安徽省亳州市2023-2024学年高二下学期第二次阶段测试英语试题（含解析，含听力原文，无音频）
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| 名称 | 安徽省亳州市2023-2024学年高二下学期第二次阶段测试英语试题（含解析，含听力原文，无音频） |  | |
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2023~2024学年下学期高二年级第二次阶段测试
英 语
考生注意：
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4.本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册~选择性必修第四册Unit 3。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man mean
A. He doesn’t have to work today.
B. He forgot to set an alarm clock.
C. He slept late last night.
2. What is the woman
A. An actress. B. A broadcaster. C. A boss.
3. When will the man have an appointment
A. At 7: 30 am. B. At 8: 30 am. C. At 9: 00 am.
4. What will the woman probably do tonight
A. See a film. B. Cook an Italian dinner. C. Meet with Maggie.
5. Why does the woman ask for a leave sometimes
A. To look after Lily. B. To find a babysitter. C. To visit her friend.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，
从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the woman say about the part of Hard Times
A. Exciting. B. Interesting. C. Confusing.
7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Friends. C. Author and reader.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What does the man think of space travel
A. It is not dangerous. B. It can be harmful. C. It makes astronauts famous.
9. What can help people learn something new according to the woman
A. Robots. B. Computers. C. Risks.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What is the purpose of the campaign
A. To raise money for animal shelters.
B. To push people to adopt animals.
C. To build a shelter for animals.
11. How much money has the man spent in helping animals
A. $20,000. B. $10,000. C. $5,000.
12. What is the woman doing
A. Advertising a website.
B. Doing an interview.
C. Making a speech.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the woman looking for
A. Mushrooms. B. Rubbish. C. Bamboo grass.
14. What do we know about the man
A. He likes drawing. B. He is an art teacher. C. He hates eating mushrooms.
15. In which aspect is bamboo grass similar to mushrooms
A. It has a single root system.
B. It is easy to get rid of.
C. It grows very slowly.
16. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In the forest. B. In the speakers’ home. C. In the classroom.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. On what occasion is the speaker making the speech
A. A welcoming party. B. A graduation ceremony. C. A memorial ceremony.
18. What was delivered to the speaker
A. A book. B. Some money. C. A letter.
19. What kind of person was Alvin James
A. Generous. B. Brave. C. Selfish.
20. What is the speaker doing in the end
A. Doing a promotion. B. Making a suggestion. C. Asking for information.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Pitch Music & Arts Festival
After its debut（问世）several years ago, Pitch Music & Arts Festival quickly became one of the most exciting and hotly anticipated events. Held at the foothills of the Grampian Plains, it aims to deliver a distinct blend of sonic soundscapes across three architecturally designed stages.
This year, the festival will be headlined by Gerd Janson, Patrick Mason, French producer I Hate Models, Italian JobJobse, and Berghain resident Marcel Dettmann. Daniel Avery will do a live set for the first time in Australia, coinciding（同时发生）with the recent 10th anniversary of his classic album Drone Logic. KiNK will also be playing a live set.
Other international artists include Chaos in the CBD, Aurora Halal（LIVE）, Bailey Ibbs, Sally C, Bambounou and many more. Pitch Music &. Arts will also highlight local pioneers, including James who will be playing with Willaris. K, Surusinghe, Bertie, Memphis LK, and many more.
For those looking for a moment of peace, the Pitch Pavilion will appear this year. This place is where festivalgoers can participate in yoga classes and sound baths. For those ready to rough it, you can bring your own tent and set it up in a free camping area.
Pitch allows you to bring up to 24 cans, or one bottle of spirits poured into a plastic bottle. There will be numerous bars on site serving cocktails, mixed drinks and a range of beers.
The tickets will be on sale from 5, May to 6, June. Want to find more information Then head to the Pitch website.
21. Who does Drone Logic belong to
A. Gerd Janson. B. Daniel Avery.
C. Job Jobse. D. KiNK.
22. What will James do during the festival
A. Deliver a lecture. B. Release an album.
C. Give a performance. D. Interview Willaris. K.
23. What is the closing date for ticket purchases
A. May 5. B. May 25.
C. June 2. D. June 6.
B
Despite his slim body of work, J. D. Salinger was one of the most influential American writers of the 20th century. His short stories, many of which appeared in The New Yorker, inspired the early careers of writers such as Phillip Roth, John Updike and Harold Brodkey.
Born on January 1, 1919, in New York, Salinger was a restless student, attending New York University, Ursinus College and Columbia University. While taking classes at the latter, he met Professor Whit Burnett, who was also the editor of Story magazine. Burnett, sensing Salinger’s talent as a writer, pushed him to create more often and soon Salinger’s works were appearing not just in Story, but in other big-name publications such as Collier’s and the Saturday Evening Post.
His career had started to take off, but then, like so many young American men around that time, World War II interrupted his life. Following the attack on Pearl Harbor, Salinger was drafted into the army, serving from 1942 to 1944. During that time, however, Salinger kept writing for a new novel whose main character was a deeply unsatisfied young man named Holden Caulfield.
When Salinger returned to New York, he quickly set about resuming his life as a writer and soon found his work published in his favorite magazine, The New Yorker.
He also pushed on with the work on his novel about Holden Caulfield. Finally, in 1951, The Catcher in the Rye was published. The book earned its share of positive reviews, but some critics weren’t so kind. But over time the American reading public ate the book up and The Catcher in the Rye became an essential part of the academic literature course. To date, the book has sold more than 65 million copies.
In 1953, two years after the publication of The Catcher in the Rye, Salinger moved from New York City to Cornish, New Hampshire. There, Salinger did his best to cut off contact with the public and significantly slowed his literary output. He only published one new story, the 25,000-word Hapworth 16, 1924, before his death on January 27, 2010, in Cornish, New Hampshire.
24. Who had a great influence on J. D. Salinger
A. Phillip Roth. B. Whit Burnett.
C. John Updike. D. Harold Brodkey.
25. What does the underlined word “resuming” in paragraph 4 mean
A. Continuing. B. Saving.
C. Wasting. D. Risking.
26. What can be learned about The Catcher in the Rye from paragraph 5
A. It was published during World War II.
B. It has sold less than 65 million copies.
C. It was well received by American readers.
D. It features an old man as the main character.
27. What do we know about J. D. Salinger
A. He stopped writing when he was in the army.
B. He wrote lots of short stories in his later years.
C. His literary output was very low in his later years.
D. He had moved to New York City just before he died.
C
More than 1 billion children, teenagers and adults live with obesity（肥胖）around the world, making it the most common form of malnutrition in many countries, according to a study published on Thursday in the journal The Lancet.
“Previous estimates by the World Obesity Federation suggested that there would be 1 billion people living with obesity by 2030, but that number was already overtaken in 2022,” Dr. Majid Ezzati, senior author of the study and professor at Imperial College London, said in a news conference on Thursday. “We hadn’t expected that the things happened so fast.”
The new global study, conducted by more than 1,500 researchers from the Non-Communicable Diseases Risk Factor Collaboration and the World Health Organization（WHO）, analyzed the height and weight measurements of over 220 million people from more than 190 countries.
The study focused on rates of underweight and obesity, both forms of malnutrition that are harmful to people’s health. Adults were regarded as obese if their body mass index（指数）（BMI）was greater than or equal to 30 and considered as underweight if their BMI was below18.5. Children and teenagers were defined as obese or underweight based on age and sex, according to the study.
“Undernutrition and obesity are two faces of the same problem, which is the lack of access to a healthy diet,” Dr. Francesco Branca, director of the WHO Department of Nutrition and Food Safety, said in the news conference. “Public policy must aim to improve monitoring of food producers and ensure fair access to healthy and nutritious food for everyone. Over 3 billion people in the world still cannot afford a healthy diet.”
