2023-2024学年高一期末联考
英语试 题
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
考试时间为 120分钟,满分150分
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分7.5 分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How often does the man's son work at the bookstore
A. Twice a week. B. Three times a week. C. Four times a week.
2. What did the man buy Sally probably
A. Gloves. B. Flowers. C. A book.
3. What do the speakers want to do
A. Watch a match. B. Play a sport. C. Drink some juice.
4. How did the man learn skating
A. By taking classes. B. By learning from friends. C. By watching videos online.
5. What are the speakers probably talking about
A. A website. B. A course. C. A restaurant.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分, 满分 22.5 分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话,回答第6、7题。
6. What does the woman think of her job
A. It's enjoyable. B. It's well-paid. C. It's difficult.
7. What does the man suggest doing
A. Changing a job. B. Planning a holiday. C. Visiting some friends.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. When was the man promoted to marketing manager
A. In 2018. B. In 2019. C. In 2020.
9. What do we know about the man
A. He won a design championship.
B. He majored in business management.
C. He got much experience from Mattel.
10. What's the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Boss and secretary. B. Interviewer and interviewee. C. Business partners.
听第8段材料, 回答第11 至 13题。
11. What is the man going to do next
A. Cook dinner. B. Pick up his sisters. C. Go shopping.
12. What does the woman think of the man
A. He is proud. B. He is helpful. C. He is busy.
13. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. See her aunts off.
B. Make some new friends.
C. Go to her graduation ceremony.
听第9段材料,回答第14至 16题。
14. What is the man doing
A. He is looking for a hotel.
B. He is renting an apartment.
C. He is finding a roommate.
15. Why does the man choose the Harley Street
A. It is near his office.
B. The houses here are quite cheap.
C. It has enough parking spaces.
16. What will the man probably do next
A. Talk with his friend. B. Go to see the rooms. C. Make payment.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker
A. A tourist. B. A tour guide. C. A reporter.
18. Why does the speaker recommend Top of the Rock
A. It's the cheapest.
B. It offers relaxing drinks.
C. It has wonderful views of New York.
19. What can people do on the second day
A. Go for a picnic. B. Watch an art show. C. Visit Greenwich Village.
20. What is Three Lives & Company
A. It's a bar. B. It's a bookstore. C. It's a park.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50 分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
It's Community Day again!
The event that Maple Estate (住宅区) residents are eagerly looking forward to is just around the corner! As usual, the Maple Residents’ Committee has planned a programme that is designed to promote community spirit. Maple Estate has been celebrating Community Day every month for more than a year. By now, we hope all our residents understand the importance of forming strong connections with our neighbours. If you have just moved to our lovely estate and have not had the opportunity to know your neighbours, you can do so by joining at Community Day!
“My wife and I moved to Maple Estate when we got married. For a few months, we spent all our free time after work doing up our house. Even though we knew that our neighbours were friendly and would sometimes invite us for their gatherings, we were busy with getting things ready. However, it wasn't long before we grew curious about the Community Day celebrations. After we started attending them monthly, we met many neighbours. The first time we invited some of them over, we played games that helped us to get to know one another better!”
——Mr. Wang, a Maple Estate resident since 2022
21. What do the Community Day events aim to do
A. To teach how to cook meals. B. To develop community spirit.
C. To meet diverse needs of neighbours. D. To make the community cleaner.
22. What do you have to do if you want to take part in the Maple Estate Cooks
A. To sign up before 21 July, 2024. B. To provide basic materials.
C. To use your own kitchen equipment. D. To pay a registration fee of $50.
23. Mr. and Mrs. Wang didn't socialize with their neighbours much at first because .
A. they spent all their time at work
B. they weren't invited for the gatherings
C. they were busy beautifying their home
D. they had no information about the program
B
“I first saw the Great Wall on a map in 1967 when I was only 11 years old. I spent a long time trying to work out how long the Great Wall was, but I failed. I thought I would surely go there one day,” said William Lindesay, a Great Wall researcher from the UK.
