嘉兴市2023~2024学年第二学期期末检测
高一英语
试题卷
考生须知:
1.全卷分试题卷和答题纸两部分,试题卷12页,答题纸2页,有四部分考查内容,满分为150分,考试时间为120分钟。
2.本卷答案必须做在答题纸的相应位置上,做在试题卷上无效。
3.请用黑墨水签字笔将考生个人相关信息填写在答题纸的相应位置上.
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What did the man do this morning
A.He went for a run. B.He joined a gym. C.He did some work.
2.Why does the man need a map
A.To tour Manchester. B.To find a restaurant. C.To learn about China.
3.What is the most important thing for the team to win
A.They worked very hard.
B.They believed in themselves.
C.They encouraged each other.
4.Where did the man learn about Ieoh Ming Pei
A.From a museum guide. B.From a university course. C.From a video series.
5.What will the speakers build
A.A new wall. B.A playground. C.A garden.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6.Where does the conversation probably take place
A.In a hospital. B.In a manager’s office. C.In a school.
7.What day is it today
A.Monday. B.Wednesday. C.Friday.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8.What is the woman probably doing
A.Reading a newspaper. B.Writing a report. C.Watching TV.
9.What could the new satellite be used for
A.Doing an ocean survey.
B.Providing pictures of affected areas.
C.Reducing the number of earthquakes.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10.When will the concert begin
A.At 7:45pm. B.At 8:00 pm. C.At 8:15pm.
11.What is the conductor’s nationality
A.French. B.Austrian. C.Italian.
12.Where did the speakers hear the second piece before
A.In a film. B.In Disneyland. C.Over the radio.
听第9段材料, 回答第13至16题。
13.What kind of work did Mr. Gehry use to do probably
A.An animal carer. B.A TV host. C.A software engineer.
14.What was the biggest problem for Mr. Gehry in setting up Warm Nest
A.Getting a permit.
B.Raising enough money.
C.Forming a supportive team.
15.How many volunteers were there in Warm Nest five years ago
A.Around one hundred. B.Around fifty. C.Around ten.
16.What is the daily focus of Warm Nest
A.Caring for large animals.
B.Providing training for pet owners.
C.Offering treatment to small animals.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17.How does the speaker feel about new technology
A.Hopeful. B.Confused. C.Worried.
18.When did the speaker start to use a mobile phone
A.At six years old. B.At nine years old. C.At fifteen years old.
19.What is the first industry the speaker would like to change
A.Global education. B.Traveling. C.Film and music.
20.What would the speaker try to do in the future
A.Improve food quality.
B.Explore new environments.
C.Lower prices of technology products.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Win a seven-night walking holiday for two people along
The Algarve Coast
WORTH ?2,910
Appreciating that the world is more beautiful on foot, Ramble Worldwide has been organizing expertly planned group guided holidays and unforgettable adventures along the world’s most unique footpaths for over 75years.
In the company of a knowledgeable walk leader, enjoy the area’s Portuguese charm with walks to one of the world’s most beautiful beaches and explore the pretty coastal villages.
The prize, which is for two adults, includes flights from Gatwick to Faro, 7 nights’ half-board accommodation based on two sharing, with breakfasts at the hotel and dinners in local restaurants, transport and the service of a walk leader.
Simply Answer the Following Question Question: How long has Ramble Worldwide been organizing group guided holidays A.Over 75years. B.Over 30 years. C.Over 20 years. Then click here and put your chosen answer A, B or C on the entry form.
TERMS & CONDITONS:
·The holiday will begin on either 17th March, 14th April, 19th May, 6th October, 3rd November or 24th November 2024.
·Travel insurance is not included.
COMPETITION ENTRY RULES:
·The competition is only open to residents of the UK, aged 18 or over.
·Only one entry per person.
·The winning entry will be chosen at random(随机)and the winner will be informed by email or post.
21.Which of the following services can a winner get in the walking holiday
A.A single room. B.Professional guidance.
C.A round trip air ticket. D.Three free meals a day.
22.What can we learn about the prize
A.It covers travel insurance for the winner.
B.There are six set-off dates to choose from.
C.Those who answer the given question will win it.
D.Both children and adults are allowed to participate.
23.Where is the text probably taken from
A.In a travel brochure. B.In a tourism poster.
C.On a travel agency website. D.In a travel magazine.
