2024年高考适应性训练
英 语 试 题 (三)
注意事项:
1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 阅读 (共两节,满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Spirit Day ideas are themes that bring a fun twist to a normal workday. The purpose of these ideas is to foster a positive work environment. Also, Spirit Days encourage creativity and boost morale among employees. Here is a list of ideas to liven up your office.
Superhero Day
On Superhero Day, teams can dress up as their favorite superheroes or create their own unique characters. You could make this exercise more office themed by asking workers to make a superhero based on their workplace talents. Host a costume contest where colleagues can vote for their favorite outfits.
Beach Day
To set this day up, choose a suitable beach location. Participants can bring their own blankets, towels, and beach chairs. Outdoor activities offer a break from the office,such as beach volleyball and building sandcastles. Beach Days are also a great time to enjoy a delicious meal together! You can bring barbecue classics to enjoy, such as hot dogs, burgers, and potato salad.
Sports Team Day
On Sports Team Day, participants wear their favorite sports team colors or jerseys. Employees can also dress up as specific athletes. Consider hosting this theme during a big game that most folks in the office want to watch. Teams can also compete in field day exercises! Workers can go head-to-head in soccer, football, or even lawn games.
Animal Day
On Animal Day, participants can dress up like their favorite animals or wear animal-print accessories. Pet-friendly offices can even welcome employees’ pets into the office for the day! Folks could put on a pet parade and let furry friends meet each other. You can also host activities such as trivia or pet photo contests.
1. Why is the idea of Spirit Day put forward
A. To enhance the working conditions.
B. To establish an active workplace.
C. To lessen the pressure of employees.
D. To strengthen the team competence.
2. What do Sports Team Day and Beach Day have in common
A. Employees can go outdoors to relax.
B. Employees can bring their belongings.
C. Employees can have a delicious meal together.
D. Employees can watch a big game in the office.
3. On which day can employees compete for the best dressed
A. Superhero Day. B. Beach Day. C. Sports Team Day. D. Animal Day.
B
While most coffee shops offer free Wi-Fi connections to get more customers, Offline Club, a pop-up cafe in Amsterdam, offers a different connection where a Wi-Fi signal is unnecessary. Upon entering, its members leave their devices behind, grab a coffee, and enjoy a 90s’ atmosphere.
Ilya Kneppelhout, who started the Offline Club, said that the club is for people overwhelmed by their busy lives and constant notifications, according to Inside Edition. He added that their members want to cut down on their social media and screen time and focus on in-person connections— a simple idea, but participants enjoy it.
One of their members said, “being with the club makes you feel present in a way you didn’t expect”. “It felt a bit like travelling in time and made me feel nostalgic (怀旧) about the way bars and cafes used to be because nowadays, those are places we’re only going to with friends and people we already know and spend time doing digital things like work,” another member added.
The founders believe this concept could work in other cities, too. Kneppelhout stated that they want to spread the idea worldwide. “Right now, we’re getting together with a franchising concept, and we hope to have offline detox events in the entire world for people to reconnect,” he said.
Meanwhile, the internet and computers are deeply integrated into our lives. Being addicted to the internet can hurt you in different ways, both in body and emotions. Given this, the digital detox provided by the Offline Club could be helpful for individuals who feel they spend too much time online. It’s a chance to reduce stress and focus more on talking to people. It also helps stop us from becoming too reliant on technology. Ultimately, a digital detox is about stepping back to connect with what really matters.
4. Why did Ilya Kneppelhout start the Offline Club
A. To ease life pressure. B. To refuse social media.
C. To attract more customers. D. To encourage real interaction.
5. How did the members feel about the club
A. Content with the club. B. Enthusiastic about the club.
C. Tired of the visit to the club. D. Scared of the club’s atmosphere.
6. What can we draw from Ilya Kneppelhout’s words
A. People in the club deny real bonds.
B. He expects the world can reconnect.
C. People have been disturbed by the club.
D. The club has been a hit in other cities.
7. What do the underlined words “the digital detox” mean in the last paragraph
A. Avoiding online communication. B. Resisting the use of digital device.
C. Taking a break from the Internet. D. Surfing the Internet for information.
C
Out in the Atlantic Ocean, roughly 60 miles off the northwest coast of Africa, lie the Canary Islands. In the 1950s, the boom in package tourism showed promise as a new cash crop. But while the Canary Islands had the sunshine, warm climate and ease of access from Europe needed for this new industry, they were missing a vital element—picture-postcard sandy beaches.
