2023~2024学年第二学期期末试卷
高一英语 2024.06
第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What did the man do last night
A. He saw a movie. B. He went to the park. C. He booked some tickets.
2. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Collect a customer. B. Drive her to the airport. C. Look for Greg.
3. What relation is Tim to Jenny
A. Her head teacher. B. Her future husband. C. Her elder brother.
4. When will the first performance end
A. At 7:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:10.
5. What are the speakers talking about
A. A city. B. A book. C. A park.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where is the man going
A. To a library. B. To his home. C. To a cafe.
7. What does the man think of his part-time job
A. It’s badly-paid. B. It’s boring. C. It’s satisfactory.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9 题。
8. Who is answering the phone
A. Sam. B. Ben. C. Michelle.
9. What does the man want to do
A. Visit Ben tomorrow. B. Change the meeting time. C. Invite Michelle for lunch.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 10 至 12 题。
10. What do we know about Kemp Town Beach
A. It is known for its coastal walks.
B. It is near the man’s home.
C. The water there is clean.
11. Which beach will the speakers go to
A. Canvey Island Beach. B. Kemp Town Beach. C. Birling Gap Beach.
12. How will the speakers go to the beach
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By train.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 13 至 16 题。
13. Who encouraged the man to learn cooking
A. His grandmother. B. His mother. C. His teacher.
14. How long did the class last
A. 6 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 10 hours.
15. What did the man do after the first half hour
A. He made a meal. B. He tasted some dishes. C. He bought some foods.
16. How did the man feel at the end of the day
A. Tired. B. Dissatisfied. C. Happy.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. What does the speaker remind the listeners to do
A. Buy some photos first. B. Avoid taking pictures. C. Follow him into the gate.
18. Where is Marilyn Monroe’s house
A. On the left. B. On the right. C. Around the corner.
19. What is Joe Di Maggio
A. An actor. B. A basketball player. C. A baseball player.
20. Whose house is yellow
A. James Dean’s. B. Arnold Schwarzenegger’s. C. Joe Di Maggio’s.
第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
There are four healthy and tasty recipes that you can easily prepare at home.
Lemon pudding
If you want to start your day with a bright smile, this creamy, sweet and spicy recipe will surely work for you. It perfectly combines the great taste of lemon and honey. With the ease of preparation of the food, great taste and many health benefits, this is a great dessert added to your breakfast menu.
Curried (咖喱) chicken soup
For this recipe, your chicken will be cooked in sweet-smelling soup with butter and sweet potatoes. To make the soup, you will need curry powder, tomatoes, chicken, red wine, butter and milk. Let yourself enjoy this grateful meal as a reward for the long hours of tiring work.
Orange carrot smoothie (奶昔)
Prepare yourself a healthy drink to start your day. Orange carrot smoothie is an easy-to-prepare recipe that will give you a creamy and cold smoothie that will leave a wonderful taste, which will make you ask for more. With the great orange taste, your day is sure to be made. The carrot flavor also perfectly adds the mix of vegetable sweetness for a one-of-a-kind and tasty breakfast drink.
Boiled egg toast with butter
If you love simple flavor-packed and healthy meals, this toast is just the one. Make your egg toast to the next level through adding butter. This recipe will combine a great flavor combination that will surely satisfy you. With eating some for your breakfast, lunch or even for your dinner, eating has never been as well as it is with this toast.
21. What do we know about lemon pudding
A. It makes you smile the whole day. B. It is hard to prepare at home.
C. It has the taste of lemon and honey. D. It is a great addition to your supper menu.
22. Of the following recipes, which is the best choice after tiring work
A. Lemon pudding. B. Curried chicken soup.
C. Orange carrot smoothie. D. Boiled egg toast with butter.
23. What is special about boiled egg toast with butter
A. It includes some butter. B. It meets everyone’s needs.
C. It benefits our health. D. It is suitable for 3 meals a day.
B
When a woman was talkative while checking out at a Dollar General, her cashier, Emily Dunean didn’t think much of it. But she stayed attentive as the 85-year-old told her about herself. A man behind her in line noticed what was happening, too.
Gerald Swindle was in a hurry to go hunting that day and was a bit annoyed with how long their conversation was going. But as Gerald waited for his turn, his attitude began to change. Not only did he conclude that hunting wasn’t more important than their conversation, but found himself captivated by what the elderly woman said once he stopped to listen.