The Englishman did what he said. He came to China in 1986 with a plan to run the whole length of the Great Wall. But that year his goal was not achieved. William came back a year later and realized his dream. In 1990, he decided to live in China. Then he bought a farmhouse near the Great Wall.
“Many people wonder why I'm obsessed greatly by the Great Wall. The first reason is that it's beautiful, and the second thing is that it's outdoors. There's history in the outdoors. You need to move to discover it. And the third point is it's fun. The Great Wall is in my mind every day,” said William.
William's younger son Thomas said, “I often describe my childhood as ‘wild’, staying at the foot of the Great Wall almost every weekend. It's amazing because not many people get to see such world heritage all the time, and I got to see it all year around.” His elder son James said, “Living here has a lot of effect on how I see the Great Wall. It's almost like my backyard, so I should protect it.”
William has published 11 books about the Great Wall in 30 years. He has also completed several photo projects on the Great Wall. “It made me so happy when our film was shown on the BBC. For the first time we got an hour and a half to open the eyes of the British , and show them what the Great Wall is. We received lots of emails from people saying that they really enjoyed it and didn't know that China was so beautiful. I became a ‘Great Wall ambassador (大使)’,”said William.
24. What do we know about William Lindesay
A. He runs a farm near the Great Wall.
B. He measured the length of Great Wall in 1986.
C. His father was an expert on the Great Wall.
D. He didn't climb the Great Wall in his teens.
25. What does the underlined word “obsessed” mean in paragraph 3
A. Reminded. B. Attracted. C. Struck. D. Buried.
26. Why Thomas and James are mentioned in paragraph 4
A. To introduce their home's location.
B. To encourage people to protect the Great Wall.
C. To describe the childhood of William's children.
D. To show the Great Wall's impact on William's children.
27. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. William's sons will work in the film industry.
B. William has become a famous director for his film.
C. William has promoted the spread of Chinese culture abroad.
D. William will work for the Chinese government in the future.
C
Groundhog(土拨鼠) Day falls on February 2! Every year on this day, a crowd gathers in Punxsutawney, Pennsylvania to see whether a groundhog named Phil will come out of his hole. If the sun is shining and he sees his shadow before going back into his hole, it means winter will last six more weeks. But if the day is cloudy and he remains outside, spring will come early. Curiously, Phil is not alone. In the region around Milan, tradition has it that if the bear comes out of his hole on this day and sees its shadow due to clear weather, he will be able to make himself a nice dry bed and then he'll want to keep on sleeping. This will show that the winter will continue. But if it's a rainy day, the bear will have to stay out—and spring will come soon.
“These traditions can be traced back to Indo-European civilizations 3,000-5,000 years ago,” says Venetian historian Elena Righetto. “That's why they are spread all over Europe,” she explains. The deepest meaning of the tradition, according to Righetto, is in its seemingly contradictory (矛盾的) nature. It might seem illogical (不合逻辑的) that cold days mean the coming of spring, or that groundhogs and bears would decide to stay out just when the weather is bad.
“The idea is that the darkest moment, when everything seems to go wrong, is when we experience a rebirth, a new life,” explains Righetto. There is a thought that life comes from darkness, just as plants start to grow from the seeds left underground during winter. This thought is so powerful that it crossed countries and survived centuries.
These traditions don't protect people from bad weather, death, or illness, but they protect them emotionally from some of the anxiety related to those coming realities. They don't solve the real problem, but they solve the mental problem—they help you live through the hard times of life. In a way, if we can believe in the magical powers of groundhogs and bears, we might find even a longer winter a bit warmer and friendlier.
28. What can we learn from paragraph 1
A. Animals are cleverer than humans.
B. The groundhog dislikes his shadow.
C. The bear prefers to sleep in the dry bed.
D. A sunny Groundhog Day means a longer winter.
29. What does the second paragraph talk about
A. The origin of the traditions. B. The nature of the world.
C. The laws of the nature. D. Indo-European civilizations.
30. Which is a benefit of these traditions
A. They can prevent bad weather. B. They can provide emotional support.
C. They can solve the real problem. D. They can exercise magical powers.
31. What is the author's attitude towards the idea behind the traditions
A. Doubtful. B. Puzzled. C. Respectful. D. Uncertain.
D
Marian Bechtel sits at West Palm Beach's Bar Louie counter by herself, quietly reading her e-book as she waits for her salad. What is she reading None of your business! Lunch is Bechtel's “me” time. And like more Americans, she's not alone.
