2024年广东省人教版初中学业水平考试英语模拟卷(三)（无答案，无听力原文及音频）

广东省初中学业水平考试
英语模拟卷(三)
本试卷共8页，81 小题，满分120分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。
2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用(本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话)
A.听句子(本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1. When does the library close on Saturdays
2. What does the man want to buy
3. What was the speaker doing when the earthquake happened last night
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4. What does Steve often do on Thursday afternoons
5. How did Tom's father go to work today
B.听对话(本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6 小题。
6. Who drew the cat
A. Sally. B. Kitty. C. Kate.
听第二段对话，回答第7 小题。
7. Where is the supermarket
8. How much is the ticket for a five-year-old kid
A. $ 1.5. B. $ 2.5. C. $ 5.
9. How long did it take Anna to finish the English test
A. Two hours. B. One hour. C. Half an hour.
听第五段对话，回答第10 小题。
10. Where is John now
A. In Russia. B. In Italy. C. In Korea.
听第六段对话，回答第11~12小题。
11. What special day is coming
A. Mother's Day. B. The boy's birthday. C. Women's Day.
12. What present will the speakers give to their mother
A. Some flowers. B. Some chocolate. C. Some cakes.
听第七段对话，回答第13 ~15 小题。
13. What does the man like about the apartment
A. The kitchen and the study.
B. The living room and the study.
C. The living room and the bedrooms.
14. How much is the apartment behind the park for a month
A.200 dollars. B.500 dollars. C.700 dollars.
15. What is in the apartment on the ground floor
A. A TV. B. A sofa. C. A table.
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C.听短文(本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16. What job did the speaker have an interview for
A. A tour guide. B. A zookeeper. C. A guard.
17. Where did the speaker leave his map of London
A. In the car. B. At home. C. In the office.
18. What happened to the speaker after he arrived in London
A. He lost his ID card. B. He was hit by a bike. C. He went the wrong way.
19. What did the speaker do on the train to Egham
A. He talked to a passenger. B. He read a magazine. C. He had some snacks.
20. What time did the speaker get off the train to Egham
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 10:00.
D.听填信息(本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
School News
Last week: Class 4, Grade 9 won the 21 match.
On Tuesday: A speech about how to protect ourselves while doing exercise will begin at 22 p. m. on the playground.
On Wednesday: The English corner will have a discussion about Chinese pop music in the school 23 in the afternoon.
On Friday: A group of students from 24 will visit our school in the morning. They are going to have a talk with us about school life in the 25 center.
E.情景对话(本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
A. Aren't you good at break dancing
B. What clubs do you have
C. Why
D. When do you go to a break dancing club
E. The poem club.
F. I think so.
A: How is your school life this term
B: Still busy but more wonderful and relaxing.
A: Really 26
B: Because we have different kinds of clubs.
A: Good. 27
B: We have a poem club, a sports club, a break dancing club……Ah, so many of them!
A: Fantastic! Which club are you in
B: 28
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A: Oh Why didn't you join the break dancing club 29
B: Yes. But I am practicing it at a break dancing school on Sunday afternoon.
A: I see. You have a colorful life in and out of school.
B: 30 Oh, I'm running out of time. Bye for now!
A: See you!
二、语法选择(本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Ann a was my cousin's daughter. She was in her late 31 , and she had cancer. However, she had fought that cancer for five years before it finally beat her. People around Anna felt sorry for her.Nobody seemed to deal with Anna's cancer or death 32 than her.
Anna didn't feel sorry for 33 . Instead, she faced her cancer and coming death with a great attitude(态度). She treasured each day she had in her last five years. She understood that her life could be short, 34 she lived it to the fullest. Each day, she had 35 big smile on her face.Anna started a daily blog(博客), so she could tell the stories about her fight 36 the cancer and encourage others. Guess what That blog was 37 .
Anna 38 the pain of the cancer and other problems she had. On her blog, she also shared how much fun life could be. Her blog was about“live each day to the fullest, because it can be your last”.
I 39 by Anna's blog. I realized if I kept putting my dreams off until tomorrow, my dreams might never come true. So six months before turning fifty, I told myself 40 writing. Now, three years later, I've had some articles published in national magazines.
31. A. twenty B. twenties C. twentieth
32. A. well B. better C. best
33. A. she B. her C. herself
34. A. but B. or C. so
35. A. a B. an C. the
36. A. in B. for C. against
37. A. success B. successful C. successfully
38. A. share B. shared C. has shared
39. A. was moved B. am moved C. was moving
40. A. start B. to start C. starting
三、完形填空(本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Every year on my birthday since I was 11, a white gardenia(栀子花) was sent to my house. No card ever came with it. I called the flower shop, but it was not 41 at all. After some times, I stopped trying to 42 the sender's name and was just pleased with the beautiful flower in soft pink paper.
