Unit 6 Travelling around Asia单元检测题
(时间：60分钟；满分：100分)
Ⅰ.听力试题(每小题1分，共15分)
一、根据你听到的内容，选出相应的图片，句子读两遍。(共5分)
A B C
D E
1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______
二、根据你听到的对话和问题，选出最恰当的答案，对话读两遍。(共5分)
6. A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
7. A. At the Summer Palace. B. In Tian’anmen Square.
C. On the Great Wall. D. At the Palace Museum.
8. A. A dog. B. A cat. C. A rabbit. D. A parrot.
9. A. An SPCA officer. B. A vet. C. A policeman. D. A doctor.
10. A. From the USA. B. From Australia.
C. From Britain. D. From China.
三、判断下列句子是否符合你听到的短文内容, 符合的用“T”表示，不符合的用“F”表示，短文读两遍。(共5分)
11. Mary is from America.
12. On the first day, they will go to Yu Garden.
13. On the second day, they will do shopping on Nanjing Road.
14. Mary will stay in Shanghai for two weeks.
15. Mary will have a very good time in Shanghai.
Ⅱ.单项选择(每小题1分，共15分)
16. —Who is _______ girl in front of the library
—The one with _______ umbrella She is our monitor.
A. the; a B. the; an C. a; an D. a; the
17. (2015·山东潍坊)You must be careful when you swim _______ the lake.
A. across B. below C. over D. through
18. (2015·江苏连云港)You will see many aunts dancing together on the square if it _______ in the evening.
A. doesn’t rain B. rains C. will rain D. won’t rain
19. I’ll give you _______ on tomorrow’s meeting.
A. some advice B. any advice C. any advices D. some advices
20. Hobo doesn’t know _______.
A. when to do B. what to do C. how to do D. where to do
21. There are some flowers on _______ side of the road.
A. each B. every C. both D. all
22. That bag is too _______. Who can help me carry it
A. short B. interesting C. heavy D. light
23. It’s cold outside. _______ your coat.
A. Wear B. Take off C. Put on D. Dress
24. If you _______ away from the junk food, you will be in good health.
A. stay B. will stay C. stays D. staying
25. (2015·江西)There will be less pollution _______ more people use public transportation.
A. but B. though C. unless D. if
26. —Tom, please remember to _______ the photo to school tomorrow. I’d like to have a look.
—OK. I’ll introduce something about it to you myself.
A. take B. bring C. pass D. carry
27. —This term I want to be the top student in my class.
—_______.
A. Congratulations B. Never mind C. Of course D. Good luck to you
28. I have a trip the city.
A. to B. between C. at D. on
29. —You look very pretty today.
—_______.
A. Oh, I don’t B. Thank you C. The same to you D. No, I’m not
30. If you put red and yellow together, you can get _______.
A. green B. blue C. orange D. brown
Ⅲ.完形填空(每小题2分，共20分)
Jenny, from Germany, spent some time traveling in India. While she was there, she stayed with her Indian friend, Leela. However, there was a language barrier(障碍) for her there. It was very 31 for her to communicate in the new environment, which was very different from 32
of her own country.
One day, together with Leela, Jenny went to 33 an orphanage(孤儿院). All the children there were very young. At first, Jenny was not sure if she could have a way to communicate with them. She went over to the children 34 and sat beside them. After some time, one of the children 35 her. She felt a little relaxed and smiled back. Then she went close to the child. She slowly put her arm around the child and started 36 a song in German. The child kept smiling and started repeating the words after her. The words that came from the little mouth were different from those that Jenny sang, but the rhythm(节奏) was the same. Jenny sang a little more and the child followed her again. Wanting to join in the 37 , another child went up to Jenny and started singing the rhythm. Then more children joined. They 38 many smiles together.
From the other side of the hall, Leela was smiling and watching them. Noticing Leela’s 39
on her, Jenny had an exciting feeling from her heart: “See, I don’t have any language barriers here. We 40 speak and communicate!” At that moment, she understood: we’re all simply humans, and we have the ability to connect with each other.
31. A. nice B. dangerous C. difficult D. easy
32. A. these B. those C. this D. that
33. A. show B. visit C. build D. improve
34. A. slowly B. early C. hardly D. easily
35. A. looked at B. laughed at C. shouted at D. smiled at
36. A. singing B. writing C. saying D. playing
37. A. club B. talk C. fun D. dance
38. A. forgot B. remembered C. shared D. missed
39. A. hands B. eyes C. influence D. question
40. A. can B. must C. need D. should
Ⅳ.阅读理解(每小题2分，共20分)
A
Dear Liz,
My stay in Thailand has certainly been the experience of my life.