France, which saw a steady level in its obesity rates in the study, has carried out a national plan called Programme National Nutrition Santé that sets objectives for nutritional policy at the industry, consumer and research levels. Countries in South America have begun carrying out front-of-package nutritional labelling that includes clear warnings about fat, sugar and salt levels. Mexico has led the way on taxation of sweetened drinks, and in Chile, processed foods cannot be marketed to children.
28. How does Ezzati feel about the number of obese people worldwide in 2022
A. Disappointed. B. Astonished.
C. Amused. D. Relieved.
29. How did the researchers conduct the new study
A. By asking questions. B. By analyzing data.
C. By making observations. D. By carrying out experiments.
30. For adults, which BMI means normal weight according to the study
A. 33. B. 30.
C. 20. D. 18.
31. What is the last paragraph mainly about
A. The good habits of teenagers in South America.
B. The differences in diet among different countries.
C. The problems of rising obesity rates faced by France.
D. The measures taken by several countries to address obesity.
D.
Information from this year’s IQAir World Air Quality Report showed only seven countries met the World Health Organization’s pollution recommendations in 2023, which were Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius and New Zealand. Of the 134 countries and regions measured, 124 had higher levels than called for in the WHO pollution guidelines.
The report said the five countries with what it called the lowest air quality had particle（颗粒物）levels at least nine times higher than what the WHO recommends. Three South Asian countries—Bangladesh, Pakistan and India—had the world’s lowest air quality. In 2022, India was eighth and Bangladesh was fifth.
The information came from the Swiss company IQAir. The report used measurements from over 30,000 stations across 134 countries. IQAir used the WHO standard of PM 2.5 to measure the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air. The PM2.5 measurement means the particles are 2.5 microns（微米）or less in diameter（直径）. The diameter of human hair, for example, is about 30 times larger than a particle of 2. 5 microns.
In Bangladesh, the concentration of PM2.5 particles reached 79.9 micrograms per cubic meter in 2023. In Pakistan, the number was 73.7. India’s level was 54.4, Tajikistan in Central Asia was 49 and Burkina Faso in West Africa was the fifth-most polluted nation at 46.6.
Firoz Khan, an air pollution expert at North South University in Dhaka, Bangladesh, said 20 percent of the early deaths in the country were caused by air pollution. He added spending on pollution-related healthcare was equal to four to five percent of the nation’s economy.
Christi Chester Schroeder oversees air quality science for IQair. She said South Asia’s geography and climate conditions influence its air quality. “The pollution has nowhere to go,” she added. “Because of agricultural practices, industry and population density, it really does look like it is going to get worse before it gets better.”
32. What can be inferred from the text
A. Bangladesh’s air quality may have decreased in 2023.
B. India’s air quality was greatly improved in 2022.
C. Mauritius had the fifth-worst air quality in the world in 2022.
D. Pakistan’s air quality was the third-worst in the world in 2023.
33. Why does the author mention “human hair” in paragraph.3
A. To demonstrate how to use hair products.
B. To offer suggestions to people with hair problems.
C. To emphasize the difficulty of measuring pollutant particles.
D. To explain the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air.
34. Which statement will Christi Chester Schroeder probably agree with
A. Developing agriculture will help improve air quality.
B. Geographical conditions have little influence on air quality.
C. The future of air quality in South Asia does not look bright.
D. South Asian countries should try to increase their populations.
35. What is the text mainly about
A. A report on global air pollution. B. Plans to fight against air pollution.
C. The harm of air pollution to humans. D. Advice on cutting air pollution.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Writing a poem is about observing the world within or around you. 36 , from love to loss to the gate at the old farm. Writing poetry seems difficult. However, with the right approach, you can write a poem that you can be proud to share with others.
Pick a specific theme or idea. This can make it easier for you to narrow down what images and descriptions you are going to use in your poem. For example, you may decide to write a poem around the theme of love and friendship. 37 .
Avoid cliche（陈词滥调）. Your poetry will be much stronger if you avoid cliches, which are phrases that have become so familiar that they have lost their meaning. 38 . By doing so, your reader is surprised and attracted by your writing. If you feel a certain phrase or image is too familiar to your reader, replace it with a more unique one.
39 . Poetry is made to be read out loud. So you should write your poem with a focus on how it sounds on the page. Pay attention to the structure of your poem and your word choice. Notice how each line of your poem flows into one another and how placing one word next to another creates a certain sound.
Get feedback（反馈）from others. You can also share your poem with other poets to get feedback from them and improve your poem. 40 , where you discuss your poems with other poets and work on your poetry together. Or you may take a poetry writing class, where you work with an instructor and other poets to improve your writing.
A. Write for the ear
B. Do writing exercises
C. A poem can be about anything
D. You may join a poetry writing group
E. Go for creative descriptions and images in your poem
F. Strong emotional moments make for beautiful and interesting poems
G. Then you may think about the moments where you experienced them
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
He Cuiying lives on a mountain peak in Yunnan province, at an altitude of 3,000 meters. Every morning, the 91-year-old woman is 41 by floating fog, which creates a fairy-tale landscape.
Four years ago, He Cuiying opened a homestay（民宿）in her yard with the help of her granddaughter, He Qingmei. Ever since, she has 42 her stories, the beautiful scenery and the 43 culture of her village with visitors from across China and other parts of the world.
He Cuiying is a member of the Naxi ethnic group, while her husband is from the Tibetan ethnic group and he is a 44 in Tibetan Buddhism. In Qibie village, He Cuiying’s home, eight ethnic minorities live 45 in the same village, where local people 46 102 homestays.
The villagers say they have turned “houses into homestays and people into 47 ”. They speak the Naxi language, 48 Tibetan customs and warmly welcome tourists from all over the world. In just eight years, they have developed a 49 multiethnic（多民族的）homestay village, becoming a key demonstration project for cultural 50 in Yunnan.
He Cuiying loves 51 . Whenever guests visit her home, she sings songs and offers blessings continuously. Her favorite song is Chairman Mao Is Like the Sun. She remembers how the remote village was liberated and 52 poverty under the leadership of the Communist Party of China, so she has a sincere 53 for ‘Beijing as the capital city.
Now, as He Cuiying gets older, He Qingmei and her cousins are gradually 54 the homestay. They hope to share the beautiful scenery and stories of Grandma’s home with more people through the 55 of guests from all over the world.
41. A. interrupted B. greeted C. called D. proved
42. A. compared B. exchanged C. combined D. shared
43. A. unique B. corporate C. fashionable D. royal
44. A. dreamer B. liar C. believer D. villager
45. A. desperately B. peacefully C. precisely D. originally
46. A. rent B. examine C. exhibit D. operate
47. A. travelers B. performers C. passengers D. strangers
48. A. follow B. learn C. join D. leave
49. A. realistic B. free C. united D. true
50. A. business B. tourism C. industry D. agriculture
51. A. writing B. dancing C. drawing D. singing
52. A. escaped B. faced C. covered D. brought
53. A. apology B. hope C. desire D. admiration
54. A. paying for B. giving back C. taking over D. talking about
55. A. visits B. surveys C. directions D. risks
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Last Sunday was the official birthday of the world’s oldest land animal. Jonathan, a Seychelles giant tortoise（陆龟）living on the island of Saint Helena, turned 190 years old. The event 56 （celebrate）with a big party, which included a special “salad cake”.