So the developers on Tenerife in the Canary Islands constructed a breakwater (防波堤) over half a mile long. And then, from the Western Sahara on Africa’s northwest coast, they shipped in 270, 000 tons of sand. By 1973, the project was complete. As anticipated, tourists arrived. Along the engineered beach, rows and rows of tourists relax on beach chairs under umbrellas or walk across soft sand to cool down in the water.
Unanticipated was what their presence gave to one of the world’s most endangered fish species, angel sharks—visibility. The gentle wind creates tiny waves on the water’s surface, a magical cover for what lies beneath—an angel shark nursery. Female angel shark regularly migrate (迁徙) to these ideally sheltered waters to give birth to pups (幼崽), who remain in the shallows for about a year. Feeding on small fishes, they grow to around the same length as a newborn human baby.
Surveys have shown that other beaches in the Canary Islands are also potential nursery sites. Interestingly, most of them have been remade to make them more attractive to people. Playa Chica has another long sweep of imported sand. It’s an attraction for divers as well as angel sharks, so the number of sightings of mature angel sharks of this shoreline is one of the highest in the islands.
Normally, environmentally disruptive projects are bad for wildlife. But what’s clear is that after the breakwater was built and the sand arrived, people followed, and in the calm, shallow waters they began to see baby angel sharks. And unlike how many an association between humans and wildlife ends-in conflict and dead animals-this time it led to conservation.
8. How did the developers attract tourists to Tenerife
A. By building a base for shipping. B. By promoting local culture.
C. By importing sand to create beaches. D. By offering discounts on package tour.
9. What was an unexpected result of the project
A. It gave angel sharks a home.
B. It made a magical tourist attraction.
C. It caused the disappearance of some fishes.
D. It created conflicts between sharks and tourists.
10. What can we learn from paragraph 4
A. Engineered beaches are good for angel sharks nursery.
B. Beaches are remade to attract more foreign tourists.
C. Playa Chica is well-known for its beautiful shortline.
D. Playa Chica has the highest number of angel sharks.
11. What is the main idea of the text
A. The economic benefits of developing the Canary Islands.
B. The impact of tourism on the environment of the Canary Islands.
C. The unexpected benefits of beach development for angel sharks.
D. The challenges faced by the angel sharks in the Canary Islands.
D
Algorithms (算法) affect nearly every part of a person’s experience on the Internet. Search engines are most people’s entry to the Internet. If a person wants to find information about something, they usually start with a search bar. As soon as they start typing or choosing links, the algorithm starts gathering data about every choice users make and uses that data to try to find the websites or information that most directly relate to what the user is looking for.
The problem with algorithm is that they can limit the kinds of information people see, says MacMillan, a reading researcher with Project Information Literacy. He argues this can be harmful to people’s critical thinking and lead them to believe that only one point of view is correct.
Companies also pay to post advertisements for products that could relate to users’ search data. For example, if you search for places to take a vacation, you will likely start to see ads for travel companies, flights or hotels.
Renee Hobbs, director of the Media Education Lab at the University of Rhode Island, however, argues that algorithms are not all bad. She says search engine algorithms can help you find what might be the most useful information faster. But she says it is in the interests of Internet companies to keep users on the Internet for as long as possible so they see more ads.
The current generation of young people grow up using the Internet and they are prone (易于遭受) to distrustful information. That is why schools must train students how to use the Internet more wisely. It is the duty of education to keep students informed about the world around them. Yet it is not the duty of education alone. And lawmakers should consider increasing data protection rules. Individuals can also use a wide variety of websites to avoid algorithmic controls.
12. How do algorithms affect users’ Internet experience
A. They lead to slower Internet connection.
B. They determine the content users receive.
C. They always help users get reliable links.
D. They block ads for users automatically.
13. What is Renee Hobbs’ attitude towards algorithms
A. Doubtful. B. Supportive. C. Objective. D. Indifferent.
14. What can be concluded from the last paragraph
A.Young people fall victim to the Internet.
B. Data protection rules are already enough.
C. Education is fully responsible for algorithmic controls.
D. Joint efforts are needed to handle algorithmic controls.
15. Which column of a magazine is the text most likely from
A. Fashion. B. Entertainment. C. Advertisement. D. Science.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Pythagoras was a philosopher and mathematician who revolutionized the world. He’s best known for the Pythagorean Theorem. 16 Here we mention some famous sayings from Pythagoras.
“Do not be ambitious and stingy; the just measure is excellent in such cases.”
17 That’s because excessive ambition can turn you into a person who doesn’t know how to enjoy the little things in life. In fact, it sows the seed of continuous dissatisfaction.
