湖北省武汉市部分重点中学2023-2024学年高二下学期期末联考英语试卷（含答案，含听力原文，无音频）
文档属性
| 名称 | 湖北省武汉市部分重点中学2023-2024学年高二下学期期末联考英语试卷（含答案，含听力原文，无音频） |  | |
| 格式 | docx | ||
| 文件大小 | 34.1KB | ||
| 资源类型 | 教案 | ||
| 版本资源 | 人教版（2019） | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2024-07-01 14:17:22 | ||
图片预览
文档简介
武汉市部分重点中学2023-2024学年度下学期期末联考
高二 英语试卷
本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 考试时间：2024年6月26日下午14: 00—16: 00
祝考试顺利
注意事项：
1. 答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2、选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3. 非选择题的作答：用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并上交。
第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共5 小题；每小题 1. 5 分，满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman busy doing
A. Taking dance classes. B. Finishing reports. C. Preparing for a long race.
2. What does the man think of his job
A. It’s enjoyable. B. It’s boring. C. It’s worrying.
3. What is the woman mainly doing
A. Sharing experience in checking price labels.
B. Giving tips on washing clothes properly.
C. Praising the man’s laundry service.
4. Who might Sarah be
A. An HR director. B. A saleswoman. C. An accountant.
5. How did the man go to work today
A. On foot. B. By subway. C. By car.
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第6、7 题。
6. Why is the woman unwilling to get electronic locks
A. They are too expensive.
B. She might forget the password.
C. They may have some technical problems.
7. What does the man suggest doing
A. Picking a top brand.
B. Carrying a spare traditional key.
C. Downloading a special mobile app.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8、9 题。
8. What has impressed Lisa most about her dormitory life
A. Having discussions on courses.
B. Watching late-night movies.
C. Taking part in DIY projects.
D. What has Lisa learned from her dormitory life
A. Calmness. B. Independence. C. Responsibility.
听第8段材料，回答第 10至12题。
10 What subject does the man teach
A. World history. B. Literature. C. Science.
11. How does the man help students engage in preservation
A. By holding some competitions.
B. By organizing field trips to museums.
C. By encouraging them to do volunteer work.
12. What does the woman think of preserving cultural heritage
A. It teaches people about diversity.
B. It connects people to their roots.
C. It positively influences the future.
听第9段材料，回答第 13至 16题。
13. What is the man’s first piece of advice for the woman
A. Setting off at her own speed. B. Wearing a helmet at all times. C. Exploring different routes.
14. Where does the man normally go cycling
A. Along the coast. B. In the nearby park. C. In the mountains.
15. What is the longest distance the man has cycled
A. 50 kilometers. B. 100 kilometers. C. 150 kilometers.
16. Why does the man enjoy group rides
A. They help break his cycling record.
B. They give him a sense of belonging.
C. They usually involve intense competition.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. What was mentioned in the open letter
A. The concern about AI affecting writing.
B. The impact of AI on science fiction films.
C. The benefits of AI in the field of writing.
18. What is the main topic of the book Hum
A. A fact-checking program. B. A poet working with AI. C. A story of Job loss due to AI.
19. Who is Ryan Doherty
A. A government worker. B. A doctor. C. A director.
2t. Which work was created with the help of AI
A. Sike. B. Death of an Author. C. In Our Likeness.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共20小题，每小题2. 5分，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题，每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Music is universal. Take a moment to think about what music you like as you read our beginners’ guide to the history of music.
Middle Ages
The Middle Ages, which ranges from the 6th century to the 16th century, featured medieval (中世纪的) music. During this time, there were two general types of music styles— the monophonic and the polyphonic. The main forms of music included Gregorian chanting and plainchant.
Classical Period
The music forms and styles of the Classical period, which ranges from 1750 to 1820, are characterized by simpler melodies and forms like the sonatas. During this time, the middle class had more access to music. So composers began to create music that was easier to understand. Most especially, Mozart wrote his first symphony and Beethoven was born during this period.
Romantic Period
Historiographers define the Romantic music period to be from 1800 to 1900. Music forms of the Romantic period used music to tell a story or express an idea. Various instruments including wind instruments were used. Instruments that were invented or improved during this time included the flute and the saxophone.
The 20h Century
Music during the 20th century brought about many innovations on how music was performed and appreciated. Artists were more willing to experiment with new music forms and used technology to improve their compositions. The 20 century music has various styles.
21. In which period were Mozart’s compositions created
A. Middle Ages. B. Classical period. C. Romantic period. D. The 20th century.
22 What can we know about music from the Romantic period
A. This period lasted over 100 years.
B. Musicians only used wind instruments.
C. Music was related to a story or an idea.
D. The music forms were harder to understand.
23. How did artists improve their music during the 20 century
A. By inventing new instruments.
B. By practicing new music styles.
C. By writing complex compositions.
D. By improving traditional music styles.
B
Texan 81-year-old good friends Ellie Hamby and Sandy Hazelip toured the world in 80 days, proving that adventure doesn’t have an age limit.
Their first stop was a location that challenges even many experienced travelers: the Antarctic. Getting to the southernmost continent first required crossing the Drake Passage. “For almost two days, we were rocking and rolling, slipping and sliding through the Drake Passage and we were holding onto dear life.” Hamby said. The voyage, however, faded from their mind as they set foot on the ground of the Antarctic, fascinated by the breathtaking beauty of penguins, icebergs and glaciers.
