includes Erdao Lake and Zhaga Waterfall which is the biggest calcified (钙化的) waterfall in China.
Attention
The average temperature is around 5°C all the year round. It is misty in the morning and
evening and rainy from May to August.
How to get there Chengdu to Huanglong
Take a bus from Chengdu Chadianzi Bus Station to Songpan county, and the buses depart at 7:30, 9: 30, 11: 30 and 13: 00. The bus fare is 109 yuan. After arrival, take a bus to Huanglong at
6: 00, 7: 00 or 14: 00, and the bus fare is 25-29 yuan.
Jiuzhaigou to Huanglong
Visitors can hire a private car and the fare is around 400 yuan for a round trip.
Other information
Entrance Fee: 80-190 yuan
Huanglong Cable Car Ticket: 40-80yuan Opening Hours: 8:00-18:00
Recommended Time for a Visit: 1 day
21. What should visitors bring to have fun in Huanglong
A. Enough water. B. Delicious food. C. Warm clothes. D. Big shoes.
22. How should visitors go to Huanglong from Jiuzhaigou
A. By plane. B. By car. C. By train. D. On foot.
23. What’s the author’s purpose in writing the text
A. To compare different areas. B. To make suggestions about trips.
C. To show a kind of local culture. D. To introduce a tourist attraction.
B
“Where I grew up, there were not a lot of plants outside.” Said Yolanda Palmer. “Some people had them; some people didn’t.”
Palmer, who is from Southwest Philadelphia, discovered her love for plants at the age of 10. Growing up, she developed great skills in growing plants and learned more about nature each and every day.
“As I got a little older, one block in my neighborhood would be filled with flowers and things in the yard.” She said. “But in another block there would be none.”
Since then, Palmer had wanted to share her love of plants with the community. But the dream remained just a seed while she worked an ordinary day job. Sitting in the company she often thought she had to do something else. Palmer then planted the seed. She started small, selling at a local outdoor market in Southwest Philadelphia and then coming to shows and festivals in Chestnut Hill.
By December 2021, she had her store on German town Avenue, “Foliage”. There, she sells common plants, rare plants, small plants, and large plants. “The goal is to sell them to homeowners to beautify their homes and also to clean the air.” she said.
Palmer’s home is in Chestnut Hill, a central gardening center in the city. She hopes her message will be able to reach other communities in the Philadelphia area. “Everyone should buy houseplants. Everyone should want cleaner air.” She said. “And that way, in the future when our children grow up, we can make it better.”
Palmer plans on continuing to work hard to support not only her store, but her boys, four dogs, one cat and 128 plants at home.
24. What did Palmer find when she was young
A. Her neighbors disliked plants. B. People knew little about plants.
C. There were few kinds of plants. D. Plants were not seen everywhere.
25. What is Palmer doing now
A. Managing a gardening center. B. Running her own plant store.
C. Beautifying her block with plants. D. Teaching communities about plants.
26. What does Palmer hope
A. Everyone can protect the plants. B. More locals will have houseplants.
C. Children can learn more about plants. D. She will have an outdoor market for plants.
27. What is the best title for the text
A. From hobby to job: Palmer has made it B. From class to work: Palmer’s happy habit
C. From village to city: Palmer is on the road D. From seed to flower: Palmer’s future dream
C
In an ideal world, we would be able to devote as much time to sports as we feel we need. But in reality, with growing demands in both work and family, we can only jump at the chance for our physical exercise when we can. Making the most of that time to practice Yin Yang yoga, which mixes the dynamic and slow-paced elements of yoga, helps keep you active and relaxed.
Yin and Yang are the Taoist concepts representing a balance of opposite forces which are also interconnected. Yin is inactive, cooling, and negative, associated with the female force. Yang is active, warming, and positive, associated with action and movement. They are complementary to one another, as one cannot exist without the other.
Yin Yang yoga is a combination of high-energy movement which builds energy, increases strength and promotes stamina (耐力), followed by the more restful practice of Yin to give us a deeper stretch (拉伸) and calm the nervous system.
If you have a busy and active life you may feel more in Yang, so taking some cooler, slower Yin yoga practice into your routine may help you feel calmer and more balanced.
If you are practicing for an hour, divide the time in half. Warm up with sun salutations (拜日式瑜伽), continue into a dynamic flow and then move on to some standing postures. After half an hour your heart will be pumping, muscles tighten up and you are hopefully feeling energetic, but ready for a rest. Then pick five Yin postures to hold for 3-5 minutes, or even longer if you are enjoying them!
As ever with yoga, if you are a beginner or have health issues, always attend a class with a trained instructor first to guide you safely through the yoga practice and avoid injury.