I couldn't stop 43 who the giver might be. Some of my 44 and sweetest moments were spent daydreaming(幻想) about the sender. My mother encouraged these daydreams. She would ask me if I had been especially 45 to someone. Perhaps it was one of my classmates, or the old man who I once helped. As a girl, I had more fun imagining that it might be a boy that I had 46 .
英语模拟卷(三) 第4页(共8页)
A month before my high school graduation, my father died. I was so sad that I became 47 uninterested in my coming graduation dance, and I didn't 48 whether I had a new dress or not. My mother, though she was in her own 49 , she would not let me miss any of those things. She wanted her children to 50 loved, to be much like the gardenia: lovely, strong and perfect.
My mother died ten years after I was married. That was the year the gardenia stopped coming.
41. A. wonderful B. beautiful C. careful D. helpful
42. A. work out B. look out C. find out D. take out
43. A. seeing B. imagining C. laughing D. listening
44. A. longest B. happiest C. fastest D. lightest
45. A. kind B. shy C. rude D. opposite
46. A. gone over B. come over C. gone across D. come across
47. A. completely B. mostly C. mainly D. hardly
48. A. change B. care C. advise D. improve
49. A. surprise B. sadness C. anger D. happiness
50. A. sound B. look C. feel D. smell
四、阅读理解(本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分)
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
Tips for a Worry-Free Camping Trip We bring you the best camping tips. Whether you're new to camping or want to improve your skills, this is a must-read before you go to a campsite(营地). General camping tips: ·The weather changes a lot and checking the weather will give you a good idea of what to prepare. ·You won't know what you really need until you try camping a few times. It's fine to be prepared for all situations. There's nothing wrong with being over-prepared. Camping food and cooking tips: ·You should always cook in an open space but never cook inside your tent because it may cause a fire risk. Check out some camping recipes(食谱) and prepare all of the food you need before you go to the campsite. ·Food waste can get blown around by the wind. To prevent harm to wildlife and unhappy neighbors, collect and take away any litter or leftovers(残羹) at the campsite. Tent tips: ·The size of a tent is described by the maximum(最大的) number of people that can sleep inside it. We suggest buying a tent that is at least one size up from the amount of people sleeping in it for more space. ·Putting up a tent in the dark isn't an enjoyable experience, especially if it's one of your first times. Plan to arrive in the daytime to make it more convenient to set up your tent. If you have any questions or feedback about camping, feel free to reach out to us at funcamping@. We'd love to hear from you!
51. How many general camping tips are mentioned in the passage
A.5. B.4. C.3. D.2.
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52. Before camping, we should check the weather to .
A. know what to bring B. learn where to hide from the rain
C. know where to set up our tent D. learn what wildlife will show up
53. According to the tips, what should we do if we cook at the campsite
A. Cook inside the tent. B. Learn some recipes before we go.
C. Leave the leftovers for wildlife. D. Buy the food when we get to the campsite.
54. It is suggested that we buy a larger tent so .
A. it has more space inside B. it can prevent the wind
C. it will be easier to put it up D. it will protect us from wildlife
55. How can we get more information about camping
A. By phone. B. By social media. C. By letter. D. By e-mail.
B
Gourds(葫芦) have a history of about 7,000 years in China. These special-shaped plants are used for cooking delicious dishes as well as making musical instruments. But today we are talking about the pyrography craft(烙画工艺) on gourds.
The craft originated during the Han Dynasty at first and entered its golden age during the Qing Dynasty. Many cities of China like Tianjin and Beijing are well-known for such gourds. Take the craft from Beijing as an example. As the family's fourth-generation inheritor(继承人) of Beijing's gourd-pyrography craft, Niu Chengguo has been working hard on the craft for about 40 years. With his great love for beautiful things, Niu has kept improving his art skills and created many works of art.
“When I was a little boy, I was deeply touched by the lively patterns(图案) on gourds which were created by my grandpa. I began studying how to create the artworks with the help of my grandpa when I was 11 years old,” said Niu.
Niu's efforts to create wonderful artworks paid off, as his artworks sold well in many countries in Southeast Asia, Europe and America. Many of his works have appeared in different cultural exchange (交流) activities. As a result, the gourd-pyrography craft is becoming more popular.
In 2021, Niu started to provide a platform to help visitors enjoy the beauty of the gourd-pyrography craft. “I just want to make the traditional craft known and liked by more people,”Niu said.
56. What can gourds be used for according to Paragraph 1
A. Holding dishes. B. Making music.
C. Making houses. D. Creating artworks.
57. What does the underlined word“originated”mean in Paragraph 2
A. Returned. B. Appeared. C. Spread. D. Stopped.
58. What does the third paragraph mainly talk about
A. How hard Niu learned the gourd-pyrography craft.
B. How Niu developed an interest in the gourd-pyrography craft.
C. Why Niu's grandpa taught himself the gourd-pyrography craft.
D. What Niu has done to improve his artistic skills.
59. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. Niu's works have an influence on cultural exchanges.