Nobody knows for sure how old Jonathan is. But in 1882, he was brought 57 a gift to Sir William Grey-Wilson, 58 lived in Saint Helena. Pictures 59 （take）around that time show that Jonathan was already full-grown.
Since it takes about 50 years for Seychelles giant tortoises 60 （become）adults, animal experts say Jonathan must have been born around 1832. That’s earned him the Guinness World Record for the world’s oldest land animal. Joe Hollins, the veterinarian（兽医）who looks after Jonathan, says Jonathan is probably 61 （old）than 190, but there’s no way to know.
Mr. Hollin s says the tortoise is 62 （general）pretty happy as long as he can sleep and eat. He
likes to warm 63 （he）by sleeping in the sun.
Though Jonathan is still very active（for a tortoise）, he does have some health problems. He’s blind, 64 he can no longer smell things, so he needs to be fed by hand. But he’s got a good appetite. His sense of hearing is also still strong. He 65 （recognize）Mr. Hollins’s voice, and responds to it.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
你校将于下周六组织一次“科技进校园”活动。请你用英语为学生会写一则通知，内容包括：
1.活动时间、地点；
2.活动内容；
3.欢迎前往参加。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Notice
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The Student Union
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
During winter, Leo noticed that of all the houses on the block, there was one with a messy, dirty yard that looked unattended. One day, after all the snow had melted and the trees were starting to bloom（开花）just in time for spring, Leo couldn’t help but stare at his neighbor’s messy yard a little longer. The melted snow showed all the buried leaves and other trash.
He went back home and brought the tools he needed. It took Leo the entire afternoon to clear the yard. He moved the melting snow out of the pathway and swept the leaves from the ground. He also trimmed（修剪）the bushes and left them as neat as he could.
The following morning, the old woman, Abigail, opened her door with joy. She had quietly watched the young man clean up the yard the day before, much to her relief.
Abigail had not left her house in months. She relied totally on her caregiver for her basic needs and was eager to get fresh air. After sitting in her wheelchair in her front yard for a couple of minutes, her neighbors started to notice her. They walked toward her to say hi, and soon, the crowd grew.
“It’s so lovely to see you outdoors, Abigail! How have you been ” one of them asked.
“I’m so happy to be breathing some fresh air for a change. I couldn’t leave the house for months because of the snow. It was too deep, and I couldn’t afford to hi re someone to help me with it,” Abigail admitted.
“But yesterday, I saw a kind young man cleaning my yard the entire afternoon. I wanted to thank him, but I had no food to offer him because my caregiver had not arrived yet,” she shared. “He is such a blessing. I couldn’t believe my eyes when I saw him!”
When Abigail praised the “kind young man” who helped her, they immediately knew it was Leo. The neighbors looked at each other, with guilty all over their faces. They realized they had been so blind to Abigail’s problems that no one thought to help her by cleaning her yard.
注意：1.续写词数应为 150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
They decided to thank Leo by visiting his house. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
When he opened his front door, Leo was surprised to see his neighbors bearing gifts. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
涡阳三中2023-2024学年下学期高二年级第二次阶段测试
英语 参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力部分录音稿
（Text 1）
W: It’s 7: 30 am. Why haven’t you got up Don’t you have to work today
M: What Oh my God, I didn’t hear the alarm. I was on the phone until 11: 00 pm yesterday.
（Text 2）
W: I haven’t seen you before. Do you work in this company’s broadcasting department
M: I’m just visiting. I’m actually meeting the boss to see if my company can conduct business with yours. You’re an actor
W: I sure am. I hope to see you around.
（Text 3）
W: We have a flight that will get you to Washington at 9: 00 am. Is that OK
M: Do you have anything earlier I have an appointment at 8: 30. I’ve got to be there at least an hour ahead of time.（Text 4）
M: Hey, Jennifer. You decided about going to the movies with me tonight, right
W: Yes, I did, but I don’t think I can go. My sister Maggie is coming to stay with me today, and we want to try dinner at the new Italian restaurant downtown.
（Text 5）
W: I wish I had more time to spend with Lily. She has to go to a babysitter every morning.
M: It’s tough when you work so much.
W: Well, sometimes I have to ask my boss for a leave to look after her.
（Text 6）
W: I can’t stand it!
M: What’s wrong Did you fail the history test again
W: No, not that. We’re reading a part of Hard Times in English literature class. I can’t understand any of it. There are so many people in the story, and I can’t remember who is who!
M: That’s one of Charles Dickens’ greatest stories! It reflects English society of the era. I can’t believe the teacher is only making you read one small part. You won’t be confused if you read the whole book. I can lend you my copy.
W: Thanks, but how can I find the time to read the whole book
M: The story is quite exciting, and you will read quickly unconsciously. Just try it. Then you will remember everything about it.
W: OK. Thanks for your advice.
（Text 7）
W: Space travel is always dangerous; that is why the taikonaut, I mean, Chinese astronauts are national heroes.
M: Yes, but humans aren’t built to live in space and being there can bring serious health risks.
W: Well, what are the alternatives
M: Instead of sending people, we can send robots equipped with cameras and other tools to do observations for us. What do you think
W: I believe robots and computers can never replace human experience. Exploration is about taking risks. Without risks, we cannot learn something new.
（Text 8）
W: So why did you decide to start a GoFundMe campaign
M: Well, last year many animal shelters came to me, asking me to help their animals because I had found a good way to encourage people to adopt animals from an animal shelter. And many people had told my story on the Internet. So I decided to help more animals by starting the campaign to collect money for the shelters.
W: So how much money has your campaign raised
M: $10,000. And I’ve already spent half of the money in helping animals.
W: How can people learn more about your work
M: They can visit my Facebook, Instagram, or website.
W: Well, thank you for sparing some time for my newspaper. I cannot wait to share your story with our readers.（Text 9）
M: What are you looking for all over the ground Are you looking for rubbish to pick up
W: I’m looking for some of our local mushrooms. I saw pictures recently of some really cool-looking ones. They grow on the ground or on some trees.
M: You’re not going to try and cook them, are you
W: No. I think they would be a good subject for me to practice my ink drawing. I needed a subject for my next art school project.
M: That makes sense. There are probably a lot of them out during this time of year. I’ve never liked to eat mushrooms, though. My mother loves them. When I lived at home, she would always make mushroom soup.
W: I love mushrooms. They’re so interesting. I learned that the mushrooms we see are often one single creature that is all connected underground. Not only that, but they are very good nutrition for the areas that they grow in.
M: That’s interesting. I think bamboo grass is very similar in the way that it grows. Most bamboo is all connected by a single root system. This makes it very hard to get rid of if you want to plant something else.
W: I didn’t know that, but it makes sense. I know bamboo can grow very fast. I think here in New Jersey, you need to get a permit in order to plant bamboo. It’s probably because of how difficult it is to control.
（Text 10）
W: Today marks the end of an era. I always remember when I first came to this university. My family was poor when I applied, and the only possible way for me to attend university was through a scholarship. Unfortunately, the person who funded my scholarship is not here today to see my graduation. His name is Alvin James, and I only sadly found out that he had passed away last year. He had left a letter to be delivered to me when I graduate, and I want to read part of it to all of you. “Education is priceless, and should not depend upon your background, race or nationality.” I have been inspired by Alvin’s words and life. He was a generous man who gave his fortune away to charities and people who he believed could make a difference. So the final year of my studies, I have been working with the university to create a new scholarship in his name. Every year, 10 students from poor backgrounds are able to attend university. It will be funded by other former students. I hope that everyone graduating here will sign up to help fund someone else’s education. Thank you.