A new report found 46 percent of meals are eaten alone in America. More than half (53 percent)have breakfast alone and nearly half (46 percent) have lunch by themselves. Only at dinnertime are we eating together, 74 percent, according to statistics (数据) from the report.
“I prefer to go out and be out. Alone, but together, you know ” Bechtel said, looking up from her book. Bechtel, who works in down town West Palm Beach, has lunch with coworkers sometimes, but like many of us, too often works through lunch at her desk. A lunchtime escape allows her to keep a boss from tapping her on the shoulder. She return s to work feeling energized. “Today, I just wanted some time to myself,” she said.
Just two seats over, Andrew Mazoleny, a local videographer, is finishing his lunch at the bar. He likes that he can sit and check his phone in peace or chat up the barkeep er with whom he's on a first-name basis if he wants to have a little interaction (交流).“I reflect on how my day's gone and think about the rest of the week,” he said. “It's a chance for self-reflection. You return to work recharged and with a plan.”
That freedom to choose is one reason more people like to eat alone. There was a time when people may have felt awkward about asking for a table for one, but those days are over. Now, we have our smartphones to keep us company at the table. “It doesn't feel as alone as it may have before all the advances in technology,” said Laurie Demeritt, whose company provided the statistics for the report.
32. What are the statistics in paragraph 2 about
A. Food variety. B. Eating habits. C. Table manners. D. Restaurant service.
33. Why does Bechtel prefer to go out for lunch
A. To meet with her coworkers. B. To catch up with her work.
C. To have some time on her own. D. To collect data for her report.
34. Why is Mazoleny mentioned in paragraph 4
A. To show the popularity of the bar. B. To stress the significance of work.
C. To give an example of healthy eating. D. To explain another reason for the phenomenon.
35. What is the text mainly about
A. The tendency to having meals alone. B. The importance of self-reflection.
C. The stress from working overtime. D. The advantage of wireless technology.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Have you ever thought of the reasons why we had better learn a second language As a matter of fact, in today's highly-connected world, it has many benefits. Here are a few of them.
It helps you better understand the world.
Learning a language isn't just about learning words and grammar. 36 Learning new languages can broaden your horizons and bring you closer to people of different nationalities. You may develop a deep app recitation for another culture, or become friends with some one totally different from you.
37
As you learn and get better at the language, you'll find that you have increased self-awareness and more confidence using your second language, which can also make you more attractive to others! Truly , people will respect the fact that you're learning another language. Native speakers will be impressed with your efforts; friends and family will be proud of you; and strangers will be interested in your story.
It makes you smarter.
Believe it or not, it is said that learning a second language improves your memory and strengthens your problem-solving abilities. 38 The more you use your brain to learn, the more powerful your brain will become.
You can help more people.
39 Perhaps it's obvious, but speaking another language allows you to help more people. There are volunteer programs around the world where multilingual (多语言的) speakers are valuable to the team. Being the bridge of communication between cultures is a great feeling, and the joy you'll get from helping someone in need will make all the hard work of learning the language worth it.
There are so many positive effects of learning a second language. 40
A. It improves your creativity.
B. It can build up your self-confidence.
C. It allows you to connect on a deeper level.
D. Studying a foreign language doesn't have to be all about you.
E. So choose a language that you find exciting and benefit from it.
F. This is because learning languages helps your brain exercise.
G. It's also about learning about the history and culture of a country.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
With spring approaching, a foot of snow that had fallen rapidly melt (融化). The runoff from the hills had filled the rivers and formed little 41 of water in the road. Broken tree branches were everywhere. I was 42 home and suddenly saw one of these branches 43 across the road. It was big enough to damage my car if I didn't 44 in time so I stepped on the brakes(刹车) and 45 my emergency flashers. 46 there were no other cars there yet. But I knew that it would only be a matter of 47 before one crashed into that branch, causing a(n) 48 and even death.