“You were patient with this lady,” Gerald later said in a video recalling what had happened. “You did nothing but followed her conversation, listening to every word she said, and never rushing her.”
He added, “You showed me what people ought to be. Sometimes it might be the only person they talk to this week. You inspired me and sometimes I need that, so I appreciate it.”
Since posting the video online, it’s become popular with nearly 2 million views!
“I never expected this to come about because it was just a regular day for me. I was just doing my job,” Emily said.
As the comment section quickly filled with others sharing how inspired they felt by Emily’s kindness, higher-ups at Dollar General heard of the story. One day, members from the company’s leadership team showed up to her store and presented her with flower, and a $1,000 donation to a local elementary school.
Best of all, that elderly woman has since come back to the store several times, and the two of them are becoming quite close. “What I’ve learned is so amazing—you can have an effect on people just by being yourself, working at the Dollar General,” she said.
24. How did Gerald act at the talk between Emily and the customer at first
A. He listened with full attention. B. He focused on his own hunting.
C. He felt disturbed at the long talk. D. He felt lucky to be not talkative.
25. What does the underlined word “captivated” mean in Paragraph 2
A. Attracted. B. Angered. C. Inspired. D. Stuck.
26. What was the post about
A. Why Dollar General became popular online.
B. What patience Emily showed to the customer.
C. How Gerald dealt with the customer attentively.
D. How Emily was praised by her company leader.
27. What did Emily learn from the story
A. Caring for the old can bring benefit to us.
B. Listening to people is a skill to be mastered.
C. It’s sometimes easy to influence other people.
D. Being a cashier is a good way for connection.
C
It’s a popular belief that a fish’s memory lasts for only seven seconds. It may seem sad to think that they don’t remember what they’ve eaten or where they’ve been, and they don’t recognize you or any of their friends─every moment in their life would be like seeing the world for the first time.
But don’t be so quick to feel sorry for them. A new study has found that fish have a much better memory than we used to think. In fact, certain species of fish can even remember events from aslong as 12 days ago.
In the study, researchers from MacEwan University in Canada trained a kind of fish called African cichlids to go to a certain area of their tank to get food. They then waited for 12 days before putting them back in the tank again.
Researchers used computer software to monitor the fish’s movements. They found that after such a long break the fish still went to the same place where they first got food. This suggested that they could remember their past experiences.
In fact, scientists had been thinking for a long time that African cichlids might have a good memory. An earlier study showed that they behaved aggressively in front of certain fish, perhaps because they remembered their past “fights”. But until the latest findings, there was no clear evidence.
Just as a good memory can make our lives easier, it also plays an important part when a fish is trying to survive in the wild.
“If fish are able to remember that a certain area contains safe food, they will be able to go back to that area without putting their lives at risks,” lead researcher Trevor Hamilton told Live Science.
For a long time, fish were placed far below chimpanzees, dolphins and mice on the list of smart animals. But this study has given scientists a new understanding of their intelligence.
28. What is the article mainly about
A. Fish having very bad memories. B. What we can learn from fish.
C. How fish improve their memory. D. Fish being smarter than we thought.
29. According to the article, people used to believe that _______.
A. fish didn’t recognize any of their friends
B. a fish’s memory lasted for only seven minutes
C. fish could remember things that happened 12 days ago
D. fish could only remember part of their past experiences
30. Fish can benefit most from a good memory by remembering _______.
A. their enemies and fight B. where to get food and survive
C. where to escape to when in danger D. their friends and help each other
31. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. African cichlids can remember things for 12 days.
B. African cichlids always treat other fish aggressively.
C. African cichlids don’t belong to the list of smart animals.
D. Fish don’t have a good memory except African cichlids.
D
Have you ever found that you were able to sleep better with an air conditioner or fan running or perhaps with the sound of rain falling outside If so, then you’re already familiar with white noise.
White noise refers to a noise that has a mixture of all the audible (听得见的) frequencies that the human ear can detect. It is a combination of all the frequencies of sound played at once. It can cover the sounds of other noises because of its various frequencies, leading many people to experience its calming effects.