参考答案
1~5 CABCA 6~10 CBBCA11~15 CBACA 16~20ABCAB
21. B 细节理解题。根据第二段“Daniel Avery will do a live set for the first time in Australia, coinciding（同时发生）with the recent 10th anniversary of his classic album Drone Logic.”可知，Daniel Avery 创作了专辑Drone Logic。
22. C 细节理解题。根据第三段“Pitch Music & Arts will also highlight local pioneers, including James who will be playing with Willaris. K…”可知，James 将在音乐节上表演节目。
23. D细节理解题。根据最后一段“The tickets will be on sale from 5, May to 6, June.”可知，购票的截止日期是 6月6日。
24. B 推理判断题。根据第二段“…he met Professor Whit Burnett, who was also the editor of Story magazine. Burnett, sensing Salinger’s talent as a writer, pushed him…”可知，惠特·伯内特对杰罗姆·大卫·塞林格的影响很大。
25. A词义猜测题。根据第二段“…soon Salinger’s works were appearing not just in Story, but in other big-name publications such as Collier’s and the Saturday Evening Post.”、第三段“… Salinger kept writing for a new novel whose main character was a deeply unsatisfied young man named Holden Caulfield.”及画线词后“his life as a writer…”可推断，画线词的意思和Continuing 最接近。
26. C 细节理解题。根据第五段“The book earned its share of positive reviews…But over time the American reading public ate the book up and The Catcher in the Rye became an essential part of the academic literature course. To date, the more than 65 million copies.”可知,—book has sold more than 65 million copies.”可知，《麦田里的守望者》深受美国读者的喜爱。
27. C 细节理解题。根据最后一段“In 1953… Salinger moved from New York City to Cornish, New Hampshire. There, Salinger did his best to cut off contact with the public and significantly slowed his literary output.”可知，杰罗姆·大卫·塞林格晚年的文学作品很少。
28. B细节理解题。根据第二段“‘…there would be 1billion people living with obesity by 2030, but that number was already overtaken in 2022,’Dr. Maji d Ezzati…’We hadn’t expected that the things happened so fast.””可知，Ezzati 对于2022 年全球肥胖人口的数量感到震惊。
29. B 细节理解题。根据第三段“The new global study… analyzed the height and weight measurements of over 220 million people from more than 190 countries.”可知，研究者是通过分析数据进行研究的。
30. C 推理判断题。根据第四段“Adults were regarded as obese if their body mass index（指数）（BMI）was greater than or equal to 30 and considered as underweight if their BMI was below 18.5.”可推断，对于成年人来说，身体质量指数为20，属于正常体重。
31. D 段落大意题。通读最后一段，尤其是“France, which saw a steady level in its obesity rates in the study, has carried out… Countries in South America have begun carrying out front-of -package nutritional labelling that includes clear warnings about fat, sugar and salt levels. Mexico…”可知，本段主要介绍了一些国家为解决肥胖问题所采取的措施。
32. A 细节理解题。根据第二段“Three South Asian countries—Bangladesh, Pakistan and India—had the world’s lowest air quality. In 2022, India was eighth and Bangladesh was fifth.”可知，孟加拉国的空气质量可能在2023年有所下降。
33. D 推理判断题。根据第三段“IQAir used the WHO standard of PM2.5 to measure the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air… The diameter of human hair, for example, is about 30 times larger than a particle of 2.5 microns.”可推断，作者提及“人类的头发”是为了解释空气中可吸入污染物颗粒的大小。
34. C 推理判断题。根据最后一段“Christi Chester Schroeder oversees air quality science for IQair… ‘… it really does look like it is going to get worse before it gets better.’”可推断，Christi Chester Schroeder 认为南亚国家的空气质量前景不容乐观。
35. A 主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第一段“Information from this year’s IQAir World AirQuality Report showed only seven countries met the World Health Organization’s pollution recommendations in 2023. ..”及第二段“The report said the five countries with what it called the lowest air quality had particle（颗粒物）levels at least nine times higher than what the WHO recommends.”可知，本文主要介绍了一份关于全球空气污染的报告。
36. C 根据空前“Writing a poem is about observing the world with in or around you.”及空后“from love to loss to the gate at the old farm.”可知，C项“一首诗可以是关于任何事情的”符合。
37. G 根据空前“For example, you may decide to write a poem around the theme of love and friendship.”可知，G项“然后你可能会想起你经历过的那些时刻”符合。
38. E 根据空前“Your poetry will be much stronger if you avoid cliches, which are phrases that have become so familiar that they have lost their meaning.”及空后“By doing so, your reader is surprised and attracted by your writing.”可知，E项“在你的诗中使用创造性的描述和形象”符合。
39. A 根据空后“Poetry is made to be read out loud. So you should write your poem with a focus on how it sounds on the page.”可知，A项“写的诗歌要悦耳”适合作本段的主题句。
40. D 根据空前“You can also share your poem with other poets to get feedback from them and improve your poem.”及空后“where you discuss your poems with other poets and work on your poetry together.”可知，D项“你可以加入一个诗歌写作小组”符合。
41. B 每日清晨，何翠英都会看到天空中雾气弥漫。此处用到了拟人的写作手法，可以理解为“被晨雾问候（greeted）”。
42. D 从那时起，她就与来自中国和世界各地的游客分享（shared）她的故事、美丽的风景和她的村庄独特的（unique）文化。
43. A 见上题解析。
44. C 何翠英是纳西族人，她的丈夫是藏族，一位藏传佛教信徒（believer）。
45. B 在何翠英所在的启别村有八个少数民族的人和平（peacefully）相处。
46. D 这个村的村民经营着（operate）120家民宿。
47. B 村民们说，他们已经把“房子变成了民宿，人变成了表演者（performers）”。
48. A 村民们说着纳西族语言，却遵循着（follow）藏族的文化，非常有特色。
49. C 在短短8年的时间里，他们开发了一个团结的（united）多民族民宿村，成为云南文化旅游（tourism）的重点示范项目。
50. B 见上题解析。
51. D 何翠英喜欢唱歌（singing）。
52. A 她记得在中国共产党的领导下，这个偏远的村庄是如何解放和摆脱（escaped）贫困的，所以她对北京这个首都城市有一种诚挚的钦佩（admiration）之情。
53. D 见上题解析。
54. C 现在，随着何翠英年龄的增长，何清梅和她的表亲们逐渐接管了（taking over）民宿。
55. A 他们希望通过来自世界各地的客人的来访（visits）与更多的人分享奶奶家乡的美丽风景和故事。
56. was celebrated 57. as 58. who 59. taken 60. to become
61. older 62. generally 63. himself 64. and 65. recognizes/recognises
第一节
One possible version:
Notice
In order to allow students to experience the charm of science and technology up close, our school will organize a “Science and Technology into the Campus” event in the school hall at 8: 00 am next Saturday morning.
In this activity, scientists will be invited to showcase amazing performances through various scientific devices. For example, you will see bowling balls floating in the air. A drone show will also be displayed on the spot.
I’m sure the activity will be of great benefit to you. Be sure to come on time!
The Student Union
第二节
One possible version:
They decided to thank Leo by visiting his house. One neighbor offered to push Abigail’s wheelchair on the sidewalk. When they arrived, Leo was still asleep. He was awakened by a choir of voices calling out his name from outside. Leo was frightened, thinking he might have done something wrong. He tried to recall whether or not he had done something to anger his neighbors, but he could not remember anything.
When he opened his front door, Leo was surprised to see his neighbors bearing gifts. They handed him pastries, fruits and a huge pie. “We’re here to thank you, dear. Thank you for helping me clean my yard.” Abigail said, reaching out to touch Leo’s hand. Other neighbors chimed in, thanking him for reminding them what it meant to be a good neighbor. “You helped Abigail out when non e of us did. Thank you for reminding us to be mindful of what other people are going through so we can help where we can,” one of them told Leo.
