2023—2024学年度第二学期期中学业水平检测
高一英语 2024.04
（考试时间：120分钟； 试卷满分：150分）
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案划在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man ask the woman to do
A. Buy a computer.
B. Apply for a job.
C. Start a business.
2. Where did the man last use his phone
A. In the hospital.
B. In the bedroom.
C. In the kitchen.
3. What color is the house now
A. White. B. Pink. C. Yellow.
4. Who does Jason think is the best player in his team
A. Andrew. B. Thomas. C. Matthew.
5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Shop assistant and customer.
B. Footballer and fan.
C. Family members.
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the main topic of the conversation
A. Keeping a pet. B. Training a dog. C. Teaching a child.
7. What is Danny
A. The man’s dog.
B. The woman’s cat.
C. The woman’s son.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What does the woman think of music festivals
A. Exciting. B. Tiring. C. Boring.
9. What problem does the man mention about music festivals
A. Bad weather.
B. Small screens.
C. Crowded toilets.
10. How many music festivals has the man attended in all
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Where are the speakers
A. At home. B. At a university. C. At a company.
12. What is difficult for Emma
A. Managing time.
B. Making friends.
C. Understanding lectures.
13. What does the man suggest Emma do in the end
A. Never say “no”.
B. Finish large tasks first.
C. Avoid scheduling too many things.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What is the evidence of climate change according to the man
A. Hot weather. B. Rising seas. C. Less food.
15. What was discussed in the TV program last night
A. Air pollution. B. Sound pollution. C. Plastic pollution.
16. Why does the man use a different water bottle now
A. To save water. B. To use less plastic. C. To follow the trend.
17. What does the woman plan to do in the end
A. Raise more animals. B. Use cloth bags. C. Eat less meat.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What is an important cause of stress among young people
A. Lack of hobbies. B. School pressure. C. Career choices.
19. How can young people manage stress through open communication
A. By expressing their true feelings.
B. By thinking about things in a different way.
C. By forming closer relationships with friends.
20. Which activity can help people feel calm according to the speaker
A. Reading.
B. Outdoor sports.
C. Deep-breathing exercises.
第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （15个小题；每题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to Grand Central Terminal
Grand Central Terminal is one of the most-visited destinations in New York City for a reason: history, architecture, dining, and shopping, all under one magnificent roof. Let’s take a look at a few of public events.
Easter Brunch at City Winery
Date(s): Sunday, March 31
Time(s): 12:00 pm – 4:00 pm
Location: Vanderbilt Hall West, Upper Level
Celebrate your Easter at Vanderbilt Hall with City Winery’s fine Easter Brunch. Taste half-priced cocktails while enjoying the beauty of Grand Central Terminal!
Los Sabores de Mi Mexico
Time(s): Thursday April 4th, 10:00 am – 3:30 pm;
Friday April 5th – Sunday April 7th, 8:00 am – 6:00 pm
Location: Vanderbilt Hall East
Immerse yourself in this unique experience that celebrates the richness of art, history, and passion that shape Mexico.
St. Patrick’s Day at City Winery
Date(s): Saturday March 16 & Sunday March 17
Time(s): 8:00 am – 9:00 pm
Location: Vanderbilt Hall West, Upper Level
Don’t miss out on these delicious specials as we celebrate all things Irish this weekend! Gather your friends, wear your green, and head over to City Winery.
Long Island, Where Golfers Belong
Date(s): Monday April 8th – Wednesday April 10th
Time(s): 8:30 am – 6:30 pm
Location: Grand Central Madison
Come to meet our Discover Long Island team and test your golf skills! Long Island is proud to be home of the 2025 Ryder Cup. From lovely beaches to world-class championship golf courses, learn all about why Long Island is where you belong.