B
Humans have been growing food for about 12,000 years, but 50 years ago a civil engineer named Mel Bartholomew figured out a new way to do it that could eliminate a lot of tiring weeding(除草)and watering that went with it. He called it the Square Foot Garden(SFG), and the book he wrote about it sold over 2.5million copies, becoming the best-selling gardening book of all time.
Upon his retirement in 1975, Bartholomew became interested in gardening, but the more he got into it, the more inefficient he found it to be. Gardening had long been practiced in rows, which Bartholemew found to he wasteful, and difficult to work. Using his engineering know-how, Bartholomew came up with a method of gardening that could be practiced in a tiny backyard or rooftop, and which required only 10 percent of the water of a row garden.
Bartholemew’s view was that traditional gardening with its long rows in between wasted space, water, fertilizer(化肥)and work. In fact, his conclusion was that row gardens took up about 80 percent more space than needed. In order to maximize space, he began using raised beds, divided into a number of 12×12 inch squares, each square marked off with string or wood dividers. Each square was used for a specific vegetable and the plants were closely packed to make less space for weeds, which also accounted for its water and resource efficiency(效率).
The SFG system is popular and reliable, but it has limitations. For instance, it can be expensive to set up, although using recyclable materials to build beds can help. In addition, it doesn’t work well in dry climates because raised beds dry out more quickly. But whatever its limitations, SFG has gotten millions of people growing their own food who might otherwise have never known the joy of gardening.
24.What does the underlined word “eliminate” in paragraph 1 mean
A.Remove. B.Cause. C.Replace. D.Control.
25.What kind of person was Mel Bartholomew
A.Careful and patient. B.Friendly and outgoing.
C.Creative and resourceful. D.Responsible and helpful.
26.Which of the following best describes the advantage of SFG
A.It helps save space. B.It uses less energy.
C.It benefits the environment. D.It works in different climates.
27.What is the text mainly about
A.A bestselling book on gardening.
B.The history of traditional gardening.
C.A gardening method invented by an engineer.
D.The great joy brought by the Square Foot Garden.
C
If we are to believe some of the upsetting headlines about Al, barely anyone’s job is safe. 32% of UK employees think AI could make their roles unnecessary, according to a research in 2023.Yet the same research found that 28% of workers believe AI could make their jobs easier. Meanwhile, many technologists claim that GenAI tools such as ChatGPT are more likely to help workers than replace them.
And so different industries are exploring it. International law firm Cleary Gottliebfor, for instance, uses GenAI to scan its databases and create a summary of its lawyers’ relevant experience before meetings with a new client(客户). However, the firm says that the document produced by the AI won’t be ready to send immediately.
However, without carefully assessing(评估)its possible side effects beforehand, companies that adopt(采用)a new AI tool risk distancing employees or even making their lives more difficult. Firms should therefore identify whether the tech they’re interested in is likely to be a net benefit or not, according to Peter, assistant professor of AI at Leiden University. Actually, there are several other disadvantages that firms seeking to adopt it must avoid. In a banking conference, for instance, 15CIOs had all been keen to realize the huge productivity gains promised by GenAI. Three months later, these IT chiefs “hit a wall” when trust issues concerning data privacy and security arose. They were worried that the data they had been putting into the tools would make its way into their competitors’ banks.
Dylan Morley, lead principal engineer at Asos, reports that measuring the impact of such tools is a topic of “great discussion” across the industry. But he adds that this is a more complex matter than simply adopting a tool and waiting for, say, a 10% efficiency gain. She argues that firms could be focusing on areas such as managing time spent in meetings, other than adopting AI tools if improving efficiency is indeed their main goal.
28.Why does the author list numbers in paragraph 1
A.To explain the upsetting fact about AI.
B.To introduce technologists’ views on AI.
C.To prove the value of the research on AI.
D.To show different people’s ideas about AI.
29.What can we learn from the example of Cleary Gottliebfor
A.The law firm lacks confidence in AI.
B.The Al can’t summarize lawyers’ experience.
C.The document produced by AI is of poor quality.
D.Further steps are needed before the document is used.
30.What does paragraph 3 focus on
A.The potential risks of AI. B.The way to assess Al’s effects.
C.The ongoing application of AI. D.The difficulties employees face.
31.What can we infer from Dylan Morley’s opinion
A.Firms should not use AI tools.
B.AI is not the only way to gain efficiency.