Studies have found that listening to white noise positively affects sleep. For example, people living in a high-noise area of New York City fell asleep faster and spent more of their time in bed asleep while listening to white noise. In another study, listening to white noise through headphones improved sleep quality for seriously ill patients in a loud hospital room. However, more research is needed to confirm whether the characteristics of white noise itself improve sleep or whether the sound primarily helps by covering background noise.
However, a recent analysis of multiple studies looking at white noise’s effect on sleep has produced mixed results. The researchers are doubtful about the quality of existing evidence and conclude that further research is necessary in order to widely recommend white noise as a sleep aid. They also note that in some cases, white noise can disturb a person’s sleep and may affect their hearing.
Despite that, researchers are still optimistic that the steady hum of white noise might reduce a sleeper’s sensitivity to unpredictable noises from the environment, such as transportation sounds like cars and planes, which are considered a major contributor to poor sleep.
32. Why does white noise have calming effects
A. It can help people sleep better. B. It can absorb other noises.
C. It can be detected by human ears. D. It can cover the sounds of other noises.
33. How does the author explain the benefits of white noise
A. By asking questions. B. By telling stories.
C. By giving examples. D. By making comparisons.
34. Which statement may researchers agree with according to the last two paragraphs
A. White noise should be strongly recommended as a sleep aid.
B. Harmful effects of white noise have become a major concern.
C. Poor sleep will make people sensitive to the unpredictable noises.
D. More researches are needed to confirm the effect of white noise on sleep.
35. Which of the following can be a suitable tile for the text
A. How Does White Noise Work B. Does White Noise Help You Sleep
C. Is White Noise Harmful in Any Way D. What Are the Benefits of White Noise
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Sometimes dealing with your negative emotions can be challenging. When life is stressful, it’s very easy to give in to feelings of anger or depression. 36 . Here are some ways that can help you better deal with a wide range of negative emotions.
Acknowledge your feelings.
Dealing with negative emotions can be difficult. But it’s important to allow yourself to experience those emotions, as suppressing (抑制) them can cause stress. 37 . For example, if you are feeling nervous, ask yourself, “What am I afraid of ” Acknowledging the issue can help you figure out how to handle it.
38 .
Small changes can have a big impact on your emotional health. Try changing your space to make it a more calming place. For example, if your negative emotions arise from feeling out of control, try organizing your space. Clearing up the mess can make you feel on top of things.
·Shift your focus away from the bad thing.
When you know that something is causing a negative emotion, try to shift your focus away from that situation. For example, if you are stuck in a traffic jam and running late, shift your focus from the traffic to listening to your favorite CD． 39 .
Talk about your feelings.
Talking about your negative emotions is very productive. Try talking to your friends or family members. It is a good idea to let your loved ones know your feelings. Try saying, “I’ve been really stressed out lately. Do you have time to talk things through with me ” Be calm and reasonable while you are talking. 40 , but do so without shouting.
A．It’s fine to express anger or frustration
B．Have a try to change your environment
C．It’s common to be filled with negative emotions
D．You don’t have to spend too much effort on them
E．Focusing on something positive can help calm you down
F．When you experience a negative emotion, acknowledge it
G．However, you will be more productive if you can handle them
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My daughter and I were swimming in our pool one summer day. This day was like any of the other days, so I had no way of knowing that this one would go down in our family history as a
41 we cherish (珍惜) and still 42 from time to time.
The sun was setting and the night was 43 approaching. My daughter 44 it first—a spider was spinning her web at the bottom of the freshly painted blue fence that 45 our pool. It surprised me that she saw this, and it surprised me even more that she wasn’t 46 of the spider.
Instead, she 47 watched as the spider busied herself in the cycle of life. As we both watched this wonder of nature, a very simple thought 48 me. I had lost the track of
49 . I honestly didn’t know how long we had been just staying there and 50 that spider making her web. But, regardless of whatever amount of time had passed, the truth was that we were 51 having fun.
What we had done was to spend time together and 52 the simple things in life. We talked about how precious our 53 amount of time is on this planet and how we should 54 to enjoy the simple things in life like the flight of a bird. The simple things are the 55 things in life, even when they include spiders and webs.