21. Which event lasts the longest
A. Easter Brunch at City Winery.
B. Los Sabores de Mi Mexico.
C. St. Patrick’s Day at City Winery.
D. Long Island, Where Golfers Belong.
22. What is the highlight of St. Patrick’s Day at City Winery
A. Festival celebration. B. Artistic experience.
C. Tasty food. D. Delightful sea view.
23. Where will you go if you like sports
A. Vanderbilt Hall West. B. Vanderbilt Hall East.
C. City Winery. D. Grand Central Madison.
B
When I was 18, determined not to spend my last teenage year stuck in a village, I took off with an Australian friend and we traveled around Europe for months. We stayed in the cheapest accommodation we could find and live on bread.
This was 1990, a time before mobile phones and the Internet, when the primary contact with home was the collection of mail from the post office. Before I left, Mom had made a money bag to wear around my neck. She’d also made me a sleeping sheet so I could avoid unclean bedding. She didn’t want me to go, and these gifts were her way of telling me to have a wonderful time.
It’s only now, as my 18-year-old daughter is preparing to leave on her own gap year trip, that I have understood what Mom felt.
Working many jobs and saving money, my daughter has researched where to stay, how to get around and what to do when she arrives. She seldom asks for my opinion and I don’t know whether I should back off or not. I want to be cool but not cold. I want to be like the perfect travel guide.
When she first mentioned gap year travel, I was encouraging, wanting her to have her own experiences that shape her. I didn’t let myself think too much about her not being here. Our house has already got smaller in size and soon it will just be me, my son and the cat. And I’m not quite ready for that.
But this trip is about her. This is not 1990 and I am not stuck at home waiting for a letter. I have promised not to upset her with messages, but at least I know she can contact me when she wants to.
24. What can we learn about the author’s travel in 1990
A. She traveled around Europe on her own.
B. She bought clean bedding for a sound sleep.
C. She had to budget carefully to afford the trip.
D. She made calls to keep in touch with her mother.
25. How did the author’s mother feel about her travel plan
A. Excited. B. Proud. C. Angry. D. Concerned.
26. What troubles the author about her daughter’s gap year trip
A. Heavy pressure of money.
B. Having no one to turn to for help.
C. Wondering whether to get involved.
D. Little knowledge about the destination.
27. What does the author decide to do
A. Move into a much larger house.
B. Take a trip with her daughter.
C. Contact her daughter by letter.
D. Trust her daughter and let go.
C
Often, research surrounding non-native – also referred to as invasive (入侵的) – species focuses on the negative impact on the environments they invade. Non-native species represent threats or even disasters; some are even famous for it. But according to a new study from Brown University, while the negative aspects of non-native life, including the increased risk of causing extinction to other species, are mainly talked about, the positives are not always addressed. Researchers say that non-native species also have the ability to increase biodiversity (生物多样性) within habitats.
As far as famously feared non-native species go, zebra mussels are high on the unwanted list. They originated in the waters of Eurasia and have grown to become a major issue in lakes and waterways across the Great Lakes, as well as in states such as Texas and California. In unnatural habitats, they reproduce rapidly, outcompeting native species for resources. Additionally, they attach themselves to hard surfaces, such as pipes and boats, costing millions to remove.
But for its research, the team decided to focus not only on non-native species’ negative impacts but also on what they can contribute to habitats. In forests, the earthworms have the ability to change the ecosystem negatively. However, when earthworms are present in agricultural land, there is a possibility for a 25-percent increase in the productivity of agricultural crops. As far as brown trout – a non-native species in New Zealand — are concerned, locals have embraced the fish, enjoying the economic and recreational benefits of fishing for the species and adding it to their local food.
Biologist Dov Sax, along with co-authors of the Brown University study, says that these benefits are not as uncommon as past research on invasive species may suggest.
“Our new paper argues that the positive impacts of non-native species are neither unexpected nor rare but instead common and important,” says Sax.