英 语
考生注意：
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4.本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册~选择性必修第四册Unit 3。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man mean
A. He doesn’t have to work today.
B. He forgot to set an alarm clock.
C. He slept late last night.
2. What is the woman
A. An actress. B. A broadcaster. C. A boss.
3. When will the man have an appointment
A. At 7: 30 am. B. At 8: 30 am. C. At 9: 00 am.
4. What will the woman probably do tonight
A. See a film. B. Cook an Italian dinner. C. Meet with Maggie.
5. Why does the woman ask for a leave sometimes
A. To look after Lily. B. To find a babysitter. C. To visit her friend.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，
从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the woman say about the part of Hard Times
A. Exciting. B. Interesting. C. Confusing.
7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Friends. C. Author and reader.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What does the man think of space travel
A. It is not dangerous. B. It can be harmful. C. It makes astronauts famous.
9. What can help people learn something new according to the woman
A. Robots. B. Computers. C. Risks.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What is the purpose of the campaign
A. To raise money for animal shelters.
B. To push people to adopt animals.
C. To build a shelter for animals.
11. How much money has the man spent in helping animals
A. $20,000. B. $10,000. C. $5,000.
12. What is the woman doing
A. Advertising a website.
B. Doing an interview.
C. Making a speech.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the woman looking for
A. Mushrooms. B. Rubbish. C. Bamboo grass.
14. What do we know about the man
A. He likes drawing. B. He is an art teacher. C. He hates eating mushrooms.
15. In which aspect is bamboo grass similar to mushrooms
A. It has a single root system.
B. It is easy to get rid of.
C. It grows very slowly.
16. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In the forest. B. In the speakers’ home. C. In the classroom.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. On what occasion is the speaker making the speech
A. A welcoming party. B. A graduation ceremony. C. A memorial ceremony.
18. What was delivered to the speaker
A. A book. B. Some money. C. A letter.
19. What kind of person was Alvin James
A. Generous. B. Brave. C. Selfish.
20. What is the speaker doing in the end
A. Doing a promotion. B. Making a suggestion. C. Asking for information.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Pitch Music & Arts Festival
After its debut（问世）several years ago, Pitch Music & Arts Festival quickly became one of the most exciting and hotly anticipated events. Held at the foothills of the Grampian Plains, it aims to deliver a distinct blend of sonic soundscapes across three architecturally designed stages.
This year, the festival will be headlined by Gerd Janson, Patrick Mason, French producer I Hate Models, Italian JobJobse, and Berghain resident Marcel Dettmann. Daniel Avery will do a live set for the first time in Australia, coinciding（同时发生）with the recent 10th anniversary of his classic album Drone Logic. KiNK will also be playing a live set.
Other international artists include Chaos in the CBD, Aurora Halal（LIVE）, Bailey Ibbs, Sally C, Bambounou and many more. Pitch Music &. Arts will also highlight local pioneers, including James who will be playing with Willaris. K, Surusinghe, Bertie, Memphis LK, and many more.
For those looking for a moment of peace, the Pitch Pavilion will appear this year. This place is where festivalgoers can participate in yoga classes and sound baths. For those ready to rough it, you can bring your own tent and set it up in a free camping area.
Pitch allows you to bring up to 24 cans, or one bottle of spirits poured into a plastic bottle. There will be numerous bars on site serving cocktails, mixed drinks and a range of beers.
The tickets will be on sale from 5, May to 6, June. Want to find more information Then head to the Pitch website.
21. Who does Drone Logic belong to
A. Gerd Janson. B. Daniel Avery.
C. Job Jobse. D. KiNK.
22. What will James do during the festival
A. Deliver a lecture. B. Release an album.
C. Give a performance. D. Interview Willaris. K.
23. What is the closing date for ticket purchases
A. May 5. B. May 25.
C. June 2. D. June 6.
B
Despite his slim body of work, J. D. Salinger was one of the most influential American writers of the 20th century. His short stories, many of which appeared in The New Yorker, inspired the early careers of writers such as Phillip Roth, John Updike and Harold Brodkey.
Born on January 1, 1919, in New York, Salinger was a restless student, attending New York University, Ursinus College and Columbia University. While taking classes at the latter, he met Professor Whit Burnett, who was also the editor of Story magazine. Burnett, sensing Salinger’s talent as a writer, pushed him to create more often and soon Salinger’s works were appearing not just in Story, but in other big-name publications such as Collier’s and the Saturday Evening Post.
His career had started to take off, but then, like so many young American men around that time, World War II interrupted his life. Following the attack on Pearl Harbor, Salinger was drafted into the army, serving from 1942 to 1944. During that time, however, Salinger kept writing for a new novel whose main character was a deeply unsatisfied young man named Holden Caulfield.
When Salinger returned to New York, he quickly set about resuming his life as a writer and soon found his work published in his favorite magazine, The New Yorker.
He also pushed on with the work on his novel about Holden Caulfield. Finally, in 1951, The Catcher in the Rye was published. The book earned its share of positive reviews, but some critics weren’t so kind. But over time the American reading public ate the book up and The Catcher in the Rye became an essential part of the academic literature course. To date, the book has sold more than 65 million copies.
In 1953, two years after the publication of The Catcher in the Rye, Salinger moved from New York City to Cornish, New Hampshire. There, Salinger did his best to cut off contact with the public and significantly slowed his literary output. He only published one new story, the 25,000-word Hapworth 16, 1924, before his death on January 27, 2010, in Cornish, New Hampshire.
24. Who had a great influence on J. D. Salinger
A. Phillip Roth. B. Whit Burnett.
C. John Updike. D. Harold Brodkey.
25. What does the underlined word “resuming” in paragraph 4 mean
A. Continuing. B. Saving.
C. Wasting. D. Risking.
26. What can be learned about The Catcher in the Rye from paragraph 5
A. It was published during World War II.
B. It has sold less than 65 million copies.
C. It was well received by American readers.
D. It features an old man as the main character.
27. What do we know about J. D. Salinger
A. He stopped writing when he was in the army.
B. He wrote lots of short stories in his later years.
C. His literary output was very low in his later years.
D. He had moved to New York City just before he died.
C
More than 1 billion children, teenagers and adults live with obesity（肥胖）around the world, making it the most common form of malnutrition in many countries, according to a study published on Thursday in the journal The Lancet.
“Previous estimates by the World Obesity Federation suggested that there would be 1 billion people living with obesity by 2030, but that number was already overtaken in 2022,” Dr. Majid Ezzati, senior author of the study and professor at Imperial College London, said in a news conference on Thursday. “We hadn’t expected that the things happened so fast.”
The new global study, conducted by more than 1,500 researchers from the Non-Communicable Diseases Risk Factor Collaboration and the World Health Organization（WHO）, analyzed the height and weight measurements of over 220 million people from more than 190 countries.
The study focused on rates of underweight and obesity, both forms of malnutrition that are harmful to people’s health. Adults were regarded as obese if their body mass index（指数）（BMI）was greater than or equal to 30 and considered as underweight if their BMI was below18.5. Children and teenagers were defined as obese or underweight based on age and sex, according to the study.
“Undernutrition and obesity are two faces of the same problem, which is the lack of access to a healthy diet,” Dr. Francesco Branca, director of the WHO Department of Nutrition and Food Safety, said in the news conference. “Public policy must aim to improve monitoring of food producers and ensure fair access to healthy and nutritious food for everyone. Over 3 billion people in the world still cannot afford a healthy diet.”