41. A. response B. freedom C. memory D. conflict
42. A. talk about B. hear of C. argue about D. complain of
43. A. quickly B. definitely C. directly D. suddenly
44. A. remembered B. noticed C. watched D. imagined
45. A. constructed B. decorated C. reached D. surrounded
46. A. afraid B. tired C. content D. fond
47. A. angrily B. anxiously C. delightfully D. guiltily
48. A. knocked B. struck C. moved D. hurt
49. A. event B. data C. time D. spider
50. A. putting up B. picking up C. pointing at D. staring at
51. A. normally B. simply C. slightly D. accidentally
52. A. do B. discuss C. handle D. appreciate
53. A. former B. limited C. extra D. distant
54. A. forget B. want C. choose D. stop
55. A. best B. unusual C. easiest D. rare
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chang’an Tower, also known as the Great Wild Goose Pagoda, is an architectural wonder 56 (locate) in Xi’an, China. With its rich historical significance and stunning beauty, this ancient tower stands as a masterpiece of China’s cultural heritage.
57 (original) built during the Tang Dynasty in the 7th century, Chang’an Tower served as a Buddhist pagoda, housing Buddhist materials 58 the monk Xuanzang brought from India. Its construction 59 (order) by Emperor Gaozong to promote Buddhism and facilitate (使……便利) the translation of Buddhist scriptures (佛经) into Chinese.
Rising to a 60 (high) of 64 meters, the square-shaped, thirteen-storey tower showcases the splendid craftsmanship of ancient Chinese craftsmen, each storey of which exhibits unique architectural features, 61 (reflect) the cultural influences of the time. Visitors can go up to the top 62 wonderful views of the city. Surrounding the pagoda, the serene gardens and the Da Ci’en Temple offer a 63 (peace) retreat (隐居处) as well.
Whether it is for experiencing a piece of history 64 exploring cultural wonders, Chang’an Tower is 65 essential destination for those exploring China’s vast historical landscape.
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 （满分15分）
假定下周六晚上你校将举办一场融合中西文化元素的音乐会，你是音乐社团的负责人李华，准备在本周各社团集中时做一个活动安排的演讲，内容包括：
1. 音乐会的具体时间和地点；
2. 音乐会的主要安排;
3. 欢迎大家参加。
注意：
写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Good afternoon, boys and girls! That’s all. Thanks for your listening!
第二节 （满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
As a senior editor in a famous press, I always think of days twenty years before when I was 18, I lived with my grandparents, and my parents earned their living in another city, struggling to support our family. I had taken to delivering newspapers to support myself and my education.
I would be up every morning by 5 am and walk five kilometers from where I lived to the newspaper office. By 6 am, I would collect 50 copies which must have weighed over five kilograms. My delivery range spanned (横跨) three kilometers. After distributing the copies, I would rush home—another three kilometers away—cook my breakfast, and be off to my school.
One Friday morning, I got home after my deliveries, finding Afzal, a boy from the neighborhood, at my doorstep. Afzal said his mother wanted to see me. When I asked him why, Afzal said, “She will tell you.” Tired after walking around for over 11 kilometers, I was looking forward to breakfast and some rest. I assumed his mother wished to subscribe (定期订购) to the newspaper, so I followed him to his home nearby.
A woman in her 40s opened the door. I later learned she was Afzal’s mother, Mrs Kader. She asked me to sit, pulled up her chair next to mine and gently asked, “Tell me about your routine, right from the time you wake up in the morning.” I wasn’t quite sure why she wanted to know, but I told her about my morning job in a few words. She asked me, “How many miles do you walk every day ” I replied, “A little more than 11 kilometers.” My reply shocked her.
Then she patted my back and went inside, reappearing carrying a large plate full of food for breakfast for me. It was a hearty breakfast, one that brought back memories of happy days spent with my parents. Later, as I was about to leave after thanking them, Mrs Kader asked me to wait and she went inside again.
注意:
续写词数应为150个左右；
请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Then Mrs Kader appeared again, with a new bicycle. I bowed to Mrs Kader thankfully and left for school.
2023~2024学年第二学期期末试卷
高一英语听力原文 2024.06
Text 1
W: Did you enjoy the movie last night
M: We couldn’t get any tickets, so we went to the park instead.
Text 2
W: John, I’ve been looking for you.
M: Is there a problem
W: No. I need someone to pick up a customer from the airport on Saturday.
M: I thought Greg was doing that.