I 49 my car and tried to pull the branch to the roadside. It was a lot 50 than I thought but I started to 51 it. I pulled it off the road slowly. When it was finally moved to the side I stood up and felt 52 . Just as I did, though, a little red car passed by 53 , hit a pool of water in the road and made my pants wet. I wasn't 54 but laughed at the absurdity (荒谬) of it all.
Sometimes we all do good things in this life only to get dirty water. When this happens just remember that the real reason you do good is because of the 55 inside of you.
41. A. steps B. sorts C. pools D. footprints
42. A. walking B. driving C. riding D. running
43. A. standing B. hanging C. sitting D. lying
44. A. clap B. reflect C. stop D. examine
45. A. turned on B. broke down C. folded up D. checked on
46. A. Thankfully B. Generally C. Surprisingly D. Hopefully
47. A. position B. order C. rank D. time
48. A. fight B. injury C. construction D. rejection
49. A. got out of B. pulled over C. slowed down D. put away
50. A. shorter B. longer C. heavier D. easier
51. A. observe B. leave C. replace D. move
52. A. scared B. upset C. relieved D. relaxed
53. A. politely B. quickly C. gratefully D. carefully
54. A. flexible B. angry C. pleasant D. brave
55. A. kindness B. curiosity C. anxiety D. regret
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
To be in memory of Li Qingzhao, one of the best known female poets in Chinese history, the 1stInternational Qingzhao Poetry and Arts Festival will be held 56 June 20 and 27, 2024 at the poet's birthplace, today's Zhangqiu of Jinan in Shandong province.
During the festival, famous poets, artists and translators from home and abroad will gather at the ancient city to join in 57 (variety) activities, including poetry readings, and international poetry salons.
58 (stress) poetry as a medium connecting many kinds of art forms, the festival also contains painting, music, theater, and cinema, 59 content reflects petiteness (诗意). And two poetry awards for young poets and university students 60 (present) after selection. Therefore, a host of public-facing activities, including poetry theaters, poetry and folk music 61 (concert),poetry film screenings, art exhibitions and a poetry market will be held during the event.
“Regarding the young poet awards, we'd better not make it a general award for good poets or poetry achievements,” said the festival's director Jiang Tao, 62 Chinese language professor at Peking University. “Instead, we should use our judging process 63 ( discover) and encourage those who have true achievements in concepts, language, and even in terms of the relationship between poetry and society. We also expected to discover youngsters who can 64 ( true) break new ground in the 65 (exist) landscape of modern poetry,” he added.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是某国际学校高一学生李华,你的新西兰同学 Brenda在主题为“Diverse Culture”的演讲比赛中获得了第一名。请你给她写一封邮件表示祝贺,内容包括:
1.祝贺演讲成功;
2.你的感受。
注意:
1.词数80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Dear Brenda,
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
When I started karate (空手道) class a few years ago, I didn't know a single person. I felt ashamed of having no idea how to do any of the moves. Even though I liked the learning part, I did not like the feeling-worse-than-everyone part!
But one day after class while I was putting my shoes on, a girl named Abigail said, “That last kick we practiced is so hard for me, and you're so good at it.”
“You must have confused me with someone else,” I replied. “I'm not good at any of it.”
“In that case, I'm in trouble,” she joked, “because you're the one I stand behind and copy in class.”
I laughed, “Seriously ”
“Seriously!” she laughed, too. After that, we became great friends. However, a few months later when Abigail's mom got a job in a different state and she had to move away, I was rather sad. I had a tough time going to the karate class for a while after that because I missed Abigail so much.
Then, a girl named Ava joined my class. She was always quiet. Until one day we finally had a conversation.
“It must be weird (怪异的) being the new one in class.” I said.
“So weird!” said Ava. “You do things really differently than we did at my old dojo (柔道馆).”