28. What can be inferred from paragraph 1
A. Most of our sports time should be spent on Yin Yang yoga.
B. We’d better devote as much time to physical exercise as we can.
C. Busy schedule makes it impossible for us to do any form of sports.
D. Yin Yang yoga can be a choice of physical exercise when time is tight.
29. What does the underlined word “complementary” probably mean
A. Independent from one another.
B. Competitive against one another.
C. Similar to each other but unable to work together as a whole.
D. Different from each other but together making a good combination.
30. Which of the following might be the benefit of Yin postures
A. Relaxing muscles. B. Building stamina.
C. Strengthening the body. D. Quickening the heartbeat.
31. What suggestion does the writer give in the last two paragraphs
A. Hold each Yin posture for longer than 5 minutes.
B. Do not practice yoga when you are not in good health.
C. Start your yoga practice under the guidance of a trainer.
D. Spare half an hour for five Yin postures in every yoga practice.
D
A small town in western France has gone viral for marking a busy crossroads with overlapping (重叠的) white lines in order to confuse motorists and make them slow down.
The town of Bauné, near Angers, is home to only about 1,700 people, but it has to deal with heavy traffic on a daily basis because of its location at the crossroads between two departmental roads — D74 and D82. Some of the roughly 2,300 vehicles that pass through Bauné every day can have speeds of over 100 km/h, even though the town’s crossroads is clearly marked with signs limiting the speed at 30 km/h. In order to get drivers to slow down, local authorities came up with the idea of using confusing road markings in the form of overlapping continuous lines. Interestingly enough, the strategy worked like a charm!
Photos of the odd road markings on the busy crossroads of Bauné went viral on French social media recently and left a lot of people scratching (抓) their heads. Many people have pointed out that a continuous white line is impassable (不可通行的), so having the lines overlap and cover the entire square doesn’t really make a lot of sense. Others simply wondered why the local authorities didn’t use more traditional means of decreasing vehicle speed, like a roundabout (环形交叉路口) or traffic lights.
According to Grégoire Jauneault, deputy mayor of Loire-Authion and the person in charge of local development, the deliberately confusing road markings started working on the day they were completed, with data showing a significant decrease in motorists’ speeds. However, a part of the local community predicted that the result was only temporary and that as soon as motorists figured out the game, they would go right back to their speeding ways.
32. What’s the purpose of marking a busy crossroads with overlapping white lines
A. To make headlines on social media.
B. To reduce traffic jam at the crossroads
C. To make drivers slow down their speed.
D. To reduce the number of people crossing the crossroads.
33. What is true about the town
A. Only 1,7000 people living there.
B. The speed limit is 100 km/h at the crossroads.
C. Traffic jam happens every day at the crossroads.
D. Roughly 2,300 vehicles pass through Bauné every week.
34. What’s the author’s attitude towards the strategy
A. Doubtful B. Supportive C. Opposed D. Objective
35. Where can you probably find the passage
A. In a textbook B. In the newspaper
C. In a research paper D. In a travel magazine
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The Spring Festival is the most important celebration in China. There are some interesting Spring Festival traditions about Don’ts&. Dos. Let’s take a look!
Don’t take out the rubbish
Taking out the rubbish, on that day, is said to stand for sweeping luck and wealth from the house. 36 .
Don’t give a watch or clock as a gift
A clock is an unpopular gift at any time of the year in China, as the phrase “giving a clock” sounds exactly like the Chinese words for “song zhong”. 37 so it is an especially bad gift for the elderly.
38
During the festive period, you’ll see amazing decorations all over China, and your house should be no exception. 39 you’ll be able to find red decorations everywhere during the Spring Festival.
Popular decorations include red lanterns driving away bad luck, door couplets showing wishes for the coming year, and the character(fu) meaning good fortune.
Give hongbao or fruit
Hongbao, or a red envelope containing money, is a popular gift for adults to give children.
Fruit, especially tangerines or kumquats, are safe for friends. 40 because the word for tangerine(ju)sounds similar to the Chinese word for luck(ji).
A. Wear red for luck
B. As red is a lucky color
C. Make your house attractive
D. Spring Festival is a time for delicious food
E. A clock also stands for running out of time
F. You will often see them on the table during the Lunar New Year
G. In fact, cleaning any kind of thing on the first day of the lunar calendar is considered unlucky
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My dad is easy-going and has a gift for chatting. He 41 a fast food restaurant called Queenie’s Weenies, which is specialized in hot dogs. I work with my dad at the 42 on weekends.
One Saturday, we went 43 . As we got into the checkout line, I 44 something: our cashier (收银员) was very 45 ! She 46 no smiles, no greetings and no small talk. Her “anger aura (光环)” was obvious and kind of 47 to me. When we 48 to check out, I was thinking that we should just pay for our things and leave quickly. My dad had a different 49 . When it was our turn, he started 50 her.