28. What does the new study focus on
A. Bad influence of invasive species.
B. Uncertain future some species face.
C. Possible benefits non-native species bring.
D. The importance of biodiversity protection.
29. What can we learn about zebra mussels from paragraph 2
A. They are listed as endangered species.
B. They disturb the local natural balance.
C. They receive a warm welcome in Texas.
D. They bring huge business opportunities.
30. What is locals’ attitude to the brown trout？
A. Doubtful. B. Unclear. C. Supportive. D. Discontent.
31. Which is the most suitable title for the text
A. Say No to the Non-Native Species
B. What do Unnatural Habitats Mean
C. A Close Link Between Researches
D. Are Invasive Species Always Bad
D
If you connected your grandparents with flowers or blooms, what types would they be
A theory called “orchids (兰花) and dandelions (蒲公英)” was introduced to describe how people adapt to their environment. Just like orchids that need specific conditions to grow, some people show a similar nature. On the other hand, dandelions, like weeds, can grow almost anywhere and stay strong even in difficult environments. The theory, which first came out in 2005, was created to understand how kids grow up. But in 2022, Canadian scientists discovered it also applies to older people. They investigated the lifestyle activities of more than 3,530 older adults, and then studied the influence of these activities on their cognitive (认知的) health, including whether their cognitive patterns changed.
The cognitive patterns of “dandelion” elders appear steady, which means that they tend to have better cognitive health, showing great adaptation and an ability to handle tough conditions. Dandelion-type seniors usually have strong social networks, engage positively with family members and the community, and always seek out the silver linings in life experiences. Having various hobbies or careers, they actively communicate with the world and realize their values, which allows them to find satisfaction in life.
Orchid-type seniors, who tend to have changes in cognitive patterns, maintain limited communication with the outside world. While deeply crazy about one or two hobbies or careers, they tend to focus on these interests. Although they may do well in familiar environments, unfavorable conditions lead them to overreact and struggle.
Knowing what flower type your grandparents are enables you to love and care for them better and helps them enjoy delightful and fulfilling golden years. Dandelions sometimes might struggle with loneliness, so family members’ company is helpful in such cases. For orchids, families should encourage them to express how they feel and what they need.
32. What is the “orchids and dandelions” theory mainly about
A. The change of lifestyle. B. Personal response to conditions.
C. Growth habit of two plants. D. Differences between generations.
33. What do the underlined words “silver linings” mean in paragraph 3
A. Surprising truths. B. Unexpected turns.
C. Hopeful aspects. D. Lasting memories.
34. What can we learn about orchid-type seniors
A. They are willing to make changes.
B. They have good social connections.
C. They have a wide variety of hobbies.
D. They manage new conditions poorly.
35. What is the text mainly about
A. Flowers and their influence.
B. Family members’ care and love.
C. An insight into seniors’ personalities.
D. Tips on how to improve seniors’ health.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Improving your career development will help you stay competitive when it’s time to seek a promotion or apply for a new opportunity. The information below will help you improve your career development so you can succeed in your chosen career path.
36 This includes what industries might be the best fit for you, as well as related jobs and companies. It’s also a good idea to reflect on your own particular strengths and weaknesses so you can identify what to work on as you prepare your personal career path.
Someone else’s experience is great to gain knowledge and introduce yourself to other opportunities. 37 Your boss might also be a perfect one, since they should be able to show you what you need to learn in order to develop in your current and future roles. You can discuss your career path with your boss.
Once you’ve explored your options and found a helper, you should have enough information to be able to set specific, measurable goals. Be sure your goals are realistic yet challenging, and take care to make them actionable. Give yourself a timeline for achieving your goals. 38
To achieve your goals, it is necessary to make a plan. You can outline it on your own or you can take advantage of external resources. 39 They generally focus energy on helping employees develop and follow a career path.
40 There are many ways to build them. You might attend training sessions to increase your knowledge. New strategies and technologies relevant to just about every career are being introduced constantly, so it pays to stay up-to-date on industry developments.