Life is busy and exciting. Bangkok is just like any other big city with a population of about 10 million and heavy traffic. I’m very lucky because my host family is in a nice quiet area outside the city. There are Mr. and Mrs. Phairat, their son Sanan, who is 18, the daughter Chinda, who is 16, and Grandpa and Grandma.
I go to an international school with Sanan and Chinda. The school teaches about 70 percent in English, and 30 percent in Thai. I’ve learned some spoken language, but Thai writing is very difficult. The cooking lesson is my favourite. I’m learning all about Thai food and culture. People don’t use chopsticks here, but spoons and forks. When I come back, I’m going to cook you a real Thai meal.
Last weekend we visited some temples. We also drove to Pattaya Beach near Bangkok. I thought it was great, but Sanan and Chinda said that the next month they were taking me to Phuket Island, where the beaches are even more beautiful. The month after next, we’re going to travel to Mr. Phairat’s hometown in the north of Thailand. The Phairats own land there, and they have two elephants. I’m going to ride those elephants—and even wash them. Sanan and Chinda say it’s really fun.
I’m amazed by everything in this country, especially by the elephants. Elephants are an important part of Thai culture and way of life. They have been a traditional symbol(象征) of Thailand for many years in times of war and peace. In the seventh century, a Thai king trained 20,000 elephants for battle. I’ll tell you all about my Thai boxing(拳击) lessons next time I write.
Love,
Mandy
41. How many family members are there in Mandy’s host family
A. 4. B. 5. C. 6. D. 7.
42. Mandy writes in her letter that the _______ lesson is her favourite.
A. Thai speaking B. boxing C. Thai writing D. cooking
43. Next month, Mandy is going to visit _______.
A. Pattaya Beach B. Phuket Island
C. Mr. Phairat’s hometown D. Bangkok
44. From the letter we know that Mandy is _______ when she stays in Thailand.
A. bored B. quiet C. excited D. proud
45. What is the possible subject of the letter
A. Study trip in Thailand B. Food culture in Thailand
C. Elephant riding in Thailand D. International schools in Thailand
B
Everybody wants to be healthy. You know food is very important. There are many healthy foods. You can have more bananas, apples, oranges, tomatoes and lettuce because fruits and vegetables are good for you. But don’t eat too much chocolate. It’s not good for you. Healthy food can make you grow and make you strong and happy. Remember there is a saying, “An apple a day keeps the doctor away.” Sports can also keep you healthy. Get up early and do some sports every day. Don’t be lazy! You will be healthy and happy.
46. Which is right
A. Everybody is healthy. B. We want to be healthy. C. We are important.
47. What are healthy foods
A. Fruits and vegetables.
B. Bananas, apples and chocolate.
C. Fruits and chocolate.
48. Why are healthy foods good for you
A. Because they make you happy.
B. Because they make you strong.
C. Because they make you grow and make you strong and happy.
49. What does “An apple a day keeps the doctor away.” mean
A. The doctor goes away when he sees an apple.
B. The doctor runs away when you give him an apple.
C. You eat an apple every day and you can be healthy.
50. What keeps you healthy
A. Fruits and vegetables. B. Healthy food. C. Healthy food and sports.
Ⅴ.补全对话(每小题2分，共10分)
根据对话内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出最佳选项，选项中有一项为多余项。
A. Why do you want to go to Hawaii(夏威夷) B. How long are you going to stay in Hawaii C. I have to study for the maths exam. D. We also want to learn something about American culture. E. I asked my father to buy it for us. F. Do you like going abroad
A: Can you tell me your holiday plan
B: Sure. Daniel and I want to go to Hawaii very much.
A: Hawaii Go abroad 51._______
B: Yes. I always want to travel to a foreign country.
A: 52._______
B: Because its beaches are very famous.
A: Is that all
B: Of course not. 53._______
A: Did you buy the air tickets
B: No, we didn’t. 54._______ So I don’t have free time.
A: Maybe I can help you.
B: Oh. 55._______ Thank you all the same.