Dad said, “Hi, how are you today This is my son. I have a restaurant, and we 51 together. It’s called Queenie’s Weenies. Drop by my restaurant sometime and I will 52 you to my hot dogs. I’m good at cooking them.” By the time we 53 checking out, the cashier was smiling. She said, “Thanks, umm… I hope you and your son have a very nice day.”
Back in the car, Dad said to me, “The cashier was obviously 54 today. It happens to everyone. Smile 55 or give a few kind words, which is all it takes to make one a little more delighted.”
41．A．owns B．describes C．visits D．recommends
42．A．supermarket B．hospital C．restaurant D．company
43．A．hiking B．camping C．exploring D．shopping
44．A．imagined B．believed C．noticed D．remembered
45．A．beautiful B．unhappy C．professional D．polite
46．A．received B．needed C．avoided D．offered
47．A．suitable B．frightening C．special D．friendly
48．A．helped B．refused C．waited D．forgot
49．A．problem B．idea C．hope D．experience
50．A．talking to B．looking after C．going after D．laughing at
51．A．work B．play C．tour D．exercise
52．A．drive B．tie C．treat D．lead
53．A．quitted B．finished C．missed D．regretted
54．A．in peace B．in danger C．in a hurry D．in low spirits
55．A．warmly B．immediately C．secretly D．comfortably
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The football is such a simple game to play is perhaps the basis of its 56 (popular). It is also a game 57 is very cheap to play. All over the world you can see kids playing to 58 (they) hearts’ content with a ball 59 (make) of plastic bags, just like Pele did when he was a boy.
What’s more, football has become one of the best ways for people to communicate. For example, the famous football game on Christmas Day 1914. World WarⅠ 60 (break) out months before, 61 British and German soldiers put down their guns and played football
62 .
“Some people believe football is a matter of life and death, …” said Bill Shankly, the famous footballer and manager. “I can assure you it is much, much 63 (important) than that.” This might sound 64 (fun), but one only has to think about the Earth to realize that our planet is shaped 65 a football.
第四部分 写作（共三节，满分40分）
（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
用所给汉语提示，写出正确的单词，使句意完整有意义。
66. This is a __________(典型的) Italian cafe.
67. Can you __________(推荐) a good restaurant
68. We need to produce better creative if we want to __________(吸引) big clients.
69. They __________(装饰) the room with flowers and balloons.
70. This gives the design team a sound __________(基础) for their work.
71. The product was developed in ________(回应) to customer demand.
72. The crisis had a __________(消极的) effect on trade.
73. Be a __________(积极乐观的) person and share your smile with others.
74. This just ______(证明) what I have been saying for some time. the meeting until next week.
75. The building was __________(毁掉) by the earthquake.
第二节 应用文写作（满分15分）
假定你是李华，从校园网站上得知你校将迎接建校100周年，为更好地在校庆活动中服务于来自海内外的校友和外国来宾，现正在招聘自愿者。你对此感兴趣，请你写一封电子邮件给负责人Richard申请做自愿者。
内容包括：1.写信目的；2.个人优势；3.表达期望。
注意：1.应聘邮件中不得出现真实人名和校名等相关信息；
2.可适当增加细节以使行文连贯；
3.写作词数应为80个左右；
4.请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Richard,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第三节 读后续写 (满分 15 分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
注意：1. 续写词数应为80个字左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Most boys coming to our ranch (大牧场) were living around animals for the first time. Sent by educational systems, they were boys in trouble; they had no family, lacked love, often broke the rules, and were lonely. Our ranch created a “boy-horse communication program” for them, hoping to heal their broken spirits and help them behave well through their communication with horses. I was the program’s head.
15-year-old Martin was a new arrival. He appeared cold and easily angry and had no experience with horses. He seemed to consider a horse only a vehicle for speed and thrills. He always pushed his way to the front of the line every day, knocking down smaller children to get on the horse. And then he started moving fast. We tried to communicate with him, but he only cared about his excitement.
One morning, when I was upset about Martin’s behavior in my office, one worker told me that a female horse was ill. Then，I ran to its stable (马厩), and within an hour she was dead. We felt sad about her and also concerned about the young baby she had recently delivered (分娩). The baby horse’s first need was to be fed.
We prepared some milk in a bottle and offered it to her. But she wouldn’t accept the bottle. We had to put our hands in the milk and let her suck (吮吸) the milk off our fingers. It was a painfully slow method of feeding, but we had no choice if we wanted the baby horse to survive.
At that moment, Martin finished his daily riding and found us. Pushing his way through the crowd of kids who were watching us feed the baby horse, he got to the front, shouting, “I want to feed it!”
After I showed Martin how to do it, he put his hand in the milk and then put his fingers towards the horse’s mouth. When the baby horse closed her mouth around his fingers, Martin was surprised and drew back, shouting, “Hey, it bit me!” But knowing the little horse wanted more food, he immediately re-wet his hand.
And he gently put his fingers near her mouth. ________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