A. You should be prepared to adapt your career plan as situations change.
B. This will help make sure you can reach your objectives in a timely way.
C. An important part of your career development will be expanding your job skills.
D. Some companies have formal programs to help employees develop their careers.
E. It is an ongoing process of improving yourselves as you explore your career path.
F. You can seek a helper at work, perhaps from a different department you’d like to explore.
G. Before you can begin working on your career development, it helps to know your options.
语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
“IS THERE A DOCTOR ON BOARD ” No doctor wants to hear these words while 41 , but this time I was already ready by the worried sounds. My husband and I were on our way home after a European holiday. The cabin (机舱) was 42 for the inflight movies when sound of “Wake up! Oh, help!” 43 .
I was out of my 44 fast. The flight attendant and I arrived together to see a frightened elderly woman 45 the hand of her husband, who didn’t 46 to her. His head was back, mouth open. He may have been asleep, except that he couldn’t be 47 .
I did a quick 48 : irregular but steady pulse (脉搏), colour good, no evident pain, breathing 49 without effort. I sat on the arm of the seat across the aisle, still 50 his pulse, and asked the woman about her husband. At 80 years old, he had a 51 medical history and had never taken medications. The couple had travelled to Scotland to 52 their 60th wedding anniversary, and they were on their way home. It had been a good holiday, she said, but 53 .
Suddenly her husband opened his eyes, looked at me, smiled and asked what had happened. “Well, you lost consciousness (意识) for a few minutes,” I said. “Your heart beat isn’t quite right, and that may have 54 this.”
Three weeks later, I received a lovely thank you note from this kind gentleman, who will hopefully remain in good 55 for years to come.
41. A. working B. sleeping C. flying D. shopping
42. A. brightened B. separated C. crowded D. darkened
43. A. broke down B. gave out C. rang out D. died down
44. A. seat B. bed C. office D. room
45. A. waving B. opening C. folding D. holding
46. A. relate B. agree C. respond D. return
47. A. rescued B. awakened C. forgotten D. noticed
48. A. examination B. experiment C. communication D. protection
49. A. smoothly B. heavily C. deeply D. quickly
50. A. controlling B. seeing C. pushing D. monitoring
51. A. clean B. long C. past D. special
52. A. act B. celebrate C. value D. prepare
53. A. amusing B. boring C. relieving D. tiring
54. A. caused B. attacked C. blamed D. directed
55. A.background B. balance C. health D. business
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
As a student with English literature as one of my main subjects, I thought I knew a lot about Hamlet. 56 (see) quite a few productions of Hamlet and read the play many times, I felt confident 57 the Peking Opera came to town! Dating back to the 18th century, Peking Opera has a history of over two hundred years. To make a 58 (compare) between Western and Eastern cultures, I went to see The Revenge of Prince Zidan, considered as the Peking Opera version of Hamlet.
The opera started 59 an orchestra playing traditional Chinese instruments, and it brought a 60 (complete) new sound to my Western ears. I was surprised to see the performers’ 61 (amaze) costumes and masks. Besides, their voices sounded really unique. For example, some female artists’ voices were so high that I was sure they could break glass! Though they 62 (sing) in Chinese, their special techniques helped get the meanings across to the audience.
63 I found incredible was the way the characters moved on stage and I even doubted that the performers were actually athletes. The audience were so excited that they all stood up, 64 (clap) for a long time. The Revenge of Prince Zidan is a wonderful play in combination with music, singing, drama, poetry 65 explosive stage effect. I really enjoy it and I’ve realized that art is universal.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你校计划举行研学游活动，校英文报现面向全体学生征求研学地点。请你推荐一个并说明理由，内容包括：
1.推荐地点；
2.说明理由。
注意:
1.词数80左右;
2.请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Stepping into the enormous house in Chullora, I was astonished. Hundreds of volunteers were wrapping presents or filling baskets. It was like Santa’s workshop.