Text 3
W: My sister Jenny’s getting married!
M: Really When
W: Next month. She’s marrying Tim she met when they were studying in Canada, and we’re all going to Toronto for the wedding.
M: Sounds great. And how about your brother What’s he been doing lately
Text 4
W: Could you tell me the starting times for both performances
M: The first begins at 7 and it lasts for 2 hours. And then the other one begins 10 minutes later.
Text 5
W: New York is a beautiful city! I am so happy we are here, Mike.
M: I am excited to see Central Park. Tanya, how many parks does New York City have
W: I will look in my book. Hmmm, here it is! New York City has more than 1,700 parks.
Text 6
W: Hi, Bob! Where are you off to
M: To the library. I have to finish the homework for tomorrow’s class.
W: Why don’t you do it at home
M: I have a part-time job in the evening so when I get home, I’ll be too tired to do it.
W: Where do you work
M: I work in a cafe.
W: Why do you like the job
M: It’s interesting. I really enjoy working with people and get extra money.
W: How is the pay
M: The pay’s alright. I get 7 an hour. I would like to earn more as I need a lot of money to buy a new smart phone.
Text 7
M: Hi, Michelle. This is Sam. Can I speak with Ben
W: Hi, Sam. No, I’m sorry. He’s not home right now.
M: Do you know when he’ll be back
W: He’s going to be out for several hours. Do you want to leave a message
M: Yeah, thanks. I’m supposed to meet Ben at Cafe Joan for lunch at noon tomorrow. But I have to see the doctor, so I’m going to be a few minutes late.
W: Do you know what time you’re going to be there
M: I’ll try to get there as soon as I can. I should be there by 12:30.
Text 8
W: Do you want to go to the beach this weekend Bob is coming too.
M: I’d love to! Which beach are we going to
W: Well, we haven’t decided yet. The nearest beach London has is Canvey Island Beach. It only takes an hour’s drive from London, but we go there often.
M: We can go to Kemp Town Beach in Brighton or Birling Gap Beach in East Sussex. Kemp Town is famous for its coastal walks, the Seven Sisters path along the south coast. We can surf, swim, and fly kites.
W: Sounds fun! But the water is not so clean. I prefer to go to Birling Gap because the water quality is excellent.
M: How long does it take to get there
W: It’ll take us about two hours to go there by train.
M: Actually, I don’t like traveling by train, but since I will be traveling with my friends it should be OK.
W: Great.
Text 9
W: Hi Adam. How is the cooking course you’re doing
M: Well, it was my mother who told me to do it. At first I thought it wouldn’t be so interesting as I don’t want to be a cook like her. But half an hour after the class started, I realized it was great fun.
W: I’m sure it was a great way to spend the day.
M: It was! We were in a kitchen from 10 a.m. to 6 p.m. It was a very interesting experience. After the first half hour when the teacher told us what to use, it took me only three hours to make a very special meal with very simple foods such as cheese, vegetables and eggs. When I got back in the evening I was really happy about the results.
W: Was the kitchen large
M: Very large. And today I’ll try to make a meal for my grandmother. She really loves trying new dishes.
Text 10
M: Good afternoon, and welcome to Hollywood, California. And I’m your tour guide, Jack. I hope you all enjoy today’s tour of the houses of the stars. Here we go! Now remember, you can buy photos of all the stars’ houses when the tour is over, so please don’t take any pictures during the tour, okay Up on the left is the house where Marilyn Monroe lived. After she got married, she left this house and moved to New York to live with her husband, a famous American baseball player named Joe Di Maggio. Now, just around the corner you’ll see a bright yellow house. Can you see it Up on the hill This is where James Dean lived. Finally, do you see that big gate on the right Well, this is the entrance to Arnold Schwarzenegger’s house. Unfortunately, you can’t see the house from here, and we’re not allowed to go inside the gate.
2023~2024学年第二学期期末试卷
高一英语参考答案 2024.06
第一部分 听力 （共两节，满分30分）
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A
11. C 12. C 13.B 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. A
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21. C 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B
31. A 32. D 33. C 34. D 35. B
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36. G 37. F 38. B 39. E 40. A
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41. C 42. A 43. A 44. B 45. D 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. D
51. B 52. D 53. B 54. D 55. A
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. located 57. Originally 58. that /which 59. was ordered 60. height
61. reflecting 62. for 63. peaceful 64. or 65. an
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
Good afternoon, boys and girls! I’m Li Hua, in charge of the music club. I am here today to give a speech on a coming concert.