I suddenly realized she'd been silent only because she was new. We started talking more , and we got along so well that we started hanging out after class. Then, almost a year later, guess who showed up at karate.
“This is so cool.” I said, giving Abigail a huge hug. “What are you doing here ”
“My mom's job in New York didn't work out,” she explained. “So we got to move back.”
“That's the best news ever!” I said. “You have to meet my dear friend Ava. And Ava, meet my dear friend Abigail.”
I put my arms around their shoulders. Feeling very excited, I told them I hoped we could get along well and be close friends, while Abigail and Ava stared at each other with some hesitation and an uncertain smile.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Things seemed all right at first.
One day, I simply could not stand it anymore.
2023-2024 学年高一期末联考
英语参考答案及评分意见
听力
1-5 BACCA 6-10 ABCCB 11-15 CBCBA 16-20 ABCAB
阅读
A 篇 本文为应用文,主要介绍 Community Day的活动详情。
21-23 BAC
21. B 细节理解题。根据文中第一段中“As usual, the Maple Residents’ Committee has planned a programme that is designed to promote community spirit”可知,活动目的是为了发展社区精神。
22. A 细节理解题。根据文中方框内“Remember to register before 21 July,2024”可知答案。
23. C 细节理解题。根据最后一段中“For a few months, we spent all our free time after work doing up our house”可知,他们那时在忙着装修房子。
B篇 本文是一篇记叙文,文章主要讲述了来自英国的 William Lindesay 对长城的喜爱。
24-27 DBDC
24. D 细节理解题。根据第一段“I first saw the Great Wall on a map in 1967 when I was only 11 years old. I spent a long time trying to work out how long the Great Wall was, but I failed. I thought I would surely go there one day”和第二段的第一句话“The Englishman did what he said. He came to China in 1986 with a plan to run the whole length of the Great Wall.”可知, William Lindesay 十几岁时没爬过长城。
25.B 词义猜测题。根据第三段内容可知,William 给出了喜欢长城的三个原因,由此推知,划线句讲的是他被长城吸引的原因,故划线词为“吸引,着迷”的意思。
26.D 推理判断题。根据文章第四段 William的小儿子和大儿子说话内容可知,长城对他们的影响很大,尤其是“It's amazing because not many people get to see such world heritage all the time”以及“Living here has a lot of effect on how I see the Great Wall. It's almost like my backyard, so I should protect it.”
27. C 推理判断题。根据最后一段“…didn’t know that China was so beautiful. I became a ‘Great Wall ambassador’”可推知,William 推进了中国文化在国外的传播。
C 篇 本文为说明文,介绍“土拨鼠日”的传统及意义。
28-31 DABC
28.D 推理判断题。根据第一段可知,如果2月 2 日是好天气意味着冬天会更长。
29.A 段落大意题。根据第二段可知,该段讲述了动物预测天气的起源及背后的互相矛盾的逻辑根源。
30. B 推理判断题。根据最后一段中Traditions don't protect people from bad weather, death, or illness, but they protect them emotionally from some of the anxiety related to those coming realities. It doesn't solve the real problem, but it solves the mental problem—it helps you live through the hard times of life.可知,这些传统给人们提供了情感支持。