It was December 2018, and I had discovered the Sydney Basket Brigade, a charitable organization that relieves poverty by providing food and other basic necessities of life to individuals or families who are poor, of low income or in need. The charity was packing baskets and gift boxes with basic daily items as well as Christmas treats. Help us change lives one basket at a time, their website read.
It was important to me that my two boys, Kallum, 10, and Brayden, 9, learnt to be kind to others, so I immediately registered (报名) myself, my husband Tony, and the boys for the packing day.
We arrived dressed in Christmas colours, but it was clear my sons hadn’t yet caught the spirit. Brayden made a complaint and asked, “How long do we have to stay here for ”
“All day, dear,” I answered.
My sons’ lives were comfortable, but I wanted to show the importance of making sacrifices (牺牲).
“Why do we have to do this ” Brayden asked.
“Because the world’s a big place,” I said. “It’s not all about us.”
The atmosphere in the house was very lively, but my boys were doing a very half-hearted job with the wrapping. I told them that this might be the only present someone gets. I showed them how to fold the corners and make the present look neat. The boys, both lovers of origami(折纸), finally started to have fun. I praised their work when they showed off their perfected wrapping.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
2023-2024学年度第二学期期中学业水平检测
高一英语参考答案
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
1-5 BABAC 6-10 ABAAC 11-15 BACBC 16-20 BCBAC
第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21-23 BCD 24-27 CDCD 28-31 CBCD 32-35 BCDC
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40 GFBDC
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 CDCAD 46-50 CBAAD 51-55 ABDAC
第二节：（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
Having seen 57. until parison 59. with pletely
amazing 62. sang 63. What 64. clapping 65. and
第四部分：写作（满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
参考范文（略）
评分细则（格式错扣1分）：
1.极优档 (15分)：书写规范；覆盖所有要点，内容充实；词汇丰富，行文流畅，有修辞意识。
2.优秀档 (12-14分) ：漂漂亮亮
紧扣主题，覆盖所有要点，内容充实；语法结构多样，词汇丰富，行文较为流畅，显示出较强的语言运用能力，允许有个别语法错误，但不影响语言表达。
3.良好档 (9-11分)：清清楚楚
紧扣主题，覆盖所有要点，内容较充实，语言有少量错误，但基本不影响意思表达。
4.一般档 (6-8分)：马马虎虎
紧扣主题，基本覆盖所有要点，能够表达基本内容，语言错误已影响了部分意思的表达，但多数句子基本正确。基本达到预期的写作目的。
5.较差（3-5）：稀里糊涂
内容不完整，要点不全，行文不连贯，语言错误（尤其是大错）较多，多数句子基本正确。
6.差（1-2分）：一塌糊涂
内容混乱，或主要内容偏离主题，能够写出少数与内容相关的可读句。
7.极差（0分）：一塌糊涂
只能写出与内容相关的词语，没有有效信息，抄写其他文章，或只写出与作文无关的内容。
第二节（满分25分）
评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.所续写短文的词数应为150左右（词数少于120的，从总分中减去2分）。
4.阅卷评分时，主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性和对所所标出关键词语的应用情况；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）故事发展的合理性和上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
各档次给分范围及要求:
第五档（21-25分）
— 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；
— 内容丰富；
— 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
— 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16-20分）
— 与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；
— 内容比较丰富；
— 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
— 比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11-15分）
— 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
— 写出了若干有关内容；
— 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义的表达；
— 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档（6-10分）
— 与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
— 写出了一些有关内容；
— 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达；
— 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1-5分）
— 与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差；
— 产出内容太少；
— 语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达；
— 缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
高一英语听力原文
Text 1
W: Look at this. Sun Computer is looking for a programmer. That’s the ideal job for me.
M: Then go for it. You meet all the demands. (1)
W: I will.
Text 2
M: I can’t find my phone anywhere. I haven’t seen it since I called you at the hospital. (2)
W: Have you checked your bedroom and the kitchen
M: Yes, but unfortunately, it’s not there.