France, which saw a steady level in its obesity rates in the study, has carried out a national plan called Programme National Nutrition Santé that sets objectives for nutritional policy at the industry, consumer and research levels. Countries in South America have begun carrying out front-of-package nutritional labelling that includes clear warnings about fat, sugar and salt levels. Mexico has led the way on taxation of sweetened drinks, and in Chile, processed foods cannot be marketed to children.
28. How does Ezzati feel about the number of obese people worldwide in 2022
A. Disappointed. B. Astonished.
C. Amused. D. Relieved.
29. How did the researchers conduct the new study
A. By asking questions. B. By analyzing data.
C. By making observations. D. By carrying out experiments.
30. For adults, which BMI means normal weight according to the study
A. 33. B. 30.
C. 20. D. 18.
31. What is the last paragraph mainly about
A. The good habits of teenagers in South America.
B. The differences in diet among different countries.
C. The problems of rising obesity rates faced by France.
D. The measures taken by several countries to address obesity.
D.
Information from this year’s IQAir World Air Quality Report showed only seven countries met the World Health Organization’s pollution recommendations in 2023, which were Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius and New Zealand. Of the 134 countries and regions measured, 124 had higher levels than called for in the WHO pollution guidelines.
The report said the five countries with what it called the lowest air quality had particle（颗粒物）levels at least nine times higher than what the WHO recommends. Three South Asian countries—Bangladesh, Pakistan and India—had the world’s lowest air quality. In 2022, India was eighth and Bangladesh was fifth.
The information came from the Swiss company IQAir. The report used measurements from over 30,000 stations across 134 countries. IQAir used the WHO standard of PM 2.5 to measure the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air. The PM2.5 measurement means the particles are 2.5 microns（微米）or less in diameter（直径）. The diameter of human hair, for example, is about 30 times larger than a particle of 2. 5 microns.
In Bangladesh, the concentration of PM2.5 particles reached 79.9 micrograms per cubic meter in 2023. In Pakistan, the number was 73.7. India’s level was 54.4, Tajikistan in Central Asia was 49 and Burkina Faso in West Africa was the fifth-most polluted nation at 46.6.
Firoz Khan, an air pollution expert at North South University in Dhaka, Bangladesh, said 20 percent of the early deaths in the country were caused by air pollution. He added spending on pollution-related healthcare was equal to four to five percent of the nation’s economy.
Christi Chester Schroeder oversees air quality science for IQair. She said South Asia’s geography and climate conditions influence its air quality. “The pollution has nowhere to go,” she added. “Because of agricultural practices, industry and population density, it really does look like it is going to get worse before it gets better.”
32. What can be inferred from the text
A. Bangladesh’s air quality may have decreased in 2023.
B. India’s air quality was greatly improved in 2022.
C. Mauritius had the fifth-worst air quality in the world in 2022.
D. Pakistan’s air quality was the third-worst in the world in 2023.
33. Why does the author mention “human hair” in paragraph.3
A. To demonstrate how to use hair products.
B. To offer suggestions to people with hair problems.
C. To emphasize the difficulty of measuring pollutant particles.
D. To explain the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air.
34. Which statement will Christi Chester Schroeder probably agree with
A. Developing agriculture will help improve air quality.
B. Geographical conditions have little influence on air quality.
C. The future of air quality in South Asia does not look bright.
D. South Asian countries should try to increase their populations.
35. What is the text mainly about
A. A report on global air pollution. B. Plans to fight against air pollution.
C. The harm of air pollution to humans. D. Advice on cutting air pollution.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Writing a poem is about observing the world within or around you. 36 , from love to loss to the gate at the old farm. Writing poetry seems difficult. However, with the right approach, you can write a poem that you can be proud to share with others.
Pick a specific theme or idea. This can make it easier for you to narrow down what images and descriptions you are going to use in your poem. For example, you may decide to write a poem around the theme of love and friendship. 37 .
Avoid cliche（陈词滥调）. Your poetry will be much stronger if you avoid cliches, which are phrases that have become so familiar that they have lost their meaning. 38 . By doing so, your reader is surprised and attracted by your writing. If you feel a certain phrase or image is too familiar to your reader, replace it with a more unique one.
39 . Poetry is made to be read out loud. So you should write your poem with a focus on how it sounds on the page. Pay attention to the structure of your poem and your word choice. Notice how each line of your poem flows into one another and how placing one word next to another creates a certain sound.
Get feedback（反馈）from others. You can also share your poem with other poets to get feedback from them and improve your poem. 40 , where you discuss your poems with other poets and work on your poetry together. Or you may take a poetry writing class, where you work with an instructor and other poets to improve your writing.
A. Write for the ear
B. Do writing exercises
C. A poem can be about anything
D. You may join a poetry writing group
E. Go for creative descriptions and images in your poem
F. Strong emotional moments make for beautiful and interesting poems
G. Then you may think about the moments where you experienced them
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
He Cuiying lives on a mountain peak in Yunnan province, at an altitude of 3,000 meters. Every morning, the 91-year-old woman is 41 by floating fog, which creates a fairy-tale landscape.
Four years ago, He Cuiying opened a homestay（民宿）in her yard with the help of her granddaughter, He Qingmei. Ever since, she has 42 her stories, the beautiful scenery and the 43 culture of her village with visitors from across China and other parts of the world.
He Cuiying is a member of the Naxi ethnic group, while her husband is from the Tibetan ethnic group and he is a 44 in Tibetan Buddhism. In Qibie village, He Cuiying’s home, eight ethnic minorities live 45 in the same village, where local people 46 102 homestays.
The villagers say they have turned “houses into homestays and people into 47 ”. They speak the Naxi language, 48 Tibetan customs and warmly welcome tourists from all over the world. In just eight years, they have developed a 49 multiethnic（多民族的）homestay village, becoming a key demonstration project for cultural 50 in Yunnan.
He Cuiying loves 51 . Whenever guests visit her home, she sings songs and offers blessings continuously. Her favorite song is Chairman Mao Is Like the Sun. She remembers how the remote village was liberated and 52 poverty under the leadership of the Communist Party of China, so she has a sincere 53 for ‘Beijing as the capital city.
Now, as He Cuiying gets older, He Qingmei and her cousins are gradually 54 the homestay. They hope to share the beautiful scenery and stories of Grandma’s home with more people through the 55 of guests from all over the world.
41. A. interrupted B. greeted C. called D. proved
42. A. compared B. exchanged C. combined D. shared
43. A. unique B. corporate C. fashionable D. royal
44. A. dreamer B. liar C. believer D. villager
45. A. desperately B. peacefully C. precisely D. originally
46. A. rent B. examine C. exhibit D. operate
47. A. travelers B. performers C. passengers D. strangers
48. A. follow B. learn C. join D. leave
49. A. realistic B. free C. united D. true
50. A. business B. tourism C. industry D. agriculture
51. A. writing B. dancing C. drawing D. singing
52. A. escaped B. faced C. covered D. brought
53. A. apology B. hope C. desire D. admiration
54. A. paying for B. giving back C. taking over D. talking about
55. A. visits B. surveys C. directions D. risks
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Last Sunday was the official birthday of the world’s oldest land animal. Jonathan, a Seychelles giant tortoise（陆龟）living on the island of Saint Helena, turned 190 years old. The event 56 （celebrate）with a big party, which included a special “salad cake”.
Nobody knows for sure how old Jonathan is. But in 1882, he was brought 57 a gift to Sir William Grey-Wilson, 58 lived in Saint Helena. Pictures 59 （take）around that time show that Jonathan was already full-grown.