31.C 细节理解题。根据文中描述,尤其是最后一段,可知,作者是尊重这种传统的。
D篇 本文是一篇说明文。据一份报告显示,越来越多的美国人喜欢独自用餐,并通过两个实例加以说明,文章总结了人们喜欢独自用餐的原因。
32-35 BCDA
32.B 推理判断题。根据第二段可知,在美国,约有46%的人们独自用餐,53%的人们独自吃早餐,46%的人们独自吃午餐……,故可知本段的数据是关于用餐习惯。
33.C 细节理解题。根据第三段可知,Bechtel一个人吃午饭可以让她逃离老板的关注,给自己留一些自由时间。
34.D 推理判断题。根据第四段可知,Mazoleny 喜欢这样的气氛,因为可以坐在那里安静查看手机信息,或者想聊天了,可以直呼吧台服务员名字和他聊天,这对他也是一个自我反思的机会。故可知,提到 Mazoleny 是为了解释他单独用餐的原因。
35.A 主旨大意题。本文通过一份调查结果显示美国人喜欢独自用餐的趋势,并总结了人们选择独自用餐的原因。
七选五 本文是一篇说明文。在当今这个高度互联的世界里,学习第二语言有很多好处。
36-40 GBFDE
36. G 根据上文中的 isn't just about 可知,G项中 is also about 与上文衔接紧密,学习一门语言不仅仅是学习单词和语法。这也是关于了解一个国家的历史和文化。
37.B 根据本段的内容可知,主要介绍了学习第二语言可以增强自信心。
38.F 根据空前“学习第二语言可以提高你的记忆力,增强你解决问题的能力”,可知,F项“这是因为学习语言有助于锻炼你的大脑。”because 用来解释前文的原因。
39.D 根据小标题可知,本段讲述学习第二语言不仅仅有对自身提升的好处,还可以帮助别人。
40.E 本段句首总结了学习第二语言的好处很多,进而呼吁读者学习,承接上文。
完形填空 本文是一篇记叙文,讲述一则爱心故事:担心出事故,作者费力地把路上的树枝移开。
41-45 CBDCA 46-50 ADBAC 51-55 DCBBA
41. C 考查名词。根据后文53空后hit a pool of water in the road 可知,来自山丘的融雪径流灌满了河流,在道路上形成了一个个的小水塘。
42. B 考查动词。根据下句 It was big enough to damage my car可知,作者正在开车回家。
43. D 考查动词。根据49空后 pull the branch to the roadside 可知,作者正在开车回家,突然看到一根树枝横在马路上。
44.C 考查动词。根据句意可知,如果作者不及时停车的话,树枝已经大到足以损坏他的车了。stop停下来。
45.A 考查动词短语。如果作者不及时停车的话,树枝已经大到足以损坏他的车了,所以作者踩刹车并打开应急双闪灯。
46.A 考查副词。谢天谢地,那里还没有其他汽车。
47.D 考查名词。那里还没有其他汽车,但作者知道,车撞到树枝上可能会造成受伤甚至死亡只是时间问题。a matter of time 时间的问题。
48.B 考查名词。但作者知道,车撞到树枝上可能会造成受伤甚至死亡只是时间问题。injury受伤。
49. A 考查动词短语。作者从车里出来,想要把树枝拉到路边去。got out of 从…出来。
50. C 考查形容词。根据下文I pulled it off the road slowly.可知,树枝比作者想的重得多。
51.D 考查动词。树枝比作者想的重得多,但作者开始移动它,一寸寸把它从路上移走。
52.C 考查形容词。上文叙述,如果不移开树枝,迟早会出事故造成伤亡。所以该句表达,当终于安全把树枝移到路边时,作者站了起来,感到松了一口气。
53.B 考查副词。然而,就在作者这么做的时候,一辆红色的小车迅速驶过,轧上路上的一滩水,溅到了作者的裤子上。
54.B 考查形容词。根据句意可知,作者没有生气而是觉得这种荒唐的行为很可笑。
55.A 考查名词。故事叙述,担心出事故,作者费力地把路上的树枝移开。这是一则爱心故事。所以最后总结:有时候,我们在这一生中做了好事,结果却得到了脏水。当这种情况发生时,请记住,你做好事的真正原因是你内心的善良。
语法填空 本文是一篇说明文,主要介绍了首届清照国际诗歌艺术节。
56. between考查介词。根据后面的June 20 and 27 可知, between……and 意为“在······之间”,符合语境。
57. various/varied 考查词性转换。根据后面的名词activities 可知,此处应用形容词作定语。
58.Stressing考查非谓语动词。句意:突出诗歌作为连接多种艺术形式的媒介。这里用现在分词作状语。
59. whose 考查定语从句。句意:这节日的内容体现诗意。whose 代指“节日的”。
60. will be presented 考查动词的时态和语态。此处应用被动语态,且讲述的是将来的情况,用一般将来时的被动语态。
61.concerts考查名词复数。句意:因此,活动期间将举办一系列面向公众的活动,包括诗歌剧院、诗歌和民间音乐音乐会、诗歌电影放映、艺术展览和诗歌市场。
62. a考查冠词。此处表示泛指“一个”,故用a。
63.to discover考查非谓语动词。句意:相反,我们应该利用我们的评判过程来发现和鼓励那些在内容上 有真正成就的人。这里用动词不定式作目的状语。
65.truly 考查副词。句意:我们也很希望发现那些真正能够在现有的现代诗歌领域开辟新天地的年轻人。此处应用副词修饰动词。
65. existing考查现在分词。句意:同上。此处用现在分词作定语。
书面表达
Dear Brenda,
Congratulations on winning the first prize in the “Diverse Culture” speech contest! I am so proud of you and your amazing achievement. Your speech was both powerful and educational, and it truly thought highly of the beauty of different cultures coming together.