C.AI is a more complex tool than we think.
D.It’s necessary to measure the impact of AI.
D
People greet each other in various ways, such as saying “hello” in different languages or through physical actions like shaking hands, giving hugs, or exchanging kisses. Similarly, elephants have various greetings, as revealed by a recent study conducted on African elephants in Zimbabwe’s Jafuta Reserve. “Female elephants of different family groups might have strong social bonds(纽带)with each other, forming what we call bond groups,” said Vesta Eleuteri of the University of Vienna, the lead writer of the study. “Earlier studies in the wild have reported that when these groups meet, the elephants perform special greetings to announce and strengthen their social bonds.”
The study identified around 20 specific movements related with elephant greetings, often accompanied by different sounds as well. Smell also plays a crucial role in greetings, with elephants exhibiting behaviors like emitting(排放)body waste. Besides, elephants make gestures(动作)meant to be seen, such as spreading their ears or displaying their behinds, and employ touching gestures involving touching other elephants. They actually show an understanding of what other elephants can see, using visual gestures when their partner is looking and touching gestures when they are not.
Similar greeting behavior has been observed in various animals, which helps manage social situations by reducing tension or confirming social bonds. The study observed both female and male elephants in the reserve, with female greetings closely matching those of wild elephants, while male greetings appeared different. Wild male elephants often don’t form close connections with others but use their noses to touch the heads of other elephants, giving off a chemical called temporin containing important information.
Elephant greetings play an important part in communication and social bonding among these intelligent creatures. Through their gestures, sounds, and smells, elephants deliver important. information about their identity, physical state, and emotional well-being.
32.What do we know about elephant greetings from paragraph 1
A.They are performed mainly by male elephants.
B.They are used to show power within the group.
C.They include physical actions similar to humans’.
D.They strengthen social bonds between family groups.
33.How do elephants show awareness of what others see
A.They produce different smells.
B.They make as many gestures as possible.
C.They make use of sounds to draw attention.
D.They employ visual or touching gestures accordingly.
34.What methods were adopted in the recent study on elephants
A.Interview s and surveys. B.Observation and comparison.
C.Model design and creation. D.Experiments and data collection.
35.Which of the following is the best title for the text
A.Secret in Elephant Behaviors
B.Science Behind Elephant Sounds
C.Exploration of Elephant Greetings
D.New Light on Elephant Movements
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Mother’s Day is an occasion to celebrate mothers. 36 Based on my research and those of other psychologists, here are some tips for celebrating moms on Mother’s Day, and every day, to enhance(增强)well-being for both moms and their loved ones.
37 Psychology research suggests that Mother’s Day cards have it right —building a mother’s confidence by telling them that they’re amazing or that they always know how to make the family feel better can be greatly effective in enhancing moms’ happiness. 38 Compared to fathers, mothers generally report feeling more emotionally connected to their kids and more strongly identifying as a parent. A phone call with their kids can really improve a mom’s well-being.
The benefits of celebrating moms also reach their kids. 39 For example, my research has found that moms who are less stressed are seen by their adolescent kids as being better at understanding the kids’ ideas. When mothers feel positive, they have better communication with their kids and their kids feel better. That means it’s important to send appreciation mom’s way every day, not just on Mother’s Day.
Mothers are the main source of comfort and care for families around the world, yet it’s easy to take them for granted(想当然认为)most days across the year. 40 Helping moms feel happy will help the family feel happy, too.
A.So what can families do to enhance moms’ happiness
B.Stress can also impact how attentive moms are to their family.
C.However, we don’t often hear about the benefits of celebrating moms.
D.Positive parents enhance children’s men tal well-being and social bonds.
E.Moms play an important role in shaping our identities and guiding our life.
F.While flowers on Mother’s Day are appreciated, let’s celebrate moms every day.
G.If you’re an adult living far away from your parents, don’t forget to call your mom.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Rachel Beckwith was a 9-year-old girl from America. She had a special birthday 41 . Instead of asking for presents, she dreamed of 42 $300 for “Charity: Water,” a group that helps bring clean water to people in developing countries. Rachel 43 to collect $220 from her family and friends, but she fell a bit short of her 44 . She made a(an) 45 to her mom that she would try again next year.
Unfortunately, on July 20, 2011, Rachel was 46 in a car accident with her mom and sister. 47 her family only suffered minor injuries, Rachel was badly hurt and was 48 to the hospital. Three days later, her family had to make the 49 decision to take her off life support.