Text 3
M: The house looks old. Do you think it needs to be redecorated
W: Yes. Let’s remove all the pink paint and have it white. (3) It will be livelier that way.
M: Maybe we can use yellow
Text 4
W: Jason, who do you believe is the greatest soccer player in your team
M: Andrew. No one can match that level of skill.
W: But what about Matthew He was so athletic. Or Thomas
M: I still stand by Andrew. (4)
Text 5
W: Are you looking forward to our day out in the town
M: Yes. But can we go to the football museum I know you don’t like the game, but Dad and I are both fans.
W: Sure, as long as we can also go to my favorite store. (5)
Text 6 (第6题为总结题)
M: I love having pets because they bring me so much joy and love.
W: Yes, pets are cute, but not everything about keeping a pet is positive.
M: What do you mean
W: Well, for instance, training can be a challenge. My cat Danny keeps climbing the furniture, and no matter what I do, he refuses to change his habits. (7)
M: Oh yes, there are things like that. However, the love and joy the pet brings me make all the things worth it.
Text 7
W: I just love music festivals. The energy and the crowds — it’s an experience like no other. (8)
M: I agree. But festivals nowadays are so crowded that you can only watch the performers on a screen.
W: Even so, it’s great to hear the music live.
M: But there are disadvantages, like getting lost in a crowd of people.
W: Yeah. Waiting for food and toilets can also be a problem.
M: Not to mention the sea of mud on rainy days. (9)
W: Despite all that, the amazing shows leave you with priceless memories.
M: Yes, the first festival I attended left the most lasting impact on me, although the two festivals I attended after that were great too. (10)
Text 8
M: Emma, (12) (13) it’s been a long time since I last saw you. How’s your college life here (11)
W: I’m loving it. I’ve met new friends, and I like learning to do things by myself.
M: That’s great to hear. Do you have any problems you need help with
W: Well, I’m struggling with time management. (12)
M: In what way
W: Balancing lectures and personal life is challenging.
M: I agree. One useful way is to make a plan. Breaking down large tasks into smaller ones might help you stay focused.
W: That makes sense.
M: It’s also important to say “no” when necessary. If you schedule too many things to do, it will only create more problems for you. (13)
W: Thank you for the advice.
Text 9
W: I read an article recently. It mentioned there are still people who don’t believe climate change is real. (14)
M: Oh, it’s true. We can see it with our own eyes — changing weather, and rising seas. (14)
W: All of us must take action to turn around the damage we’ve caused. Even simple measures, such as saving energy, can make a difference.
M: Yes.
W: Did you watch the TV program about environmental issues last night (15)
M: Yes, I did. (15) Quite an eye-opener, wasn’t it The state of our oceans is concerning especially with plastic pollution. (15)
W: Absolutely. We need to be more aware of our plastic consumption. Every effort counts. (16)
M: I’ve started using a reusable water bottle and bringing my own shopping bags. (16) Small changes, but every bit helps.
W: I’ve been thinking about eating less meat too. Raising animals has a big environmental impact. (17)
M: That idea sounds new to me.
Text 10
Stress among young people is an increasing concern. School pressure, parents’ expectations, and the long-lasting influence of social media can all lead to stress. (18) The need to meet parents’ standards and the fear of not living up to what is expected can create a great weight on the mind of a young person. To deal with stress, developing healthy habits is very important. Regular exercise, enough sleep, and a balanced diet are quite significant. Also, open communication and seeking help are important. Encouraging young people to express their true feelings, whether to friends or family, helps in releasing bottled-up emotions. (19) Relaxation techniques also play a key role in stress management. Activities like deep-breathing exercises help to give a sense of calmness and improve stress resistance. (20) It is extremely important to recognize the causes of stress among young people and use healthy ways to deal with them. A balanced lifestyle, open communication, and relaxation can help them deal with the challenges of youth.
That evening, we delivered the first basket to an old woman.
On our way home, my sons became unusually quiet.