Ⅵ.书面表达(共20分)
有人喜欢住在城里，有些人喜欢住在乡下，你喜欢住在哪里呢？请写一篇70词左右的短文，说说你喜欢住在那里的理由。
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Unit 6 Travelling around Asia 检测题听力原文及参考答案
听力原文：
一、根据你听到的内容，选出相应的图片，句子读两遍。
1. Every morning we raise the national flag in the school.
2. It is a photo of the Great Wall. It’s a long wall with towers on it.
3. Almost every child loves the cartoon Mickey Mouse.
4. Shanghai is a very crowded city. Do you think so
5. Tom likes playing computer games very much.
二、根据你听到的对话和问题，选出最恰当的答案，对话读两遍。
6. W: Have you visited Beijing
M: Yes. I have visited many places there.
W: What are they
M: The Great Wall, the Summer Palace, the Palace Museum and Xiangshan Park.
Q: How many places have the man visited in Beijing
7. M: So many nice photos. Did you take them in Beijing
W: Yes. This is a photo of Simon and Ben. They’re standing at the Summer Palace.
M: What about that one, Kitty
W: It’s a photo of Lucy and me. We’re standing in front of Tian’anmen Square.
Q: Where are Simon and Ben in the photo
8. M: I prefer to keep a dog as a pet. What about you, Kitty
W: I like cats. But now I prefer to keep a rabbit as a pet.
Q: What does Kitty prefer to keep as a pet
9. M: What does your uncle do, Alice
W: He saves animals from danger and takes them to the SPCA. What about your uncle, John
M: He is a vet. He takes care of sick animals.
Q: What’s John’s uncle’s job
10. W: You have got some new pen friends, haven’t you, Jack
M: Yes, I have. Their names are Frank and Ivan.
W: Are they American
M: No, Frank is from Australia and Ivan is from Britain.
Q: Where does Frank come from
三、判断下列句子是否符合你听到的短文内容，符合的用“T”表示，不符合的用“F”表示，短文读两遍。
I’m glad to hear that my pen friend, Mary, will visit Shanghai. I have made a plan. Mary is going to stay in Shanghai for about ten days. On February 5th, her first day in Shanghai, we will go to the Bund. It’s famous for its night view. On February 9th, it will be the Lantern Festival. So we will go to Yu Garden. Every year, there are quite a few lantern shows there. I hope she will like the lantern shows. During the next few days, I will show her around Shanghai. We’ll visit People’s Square and the Oriental Pearl TV Tower and do shopping on Nanjing Road. On February 14th, she will go back to New York. I’m sure she will enjoy her stay in Shanghai.
参考答案：
1～5 BCEDA 6～10 CACBB 11～15 TFFFT
16. B 不定冠词a和an表示泛指；the表示特指。由问句句意“图书馆前面的那个女孩是谁？”可知第一个空格处表示特指，应用定冠词the，排除C、D两项；答语句意为“拿着一把雨伞的那个？她是我们的班长”，所以第二个空格处应表示泛指，a用于读音以辅音音素开头的单词前，an用于读音以元音音素开头的单词前，umbrella的读音是以元音音素开头，且此处表示泛指，故用不定冠词an，选B。
17. A across意为“横穿，穿过”，表示从一边到另一边；below意为“在……的下方”，与above相对；over意为“越过”，表示跨过一段距离；through意为“穿过”，表示从内部穿过。根据句意“你游过湖时一定要小心”可知，across符合语境。故选A。
18. A 在含有if引导的条件状语从句的主从复合句中，如果主句用一般将来时，从句需用一般现在时表示将来，排除C、D两项；由生活常识知“不下雨的时候，大妈们才在广场上跳舞”，故从句应该用否定形式，选A。
19. A advice 为不可数名词，排除C、D两项；在肯定句中用some而不用any，故选A。
20. B “疑问词+不定式”作宾语，由do可知选B。
21. A 表示“街道两边”用each side of the road，若选both，则side用复数。
22. C 由后句“谁能帮我搬它？”可知包很重，故选heavy。