B. Niu's works are only popular in most Asian countries.
C. Niu's works helped visitors create their own gour d artworks.
D. Niu is a third-generation inheritor of the gourd-pyrography craft in his family.
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60. What is the main purpose of the passage
A. To describe the development of the gourd-pyrography craft.
B. To introduce an inheritor of the gourd-pyrography craft.
C. To help people learn how to make the gourd-pyrography craft popular.
D. To encourage people to pass on Chinese traditional craft.
C
配对阅读。左栏是五个人的信息介绍，右栏是七个软件的介绍，请为这五个人选择合适的软件，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
61. John is a businessman who often travels to different countries for work. He needs a messaging app to communicate with his teammates. 62. Emily is a social media influencer who loves to share her photos with her followers. She hardly posts short videos. 63. Mike often needs to book a ride from the airport to his hotel. He knows the road well. 64. Sarah is a music lover who enjoys listening to different kinds of songs. Also, she likes to download pieces of music. 65. David is an online shopper who loves to look through different online stores for the best deals. A. App 1: Users can listen to millions of songs on it. And it also has recommendations( 推荐) based on a user's listening history. B. App 2: It has become popular for its different videos and the ability to easily create and share videos. C. App 3: It is a popular choice besides traditional taxis and people can use it in many cities around the world. D. App 4: It shows directions and traffic updates. It is often used for getting directions when visiting new places. E. App 5: It allows users to send and receive text messages, voice messages, photos and videos. It is widely used for personal and business communication. F. App 6: It allows users to shop for different products, from books to clothing. Sometimes there are big discounts(折扣) so customers can pay less. G. App 7: It is a social media app that allows users to share photos and videos with their followers at any time and any place.
五、短文填空(本大题共10 小题，每小题1.5分，共15分)
请从方框内选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词，每词仅用一次，有两词为多余项。请将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
if to age with good they often problem active collect question believe
When Justin was a child, his parents always let him do lots of housework such as taking out the rubbish and sending newspapers. His childhood friends 66 felt sorry for him. But when he grew up, he was 67 than his childhood friends and lived a happier and healthier life.
According to a 40-year study, the children will have a richer and a happier future 68 they work hard in childhood. Helping do the housework is one of the most important childhood activities.These children 69 they can do something to the world. They feel they are important members of the world. And because they felt good about 70 , others felt good about them, too.
The study 71 all the information about these children. It followed them when they were at ages 25, 31 and 47. The researchers compared the children's mental-health(心理健康) grades 72
英语模拟卷(三) 第7页(共8页)
their childhood-activity grades. It showed that children were healthier when they took a(n) 73 part in childhood activities, such as doing housework and doing part-time jobs.
And these children were more likely to work hard in school and solve 74 on their own. No matter how old people are, working at any 75 is important. It helps the child understand that people must work together and work toward common goals.
六、读写综合(本大题分为A、B 两部分，共25分)
A.回答问题(本题共5 小题，每小题2分，共10分)
请阅读下面短文，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整切题，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
Nowadays, health is becoming more and more important. Recently, researchers at Indiana State University did four health studies.
First, they did a study on laughter. They found that laughter is good for health. It can produce feel-good hormones(荷尔蒙) which help make people feel happy. Moreover, laughter can reduce stress and the chances of getting cancer.
Second, they did a study to help people learn how to forgive(原谅) others and live healthier lives. They found that increases in forgiveness might be good for people's health.
Third, as for whether people should keep exercising if they don't feel well, they did a study. They believed that if the symptoms(症状) are“above the neck”, including a run ny nose(流鼻涕), or a little sore throat, it is fine to exercise. But people should take a break if illness appears“below the neck”. They include a high body temperature and a sense of feeling tired.
Fourth, they did a study about breakfast. They found that breakfast can help people control blood pressure. Having no breakfast can increase the risk of heart problems. The people who don't eat breakfast may be more likely to eat snacks, smoke and drink. It's not good for people's health.
76. Why does laughter make people feel happy
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
79. What can breakfast help people control
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将写作内容写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
81.假设你是李华，最近你发现了班里的同学有一些不健康的生活习惯，为了呼吁同学们关注自己的健康,你将在以“Healthy Habits Are Important”为主题的班会上发言。请你用英语写一篇发言稿。内容包括：
(1)你们班同学有哪些不健康的生活习惯(例如饮食、运动、作息等方面)；
(2)对如何保持健康提出建议(至少两点)；
(3)呼吁同学们培养健康的生活习惯。
注意：
(1)不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和考生的真实姓名。
(2)语句连贯，词数80左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。
Good morning, everyone. I am Li Hua. I want to talk about healthy habits today.
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