After Rachel’s passing, news of her birthday wish 50 worldwide. People started donating to “Charity: Water” in her 51 , and the contributions poured in. Rachel’s heart was donated to a man in California, who also supported her 52 .
By the end of Rachel’s birthday campaign(活动)in September, more than $1.26 million had been gifted to clean water projects. To 53 Rachel’s legacy(遗产), her family started a nonprofit called Rachel’s Wishing Well Foundation, 54 to spreading awareness about giving and helping others.
Anyone can make a big 55 , no matter how small the contribution.
41.A.party B.gift C.wish D.surprise
42.A.borrowing B.raising C.having D.earning
43.A.managed B.planned C.decided D.needed
44.A.chances B.resources C.experience D.goal
45.A.suggestion B.request C.apology D.promise
46.A.caught B.frightened C.seen D.included
47.A.While B.After C.Once D.Since
48.A.guided B.moved C.rushed D.introduced
49.A.quick B.tough C.wise D.correct
50.A.unfolded B.came C.spread D.appeared
51.A.interest B.favor C.power D.honor
52.A.approach B.cause C.opinion D.experiment
53.A.continue B.protect C.get D.keep
54.A.addicted B.limited C.used D.devoted
55.A.change B.mark C.difference D.leap
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In recent years, Generation Z 56 (leave)for the countryside. This is due to a 57 (prefer)for experiences over things and a desire for a sustainable(可持续的)lifestyle. Many young people are seeking a 58 (slow)pace of life and a closer connect ion with nature by moving to rural areas.
For Gen Z, living in the country has several benefits. Firstly, it provides a relaxed pace, a relief from city stress, especially for those with anxiety. Secondly, there is greater access 59 nature and outdoor 60 (activity)such as hiking, camping and fishing, which promote physical health and a deeper connection with the environment. 61 (addition), the lower cost of living and less job market competition are attractive to those 62 (begin)their careers. These factors contribute to a lifestyle that matches Gen Z’s values of sustainability and health.
Technology plays a key role in making rural living possible for Gen Z. With off-site work getting more popular, young adults can work from anywhere with a reliable internet connection. Plus, social media makes 63 easier for people to show their rural lifestyles and connect with others 64 have similar interests, promoting a sense of belonging and encouraging them 65 (explore)rural beauty.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40分)
第一节:句子翻译(共5句:每句3分,满分15分)
按给出的中文意思,用括号内所给的英语,翻译下列句子。
66.旅行提供了广泛的体验,从参观历史遗址到品尝当地美食。(range, historical)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
67.老师用了一系列例子来阐明这条语法规则, 增强了我们的理解。(series, illustrate)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
68.运动员保持最佳状态的方法包括均衡饮食、规律锻炼及充足休息。(approach,maintain)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
69.这所大学为那些成绩优异并为社区作出贡献的学生授予奖学金。(award,scholarship)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
70.这家商店在春节期间提供折扣以吸引更多顾客。(discount, so as to)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节:应用文写作(满分25分)
今年10月10日是世界视力日(World Sight Day),你校将举办英语征文比赛,请你写一篇短文投稿。内容包括:
1.视力的重要性;
2.保护视力的倡议。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Clear Sight, Bright Future
参考答案
一、听力(每小题1.5分,满分30分)
1-5ABBCB 6-10CAABB 11-15 CACBC 16-20 CABAC
二、阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
21-23 BBC 24-27ACAC 28-31 DDAB 32-35 DDBC
第二节(每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
36-40 CAGDF
三、语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(每小题1分,满分15分)
41-45CBADD 46-50AACBC 51-55 DBADC
第二节(每小题1.5分,满分15分)
56.has been leaving 57.preference 58. slower 59. to 60. activities
61.Additionally 62.beginning 63. it 64. who/that 65. to explore
*注意:大小写错误属于不正确形式,不给分。
(二)参考译句
66.Traveling offers a wide range of experiences, from visiting historical sites to tasting local food.
67.The teacher used a series of examples to illustrate the grammar rule, strengthening our understanding.
68.The athlete’s approach to maintaining top form includes a balanced diet, regular exercise, and enough rest.
69.The university awards scholarships to students who achieve outstanding grades and contribute to the community.
70.The store offers discounts during the Spring Festival so as to attract more customers.