Aiming to enrich our extracurricular activities, our school will hold a musical concert in the school gym next Saturday, from 6 p.m. to 8 p.m. During the concert, we can appreciate not only classical folk music of China and western countries, but some music originally composed by gifted students. And you will be impressed by the combination of Chinese folk music with western musical instruments.
Welcome everyone to this fantastic concert! Believe me, it will be so wonderful that you can’t miss it!
That’s all. Thanks for your listening!
第二节 （满分25分）
Then Mrs. Kader appeared again, with a new bicycle. It was a brand-new black bicycle which I had been looking forward to owning someday. “This is for those who are in need. Therefore, it’s for you!” she said with a smile, explaining that she was impressed by my spirit of struggling for life whenever she saw my rushing figure. Mrs. Kader put her arms around me, gave me a gentle hug and said, “My boy, you deserve it.” Hearing that, I was shocked and more than appreciative for her generosity and kindness. I didn’t even realize that my eyes had welled up.
I bowed to Mrs. Kader thankfully and left for school. This time I did not have to walk or run in a rush every day—I had the bicycle, which really made my life much easier afterwards. With the incredible bicycle, I could deliver my papers more effectively, thus having more time left for my studies. Even after many years, I still kept this bike in good condition. It witnessed my journey to my new life, and more significantly, it reminded me of a kind-hearted gesture from a stranger.
书面表达评分建议
应用文写作（满分15分）
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分；
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分；
3. 词数少于60，从总分中减去2分；
4. 评分时，应主要从以下三个方面考虑：
（1）内容要点的覆盖、表达的清楚程度以及合理性；
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受；
6. 如字迹难以辨认，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点
1. 音乐会的具体时间和地点；
2. 音乐会的主要安排；
3. 欢迎大家参加；
4. 审题（演讲稿，一般现在时和一般将来时以及第一、二人称为主）。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 (13-15分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
1. 覆盖所有内容要点； 2. 语言表达准确、多样并且恰当； 3. 有效地使用了衔接手段，使全文结构紧凑。
第四档 (10-12分) 完成了试题规定的任务，达到了预期的写作目的。
覆盖所有内容要点； 语言表达比较准确、多样，有些许语言错误； 3. 比较有效地使用了衔接手段，使全文结构较为紧凑。
第三档 (7-9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
1. 覆盖大部分内容要点； 2. 语言表达比较单一，有一些语言错误； 3. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，全文不够紧凑。
第二档 (4-6分) 未恰当完成试题规定的任务，未能清楚地将信息传达给读者。
1. 遗漏一些要点或写了一些无关内容； 2. 词汇有限，语法结构单一，错误较多； 3. 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
第一档 (1-3分) 未完成试题规定的任务，未能将信息传达给读者。
1. 遗漏大部分内容要点，只写出少量相关内容； 2. 词汇有限，语法结构单一，错误很多，以致影响理解； 3. 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
不得分 （0分） 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
读后续写（满分25分）
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分；
2. 评分时，先根据续写内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分；
3. 词数少于120，从总分中减去2分；
4. 评分时，应主要从以下三个方面考虑：
（1）创造内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度；
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑；英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如字迹难以辨认，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、写作思路（续写要点）
1．由第一段首句内容“接着，Kader太太又出现了，骑着一辆新自行车。”可知，第一段可描写卡德尔太太解释为什么要送自行车，作者听后的感受；
2. 由第二段首句内容“我感激地向Kader夫人鞠了一躬，然后去上学了。”可知，第二段可描写自行车给作者带来了什么好处和影响。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 (21-25分) 1. 创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高； 2. 使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解； 3. 自然有效地使用了段落间、句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第四档 (16-20分) 1. 创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高； 2. 使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别语言错误，但不影响理解； 3. 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档 (11-15分) 1. 创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关； 2. 使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解； 3. 使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第二档 (6-10分) 1. 创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关； 2. 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解； 3. 尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第一档 (1-5分) 1. 内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节； 2. 所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解； 3. 未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
不得分 （0分） 未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