“Listen, you will be wise. 18 ”
Do you know how to listen to others Do you balance out your speaking and listening Although this may seem easy to answer, in reality, you usually tend to talk more than listen. However, this is a serious mistake to make.
Pythagoras was aware that so much can be learned by listening to others. There’s no rush to respond or to challenge an opinion with which you don’t agree. 19 That’s the key.
“Assist a man in raising a burden, but do not assist him in laying it down.”
Sometimes, you want to help others. Maybe they have problems with their partner or they’re just feeling sad.
Being there for these people and supporting them is something that’ll help them a lot. However, if you help them, it should be because you want to. Remember, you’re not required to completely assume their problems for them. More than anything, this is because you won’t solve anything by doing so. 20
A. It is better to express your ideas.
B. The beginning of wisdom is silence.
C. Listen first then respond wisely later.
D. Such behaviour can lead to endless quarrels.
E. Indeed, this is still studied in philosophy today.
F. In fact, you’ll just add more weight to their load.
G. You are bound to maintain moderate positions in life.
第二部分 语言运用 (共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
To start a business, my father moved our family from New Jersey to Massachusetts when I was seven years old. The 21 was especially hard on my mother, as it was the first time she had placed her hours away from her mother and sisters in her life.
Settled in our new home, my brothers and I were 22 with making friends and dealing with schoolwork. However, it was harder for Mom to 23 new people. On top of that, we had a 24 budget while my dad worked to 25 his business. Consequently, Christmas gifts were not really in the financial 26 that year. Moreover, we 27 most of our Christmas tree ornaments (装饰品) had broken during the move.
Therefore, my mother took an unexpected 28 . One day in early December when I came home from school, Mom was arranging a 29 crafts station on the picnic table in the back yard. “We 30 our Christmas ornaments,” she declared, “so we’re going to make our own.” Mom had 31 spray paint and glitter (发光物) to process the unlikeliest of decorations: tin can lids. And that day, she 32 waited for us kids to arrive before cutting them into stars, bells, and angels. What a 33 mother!
That December afternoon at the picnic table was more 34 than most Christmas mornings full of shiny paper and expensive gifts. The 35 of that particular Christmas came through my loving mother, who could turn tin cans into angels, and darkness into light.
21. A. agreement B. decision C. resettlement D. distribution
22. A. disappointed B. satisfied C. associated D. occupied
23. A. assist B. meet C. greet D. evaluate
24. A. better B. hard C. tight D. balanced
25. A. limit B. explore C. improve D. launch
26. A. list B. arrangement C. schedule D. support
27. A. admitted B. discovered C. thought D. remembered
28. A. action B. break C. risk D. measure
29. A. cheap B. complex C. temporary D. distant
30. A. gained B. lost C. possessed D. threw
31. A. selected B. collected C. purchased D. removed
32. A. eagerly B. proudly C. nervously D. casually
33. A. generous B. brave C. careful D. smart
34. A. amazing B. interesting C. unforgettable D. important
35. A. belief B. innovation C. importance D. magic
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
You’ve probably heard 36 Chinese culture is packed with: ancient and modern methods for staying fit. Baduanjin, which literally means Eight Pieces of Brocade, is 37 excellent traditional Chinese health maintenance Chi Kung. This style centers on breathing—by 38 (take) slow, deep breaths, it helps muscles relax and calms the mind as well.
Baduanjin, which originated in the Bei Song Dynasty has a history of more than 800 years. Over time it 39 (develop) into many different styles. There are a total of eight movements in Baduanjin, each with 40 (it) own characteristics and specific focus. The movements are very slow and intentional—each exercise is done about 3 times 41 moving onto the next exercise in the sequence.
Regular practice of Baduanjin is believed to bring numerous health 42 (benefit). The great advantage of Baduanjin lies in its accessibility. It doesn’t require much space or time and uses special breathing 43 concentration techniques to improve health. People of all ages and fitness levels can practice it without any special 44 (equip) or prior experience. Whether 45 (perform) in the park or the comfort of one’s home, Baduanjin provides gentle yet effective care for both body and mind.
第三部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华,你校正通过校英文报向同学们征集暑期社会实践活动的方案。请你写一篇短文投稿,内容包括:
1. 你的方案;
2. 你的理由。
注意:
1. 词数80词左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Editor, Sincerely yours, Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
July 1971, I was taking a summer class in Black-American literature on the campus of SUNY Oneonta in northern New York. Professor James walked into the classroom and announced that he had invited a special guest to class, but his guest was delayed. The class stirred with curiosity and anticipation.