Since it takes about 50 years for Seychelles giant tortoises 60 （become）adults, animal experts say Jonathan must have been born around 1832. That’s earned him the Guinness World Record for the world’s oldest land animal. Joe Hollins, the veterinarian（兽医）who looks after Jonathan, says Jonathan is probably 61 （old）than 190, but there’s no way to know.
Mr. Hollin s says the tortoise is 62 （general）pretty happy as long as he can sleep and eat. He
likes to warm 63 （he）by sleeping in the sun.
Though Jonathan is still very active（for a tortoise）, he does have some health problems. He’s blind, 64 he can no longer smell things, so he needs to be fed by hand. But he’s got a good appetite. His sense of hearing is also still strong. He 65 （recognize）Mr. Hollins’s voice, and responds to it.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
你校将于下周六组织一次“科技进校园”活动。请你用英语为学生会写一则通知，内容包括：
1.活动时间、地点；
2.活动内容；
3.欢迎前往参加。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Notice
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The Student Union
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
During winter, Leo noticed that of all the houses on the block, there was one with a messy, dirty yard that looked unattended. One day, after all the snow had melted and the trees were starting to bloom（开花）just in time for spring, Leo couldn’t help but stare at his neighbor’s messy yard a little longer. The melted snow showed all the buried leaves and other trash.
He went back home and brought the tools he needed. It took Leo the entire afternoon to clear the yard. He moved the melting snow out of the pathway and swept the leaves from the ground. He also trimmed（修剪）the bushes and left them as neat as he could.
The following morning, the old woman, Abigail, opened her door with joy. She had quietly watched the young man clean up the yard the day before, much to her relief.
Abigail had not left her house in months. She relied totally on her caregiver for her basic needs and was eager to get fresh air. After sitting in her wheelchair in her front yard for a couple of minutes, her neighbors started to notice her. They walked toward her to say hi, and soon, the crowd grew.
“It’s so lovely to see you outdoors, Abigail! How have you been ” one of them asked.
“I’m so happy to be breathing some fresh air for a change. I couldn’t leave the house for months because of the snow. It was too deep, and I couldn’t afford to hi re someone to help me with it,” Abigail admitted.
“But yesterday, I saw a kind young man cleaning my yard the entire afternoon. I wanted to thank him, but I had no food to offer him because my caregiver had not arrived yet,” she shared. “He is such a blessing. I couldn’t believe my eyes when I saw him!”
When Abigail praised the “kind young man” who helped her, they immediately knew it was Leo. The neighbors looked at each other, with guilty all over their faces. They realized they had been so blind to Abigail’s problems that no one thought to help her by cleaning her yard.
注意：1.续写词数应为 150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
They decided to thank Leo by visiting his house. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
When he opened his front door, Leo was surprised to see his neighbors bearing gifts. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
涡阳三中2023-2024学年下学期高二年级第二次阶段测试
英语 参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力部分录音稿
（Text 1）
W: It’s 7: 30 am. Why haven’t you got up Don’t you have to work today
M: What Oh my God, I didn’t hear the alarm. I was on the phone until 11: 00 pm yesterday.
（Text 2）
W: I haven’t seen you before. Do you work in this company’s broadcasting department
M: I’m just visiting. I’m actually meeting the boss to see if my company can conduct business with yours. You’re an actor
W: I sure am. I hope to see you around.
（Text 3）
W: We have a flight that will get you to Washington at 9: 00 am. Is that OK
M: Do you have anything earlier I have an appointment at 8: 30. I’ve got to be there at least an hour ahead of time.（Text 4）
M: Hey, Jennifer. You decided about going to the movies with me tonight, right
W: Yes, I did, but I don’t think I can go. My sister Maggie is coming to stay with me today, and we want to try dinner at the new Italian restaurant downtown.
（Text 5）
W: I wish I had more time to spend with Lily. She has to go to a babysitter every morning.
M: It’s tough when you work so much.
W: Well, sometimes I have to ask my boss for a leave to look after her.
（Text 6）
W: I can’t stand it!
M: What’s wrong Did you fail the history test again
W: No, not that. We’re reading a part of Hard Times in English literature class. I can’t understand any of it. There are so many people in the story, and I can’t remember who is who!
M: That’s one of Charles Dickens’ greatest stories! It reflects English society of the era. I can’t believe the teacher is only making you read one small part. You won’t be confused if you read the whole book. I can lend you my copy.
W: Thanks, but how can I find the time to read the whole book
M: The story is quite exciting, and you will read quickly unconsciously. Just try it. Then you will remember everything about it.
W: OK. Thanks for your advice.
（Text 7）
W: Space travel is always dangerous; that is why the taikonaut, I mean, Chinese astronauts are national heroes.
M: Yes, but humans aren’t built to live in space and being there can bring serious health risks.
W: Well, what are the alternatives
M: Instead of sending people, we can send robots equipped with cameras and other tools to do observations for us. What do you think
W: I believe robots and computers can never replace human experience. Exploration is about taking risks. Without risks, we cannot learn something new.
（Text 8）
W: So why did you decide to start a GoFundMe campaign
M: Well, last year many animal shelters came to me, asking me to help their animals because I had found a good way to encourage people to adopt animals from an animal shelter. And many people had told my story on the Internet. So I decided to help more animals by starting the campaign to collect money for the shelters.
W: So how much money has your campaign raised
M: $10,000. And I’ve already spent half of the money in helping animals.
W: How can people learn more about your work
M: They can visit my Facebook, Instagram, or website.
W: Well, thank you for sparing some time for my newspaper. I cannot wait to share your story with our readers.（Text 9）
M: What are you looking for all over the ground Are you looking for rubbish to pick up
W: I’m looking for some of our local mushrooms. I saw pictures recently of some really cool-looking ones. They grow on the ground or on some trees.
M: You’re not going to try and cook them, are you
W: No. I think they would be a good subject for me to practice my ink drawing. I needed a subject for my next art school project.
M: That makes sense. There are probably a lot of them out during this time of year. I’ve never liked to eat mushrooms, though. My mother loves them. When I lived at home, she would always make mushroom soup.
W: I love mushrooms. They’re so interesting. I learned that the mushrooms we see are often one single creature that is all connected underground. Not only that, but they are very good nutrition for the areas that they grow in.
M: That’s interesting. I think bamboo grass is very similar in the way that it grows. Most bamboo is all connected by a single root system. This makes it very hard to get rid of if you want to plant something else.
W: I didn’t know that, but it makes sense. I know bamboo can grow very fast. I think here in New Jersey, you need to get a permit in order to plant bamboo. It’s probably because of how difficult it is to control.
（Text 10）
W: Today marks the end of an era. I always remember when I first came to this university. My family was poor when I applied, and the only possible way for me to attend university was through a scholarship. Unfortunately, the person who funded my scholarship is not here today to see my graduation. His name is Alvin James, and I only sadly found out that he had passed away last year. He had left a letter to be delivered to me when I graduate, and I want to read part of it to all of you. “Education is priceless, and should not depend upon your background, race or nationality.” I have been inspired by Alvin’s words and life. He was a generous man who gave his fortune away to charities and people who he believed could make a difference. So the final year of my studies, I have been working with the university to create a new scholarship in his name. Every year, 10 students from poor backgrounds are able to attend university. It will be funded by other former students. I hope that everyone graduating here will sign up to help fund someone else’s education. Thank you.