23. C 由上句“外面很冷”推知，应是“穿上”外套。wear表示穿着的状态；dress的宾语不能是衣物；put on表“穿”的动作，故选C。
24. B 在含有if引导的条件状语从句的主从复合句中，如果主句用一般将来时，从句需用一般现在时表示将来。从句主语是you，所以谓语动词用原形。
25. D but意为“但是”，表示转折关系；though意为“尽管”，引导让步状语从句；unless意为“除非；如果不”，引导条件状语从句；if意为“如果；是否”，引导条件状语从句或宾语从句。前句意为“将会有更少的污染”，后句意为“更多的人使用公共交通工具”，后句是前句的条件，故选D。
26. B take“拿走”；bring“带来”，特指带到说话者处；pass“传递”；carry“携带”，无方向性。结合语境知此处意为“汤姆，请记得明天把那张照片带到学校来。我想看一看。”故选B。
27. D 上句说到“这个学期我想成为班上最好的学生”，下句应该是表示祝福，故选D“祝你好运”。
28. A a trip to...“去……的旅行”。
29. B 对于别人的称赞应该表示感谢，故选B。
30. C 红色和黄色混合后为橙色，故选C。
31. C nice“美好的”；dangerous“危险的”；difficult“困难的”；easy“容易的”。由上句However, there was a language barrier(障碍) for her there.可知，她在印度有语言障碍。由此可推知，在这个新环境中，她与别人交流是困难的。
32. D that用来代替上文出现过的单数可数名词或者不可数名词，表示特指；而those用来代替复数可数名词。上句中的environment是不可数名词，意为“环境”，所以用that代替。
33. B show“展示”；visit“参观”；build“建造”；improve“提高”。由文章第一句Jenny, from Germany, spent some time traveling in India.可知，珍妮在印度旅行，因此visit符合题意。
34. A slowly“慢慢地”；early“早”；hardly“几乎不”；easily“容易地”。由上句At first, Jenny was not sure if she could have a way to communicate with them.(起初，珍妮不确定自己是否有方法与他们交流。)可知，此处句意为“她慢慢地走向这些孩子，坐在他们旁边”。
35. D look at“看”；laugh at“嘲笑”；shout at“喊叫”；smile at“朝……微笑”。由下句She felt a little relaxed and smiled back.可知，smiled at符合题意。
36. A sing“唱”；write“写”；say“说”；play“玩”。宾语是a song，因此sing符合题意。
37. C club“俱乐部”；talk“谈话”；fun“乐趣，快乐”；dance“跳舞”。由情景可知，孩子们想加入他们的歌唱中，因此fun符合题意。
38. C forget“忘记”；remember“记住”；share“分享”；miss“思念”。由上文Wanting to join in the...Then more children joined.可知，他们一起分享了许多微笑。
39. B 由上文From the other side of the hall, Leela was smiling and watching them.(大厅的另一侧，Leela正微笑着看着他们。)可知，注意到Leela看着她，珍妮有一种发自内心的兴奋的感觉。
40. A can“可以”；must“必须”；need“需要”；should“应当”。由上句句意“看，我在这里没有任何的语言障碍”可知，此处句意为“我们可以说话和交流！”。
41. C 由第二段最后一句There are Mr. and Mrs. Phairat, their son Sanan, who is 18, the daughter Chinda, who is 16, and Grandpa and Grandma.可知，在Mandy寄宿的家庭中有6口人。
42. D 由第三段第四句The cooking lesson is my favourite.可知，Mandy最喜欢的是烹饪课。故选D。
43. B 由第四段中的but Sanan and Chinda said that the next month they were taking me to Phuket Island可知，下个月Mandy要去普吉岛。
44. C 由第二段第一句Life is busy and exciting.可知，在泰国时，Mandy是兴奋的。
45. A Study trip in Thailand“泰国的学习之旅”；Food culture in Thailand “泰国的饮食文化”；Elephant riding in Thailand“在泰国骑大象”；International schools in Thailand“泰国的国际学校”。通读全文可知，本文主要讲了Mandy在泰国学习、旅游的事情，故选A。
46. B 由Everybody wants to be healthy.可知答案。
47. A 由…because fruits and vegetables are good for you.可知答案。
48. C 由Healthy food can make you grow and make you strong and happy.可知答案。
49. C 通读全文可知，这句谚语表示“每天吃一个苹果，你会很健康”。
50. C 通读全文可知，健康的食品和运动能让你保持健康。
51~55 FADCE
One possible version：
Some people like living in the cities. Some people enjoy living in the countryside. I like living in the cities. There are different kinds of shops in the cities. You can buy many things. When you go out, you can take a bus, a subway or a taxi. The schools in the cities are better than those in the countryside. Although the cities are often noisy and the living cost is high, I like living in the cities.