“Who’s coming ” someone asked.
“All I will tell you is that he is the author of one of the books you have read for this class,” he said. “I need a volunteer to meet him in the hall of the administration building and take him here.”
To my amazement, my right hand shot up as though it had a mind of its own. “What am I doing ” I thought. I never volunteered for anything. I was shy and uncomfortable meeting new people. In fact, I was absolutely the wrong person for this job. Realizing my mistake, I pulled my hand down quickly, but it was too late.
“Thank you, David,” Professor James said. “You’d better leave now. He’ll be arriving any minute.”
Seeing no way to back out, I reluctantly got out of my seat and headed for the classroom door. When I reached it, I stopped.
“Umm,” I said. “If I don’t know who this person is, how will I recognize him I’d hate to bring back the wrong guy.”
Professor James laughed. “Good point,” he said. He pulled me aside and whispered a name in my ear. “Alex Haley,” he said.
“Really ” I said. I gave a thumbs-up to the class and left the room.
As I entered the empty hallway, I criticized myself for volunteering. “Why didn’t you let someone else do this ” Alex Haley was the author of The Autobiography (自传)of Malcolm X. He was also famous for his diligence, perseverance and in-depth thinking.
As I walked across the campus, my anxiety grew. I feared that I was about to embarrass myself in front of this famous gentleman by asking stupid questions, or worse, accompanying him in painful silence. I reached the front steps and climbed them slowly.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
As I pulled open the heavy glass door, I realized why I raised my hand to volunteer for this job. “I’d like to become a writer, but I don’t know if I have the talent,” I said.
2024年高考适应性训练
英语试题(三)参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
1—3 BAA 4—7 DABC 8—11 CAAC 12—15 BCDD
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
16 —20 EGBCF
第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分, 满分15分)
21—25 CDBCD 26—30 ABACB 31—35 BADCD
第二节 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分,满分15分)
36. what 37. an 38. taking 39. has developed 40. its
41. before 42. benefits 43. and 44. equipment 45. performed
第三部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
评分原则:
1. 本题总分为15分,按三个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 评分时应考虑:内容是否完整,条理是否清楚,交际是否得体,语言是否准确。
4. 拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时,应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5. 词数少于70,从总分中减去2分。
各档次的给分范围和要求:
第三档(11-15分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容完整,条理清楚;
·交际得体,表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求;体现出较强的语言运用能力。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(6-10分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求;
·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求;
·语法和用词方面有一些错误,但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第一档(1-5分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·内容不完整;
·所用词汇有限,语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
0分
未能传达任何信息;写的内容与要求无关。
第二节 (满分25分)
One possible version:
Paragraph 1:
As I pulled open the heavy glass door, I realized why I raised my hand to volunteer for this job. This man was what I want to be: a writer. He was living my dream. I could learn from him. I paced back and forth across the polished hall floor until a black man with a briefcase entered the building. He stopped and scanned the hall. His gaze fell on me. “Mr. Haley ” I said. “Yes,” he said. “I’m from Professor James’ class. Welcome,” I said. “Thank you,” he said. He extended his hand, and we shook. As we crossed the campus, I was struck by how approachable this man was. My fear was replaced by curiosity and purpose.
Paragraph 2:
“I’d like to become a writer, but I don’t know if I have the talent,” I said. Mr. Haley laughed and said, “If you want to become a writer, don’t worry about whether you have some magical gift. Just keep writing, and don’t give up until you succeed.” After my conversation with Alex Haley, I no longer obsessed over the “gift”. Instead, I started writing every day. Within two years, I published three stories in national children’s magazines. Had I not volunteered to meet this extraordinary man, I would never have received the benefit of his wise advice and the rewards that followed.
评分原则:
1. 本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 所续写短文的词数应为150左右(词数少于130的,从总分中减去2分)。
4. 阅卷评分时,主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)内容的丰富性;
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4)故事发展的合理性和上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档(21-25分)
与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理;
内容丰富,利用了文中的关键信息;
所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达;
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档(16-20分)
与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理;
内容比较丰富,基本利用了文中的关键信息;
所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达;
比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11-15分)
与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;
写出了若干有关内容,部分利用了文中的关键信息;
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但完全不影响意义表达;
第二档(6-10分)
与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;
写出了一些有关内容,较少利用了文中的关键信息;
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,且影响了意义的表达;
较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档(1-5分)
与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差;
产出内容太少,很少利用了文中的关键信息;
语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达;
缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
0分
白卷,内容太少,无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。