Listening to your speech made me realize the importance of welcoming diversity and understanding each other's cultures. It was truly inspiring to see you speak with such confidence on such an important topic.
Keep up the perfect work, Brenda! I am confident that you will continue to stand out in everything you do.
Best regards!
Yours,
Li Hua
读后续写
Things seemed all right at first. However, with time going by, conflicts came out. Abigail always complained that every time I hung out with Ava, she was left alone, while Ava said that I paid more attention to Abigail, which drove her crazy, believing that our friendship was not what it used to be. Trapped in the dilemma, I, surrounded by the sense of sadness, still felt confused why things turned out to be that troublesome, not knowing how to deal with the problem. Worse still, karate even became the most frightening thing to me.
One day, I simply could not stand it anymore. With tears streaming down my cheeks, I stopped them from arguing and said with a deep sigh, “Why can't you get along with each other well Both of you are my best friends.” Hearing my words, they didn't utter a single word, sinking into a deep silence. After what seemed like a century, Ava finally placed her arm with unaccustomed affection around Abigail's shoulders. Seeing this scene, I took a breath with relief and burst into laughter.
书面表达
各档次的给分范围和要求:
第四档(13 分~15 分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
1)内容完整,条理清楚;
2)交际得体,表达时充分考虑到了交际对象的需求,体现出较强的语言运用能力;
3)完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(9分~12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
1)内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求;
2)所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求;
3)语法或用词方面有一些错误,但不影响理解;
4)基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4分~8分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
1)内容不完整;
2)所用词汇有限,语法或用词方面的错误影响了对写作内容的理解;
3)未能清楚地传达信息。
第一档(1分~3 分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
1)写了少量相关信息;
2)语法或用词方面错误较多,严重影响了对写作内容的理解。
不得分(0分)
未传达任何信息;写作内容与要求无关。
读后续写
各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档 (21~25 分)
1)与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理;
2)所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达;
3)有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档 (16~20 分)
1)与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理;
2)所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达;
3)比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档 (11~15 分)
1)与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;
2)应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,是有一些错误,但不影响意义表达;
3)应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档 (6~10分)
1)与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;
2)语法结构单调、词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达;
3)较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档 (1~5分)
1)与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差;
2)语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达;
3)缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
不得分(0分)
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
听力原文
Text 1
W:I hear your son is working part-time at the bookstore.
M:Yes. He works on Wednesday and Friday in the afternoon and all day on Sunday.
Text 2
M: Hi, Helen. We need to prepare something for Sally's party, don't we
W: Yes. I've bought her a book. I was going to buy her flowers but they only last for a few days.
M: Yes, I thought about flowers, too, but then I thought she might need some new gloves for walking her dog.
Text 3
W: That was a good game! We almost won!
M: Yeah. We tried really hard. Now I'm tired and thirsty!
W:I'm thirsty, too. My mom just bought some orange juice. We can have some when we get back to my house.
M:That's a good idea!
Text 4
W:I learned skating from my friends, but I didn't seem to improve. Should I take some classes
M: Well, when I started skating, I found a website with many videos showing people the best way to learn. That's what helped me. Maybe you can try that, too.