参考答案
1~5 CABCA 6~10 CBBCA11~15 CBACA 16~20ABCAB
21. B 细节理解题。根据第二段“Daniel Avery will do a live set for the first time in Australia, coinciding（同时发生）with the recent 10th anniversary of his classic album Drone Logic.”可知，Daniel Avery 创作了专辑Drone Logic。
22. C 细节理解题。根据第三段“Pitch Music & Arts will also highlight local pioneers, including James who will be playing with Willaris. K…”可知，James 将在音乐节上表演节目。
23. D细节理解题。根据最后一段“The tickets will be on sale from 5, May to 6, June.”可知，购票的截止日期是 6月6日。
24. B 推理判断题。根据第二段“…he met Professor Whit Burnett, who was also the editor of Story magazine. Burnett, sensing Salinger’s talent as a writer, pushed him…”可知，惠特·伯内特对杰罗姆·大卫·塞林格的影响很大。
25. A词义猜测题。根据第二段“…soon Salinger’s works were appearing not just in Story, but in other big-name publications such as Collier’s and the Saturday Evening Post.”、第三段“… Salinger kept writing for a new novel whose main character was a deeply unsatisfied young man named Holden Caulfield.”及画线词后“his life as a writer…”可推断，画线词的意思和Continuing 最接近。
26. C 细节理解题。根据第五段“The book earned its share of positive reviews…But over time the American reading public ate the book up and The Catcher in the Rye became an essential part of the academic literature course. To date, the more than 65 million copies.”可知,—book has sold more than 65 million copies.”可知，《麦田里的守望者》深受美国读者的喜爱。
27. C 细节理解题。根据最后一段“In 1953… Salinger moved from New York City to Cornish, New Hampshire. There, Salinger did his best to cut off contact with the public and significantly slowed his literary output.”可知，杰罗姆·大卫·塞林格晚年的文学作品很少。
28. B细节理解题。根据第二段“‘…there would be 1billion people living with obesity by 2030, but that number was already overtaken in 2022,’Dr. Maji d Ezzati…’We hadn’t expected that the things happened so fast.””可知，Ezzati 对于2022 年全球肥胖人口的数量感到震惊。
29. B 细节理解题。根据第三段“The new global study… analyzed the height and weight measurements of over 220 million people from more than 190 countries.”可知，研究者是通过分析数据进行研究的。
30. C 推理判断题。根据第四段“Adults were regarded as obese if their body mass index（指数）（BMI）was greater than or equal to 30 and considered as underweight if their BMI was below 18.5.”可推断，对于成年人来说，身体质量指数为20，属于正常体重。
31. D 段落大意题。通读最后一段，尤其是“France, which saw a steady level in its obesity rates in the study, has carried out… Countries in South America have begun carrying out front-of -package nutritional labelling that includes clear warnings about fat, sugar and salt levels. Mexico…”可知，本段主要介绍了一些国家为解决肥胖问题所采取的措施。
32. A 细节理解题。根据第二段“Three South Asian countries—Bangladesh, Pakistan and India—had the world’s lowest air quality. In 2022, India was eighth and Bangladesh was fifth.”可知，孟加拉国的空气质量可能在2023年有所下降。
33. D 推理判断题。根据第三段“IQAir used the WHO standard of PM2.5 to measure the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air… The diameter of human hair, for example, is about 30 times larger than a particle of 2.5 microns.”可推断，作者提及“人类的头发”是为了解释空气中可吸入污染物颗粒的大小。
34. C 推理判断题。根据最后一段“Christi Chester Schroeder oversees air quality science for IQair… ‘… it really does look like it is going to get worse before it gets better.’”可推断，Christi Chester Schroeder 认为南亚国家的空气质量前景不容乐观。
35. A 主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第一段“Information from this year’s IQAir World AirQuality Report showed only seven countries met the World Health Organization’s pollution recommendations in 2023. ..”及第二段“The report said the five countries with what it called the lowest air quality had particle（颗粒物）levels at least nine times higher than what the WHO recommends.”可知，本文主要介绍了一份关于全球空气污染的报告。
36. C 根据空前“Writing a poem is about observing the world with in or around you.”及空后“from love to loss to the gate at the old farm.”可知，C项“一首诗可以是关于任何事情的”符合。
37. G 根据空前“For example, you may decide to write a poem around the theme of love and friendship.”可知，G项“然后你可能会想起你经历过的那些时刻”符合。
38. E 根据空前“Your poetry will be much stronger if you avoid cliches, which are phrases that have become so familiar that they have lost their meaning.”及空后“By doing so, your reader is surprised and attracted by your writing.”可知，E项“在你的诗中使用创造性的描述和形象”符合。
39. A 根据空后“Poetry is made to be read out loud. So you should write your poem with a focus on how it sounds on the page.”可知，A项“写的诗歌要悦耳”适合作本段的主题句。
40. D 根据空前“You can also share your poem with other poets to get feedback from them and improve your poem.”及空后“where you discuss your poems with other poets and work on your poetry together.”可知，D项“你可以加入一个诗歌写作小组”符合。
41. B 每日清晨，何翠英都会看到天空中雾气弥漫。此处用到了拟人的写作手法，可以理解为“被晨雾问候（greeted）”。
42. D 从那时起，她就与来自中国和世界各地的游客分享（shared）她的故事、美丽的风景和她的村庄独特的（unique）文化。
43. A 见上题解析。
44. C 何翠英是纳西族人，她的丈夫是藏族，一位藏传佛教信徒（believer）。
45. B 在何翠英所在的启别村有八个少数民族的人和平（peacefully）相处。
46. D 这个村的村民经营着（operate）120家民宿。
47. B 村民们说，他们已经把“房子变成了民宿，人变成了表演者（performers）”。
48. A 村民们说着纳西族语言，却遵循着（follow）藏族的文化，非常有特色。
49. C 在短短8年的时间里，他们开发了一个团结的（united）多民族民宿村，成为云南文化旅游（tourism）的重点示范项目。
50. B 见上题解析。
51. D 何翠英喜欢唱歌（singing）。
52. A 她记得在中国共产党的领导下，这个偏远的村庄是如何解放和摆脱（escaped）贫困的，所以她对北京这个首都城市有一种诚挚的钦佩（admiration）之情。
53. D 见上题解析。
54. C 现在，随着何翠英年龄的增长，何清梅和她的表亲们逐渐接管了（taking over）民宿。
55. A 他们希望通过来自世界各地的客人的来访（visits）与更多的人分享奶奶家乡的美丽风景和故事。
56. was celebrated 57. as 58. who 59. taken 60. to become
61. older 62. generally 63. himself 64. and 65. recognizes/recognises
第一节
One possible version:
Notice
In order to allow students to experience the charm of science and technology up close, our school will organize a “Science and Technology into the Campus” event in the school hall at 8: 00 am next Saturday morning.
In this activity, scientists will be invited to showcase amazing performances through various scientific devices. For example, you will see bowling balls floating in the air. A drone show will also be displayed on the spot.
I’m sure the activity will be of great benefit to you. Be sure to come on time!
The Student Union
第二节
One possible version:
They decided to thank Leo by visiting his house. One neighbor offered to push Abigail’s wheelchair on the sidewalk. When they arrived, Leo was still asleep. He was awakened by a choir of voices calling out his name from outside. Leo was frightened, thinking he might have done something wrong. He tried to recall whether or not he had done something to anger his neighbors, but he could not remember anything.
When he opened his front door, Leo was surprised to see his neighbors bearing gifts. They handed him pastries, fruits and a huge pie. “We’re here to thank you, dear. Thank you for helping me clean my yard.” Abigail said, reaching out to touch Leo’s hand. Other neighbors chimed in, thanking him for reminding them what it meant to be a good neighbor. “You helped Abigail out when non e of us did. Thank you for reminding us to be mindful of what other people are going through so we can help where we can,” one of them told Leo.
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