Text 5
M: So what should I improve
W:The home page is pretty good. It's clear and easy to follow, but you sometimes spend ages trying to search for something, which is really annoying. The menu is quite user-friendly though.
Text 6
M: Hi Sandy! How's your job
W: It's great. I don't make much money but I'm not doing it for the money really, and the work is quite easy. Also, I work with my two best friends, so we have a lot of fun.
M: Great! You need to enjoy the money you make as well. Why don't we go away for a few days in the summer and see if some of our friends want to come with us, too
W: OK. Let's send messages to them.
Text 7
M:Thank you for meeting with me, Mrs. Anderson.
W: It's good to see you too. To get started, could you tell me a little bit about yourself
M:Yes. I graduated from Otis College in June 2018 with a master's degree in Toy Design. At the same month, I worked at Mattel, and two years later I was promoted to marketing manager.
W: What achievement did you make
M: The sales have grown greatly. I was the sales champion for four years.
W: So why did you quit your job
M: It's been a great experience, but I've run out of room to grow there and I'm looking for new opportunities.
W: Great. I will call you back in three days about our final decision.
M: Okay. Thank you very much.
Text 8
M: Hi, Marie, you are graduating this week, right Where will the graduation ceremony be held
W:Yes, and the ceremony will be held in the school's lecture hall. What are you doing here
M:I have to run to the grocery store for my mom. Her two sisters from China arrived yesterday, and they are planning to have a big feast.
W: Wow, your mother must be very busy. And she's surely proud to have a son like you to help her out. My graduation ceremony will start at 10:00 a. m. this Sunday. Will you be able to come
M: Can I come I think only your family members are allowed to attend.
W: Don't worry. I can invite a friend of mine.
M:That's great. I'll certainly be with you. But I'll be a little late. I'll need to take my aunts to the train station at 9:00a. m.
W: Okay. See you then.
Text 9
W: Hello, Broom Cupboard Real Estate. How can I help you
M: Hey, I'm looking for an apartment for rent.
W: Do you know which area you'd like to live in
M: Near Harley Street would make sense, since my office isn't far away. Could you give me a price range
W: Well, around 800 to 1,200 a month. Are you alone or with your friend
M: It's not as cheap as I thought. I'll be sharing it with a friend. He prefers a place without too much noise.
W: There's one just right for you. Anything else
M:Oh, I need a place with free parking. Could you tell me something about the apartment
W:The living room is nice and bright. The bedrooms and the kitchen are large. The problem is that the car parking lots are limited.
M:Okay, but I will have to have a discussion with my friend first. And we will come together next week.
W: Fine, keep in touch.
Text 10
A good trip always requires proper planning. Today, I'm going to share with you about some places you must visit during your first trip to New York City. On the first day, if you want to see the best view of the city, I recommend Top of the Rock. The ticket starts at $40. You could also go to a rooftop bar to enjoy some drinks. If you're a night owl, I recommend going to Times Square before midnight. There you could see the world's largest digital art display. On the second day, we're going to Central Park. It's world-famous, so you can't miss it. You can go fishing and visit the Conservatory Garden. At Sheep Meadow, we are able to have a picnic. On the last day, walking around Greenwich Village and West Village in Manhattan is a requirement. Try some coffee at Porto Rico Importing Co. Washington Square Park is also a good place to relax and enjoy live music. If you like books, Three Lives & Company is a good choice. That's all about our trip.
The most interesting part of August: Maple Estate Cooks
Call all residents who are eager to practice your cooking skills and let your neighbours sample your cooking! You will be the stars of the upcoming event! Visit www.maplerc. sg for more information and to register for this activity. Kitchen equipment and basic materials will be provided. You will receive a $50 shopping voucher (代金券) that you can use to buy other materials from Maple Mart the day before the event. Remember to register before 21 July, 2024! We are sure everyone will enjoy the delicious dishes!
Time: From 10 a. m. to 6 p. m., 6 Aug., 2024
Place: Maple Community Club
Entry: Flash your Maple Resident Card