Since that first venture, the pair have visited 18 countries across all seven continents. They rode camels in Egypt, met elephants in Bali, danced in Nepal and observed the Northern Lights in Finland. And despite the challenges international travel presented, the good friends said they finished their trip without any argument. Though they’re both independent and stubborn, they respected each other’s feelings. And what they remember the most are the people that they encountered. “We got to know some of the most wonderful, kindest, friendliest people. We just have friends now all over the world that we love dearly.” Hamby said.
The two shared a crucial piece of advice for travelers worrying about the language barrier on their own adventure. “You know, people often ask us about it.” said Hamby. “We tell them there’s one universal language, and that’s the smile. We found it worked wonders because we were often aware that English was not always spoken and that that could cover all languages.”
They also encouraged other older people not to let age hold them back. Aside from some minor changes in plans-like deciding not to ride a motorbike in Bali because of concerns about falling-their age didn’t affect their journey abroad. They said they felt confident that if they were injured during their trip, their children would have been at peace knowing that they were doing what they wanted. And Hazelip described 81 as the perfect age to embark on a trip. “Getting older does give us a little bit of wisdom of making decisions.” she said.
24. What might the pair think of their trip to the Antarctic
A. Challenging but worthy. B. Expensive but exciting.
C. Interesting but fruitless. D. Unpleasant but impressive.
25. What is the highlight of the pair’s adventures for themselves
A. Learning about different cultures.
B. Meeting nice people along the way.
C. Experiencing many challenging activities.
D. Avoiding conflicts despite their stubborn nature.
26. What does the underlined word “that” in paragraph 4 refer to
A. English. B. The pair’s advice. C. The smile. D. The language barrier.
27. What can we infer about the pair from the last paragraph
A. They once fell off a motorbike in Bali.
B. Their family understood and supported them.
C. They regretted not exploring the world earlier.
D. Their wisdom saved them lots of time on the trip.
C
Swedish Midsommar, also known as Midsummer, is a beloved holiday in Sweden that marks the Summer Solstice, the longest day of the year. This usually takes place around mid-June in the Northern Hemisphere.
With Midsummer being the longest day of the year, it was often considered a magical night to the agricultural society within Sweden. Full of mystery and enchantment (魅力) it’s believed to be a time when plants gained healing powers and were used to predict the future. Today, it is more about celebrating the beginning of summer and the good times ahead.
Like all major holidays, Midsummer focuses on sharing food and drinks with loved ones. Traditional Swedish dishes you’ll find on a Midsummer table include herring in all forms served with chives and sour cream, boiled new potatoes with fresh dill, cured salmon, rustic breads, potato dumplings, meatballs, and a dessert involving strawberries.
Everyone has their own Midsummer traditions, but many stick to the more traditional options when it comes to celebrating. For a grand Midsummer lunch-party, no celebration would be complete without dancing with flowers in your hair, singing songs, while feasting on a delicious selection of Swedish dishes. Another form of celebrating Midsummer was the raising of a pole which was then danced around. This lovely tradition is still very much a part of Midsummer celebrations with the maypole decorated in garlands of leaves and fresh flowers.
At the heart of Swedish Midsummer lies the spirit of togetherness and human connection, Families, friends, and communities gather in joyful union, creating a shared experience that goes beyond individual boundaries. The dances around the maypole, the laughter, and the heartfelt conversations produce a sense of belonging and interdependence. Midsummer reminds us of the fundamental need for social bonds and the fulfillment gained from genuine human interaction. It serves as a reminder that in the complexities of modern life, the simplest connections can bring us deep joy and fulfillment.
28. What can we know about Swedish Midsummer
A. It marks the hottest day of the year. B. It celebrates the arrival of summer.
C. It is used to predict the near future. D. It is based on a mysterious old tale.
29. What is mainly discussed Midsummer in paragraph 4
A. Its dishes. B. Its origins. C. Its customs. D. Its influences.
30. What is the significance of celebrating Midsummer
A. Learning the value of teamwork. B. Appreciating the warmth of unity.
C. Keeping in touch with old friends. D. Passing on the traditional lifestyle.
83. In which part of a magazine may you read this passage
A. Culture. B. Wellbeing. C. Event. D. Fashion.
D
Since the start of the industrial revolution, there have been threats that new machines- from mechanized looms (织布机) to microchips would take human jobs.
A March report from Goldman Sachs estimated that AI capable of content generation could do a quarter of all the work currently done by humans. Across the European Union and the US, the report further notes, 300 million jobs could be lost to automation.
Thankfully, it’s not all bad news. The experts issue their warnings with a relief: there are still things AI isn’t capable of- tasks that involve distinctly human qualities, like emotional intelligence and outside-the-box thinking.
“I think there are generally three categories that will remain unaffected in the coming future.” says Martin Ford, a related author. “The first would be jobs that are genuinely creative: you’re not engaged in repetitive work or just rearranging things, but you’re genuinely coming up with new ideas and building something new.”
That doesn’t necessarily mean all jobs that are considered “creative” are safe. In fact, things like graphic design and visual art-related roles may be among the first to go. Basic algorithms can direct a robot to analyze millions of images, allowing AI to rapidly acquire a sense of beauty. “But there’s some security in other kinds of creativity, in science, and medicine and law people whose job is coming up with a new legal strategy or business strategy.” says Ford.
“The second category,” he continues, “is jobs that require complicated interpersonal relationships.” He points to nurses, business consultants and investigative journalists. “These are jobs where you need a very deep understanding of people. I think it’ll be a long time before AI has the ability to interact in the kinds of ways that really build relationships.” he says.
“The third safe zone is jobs that really require lots of mobility and problem-solving ability in unpredictable environments.” says Ford. Many trade jobs-think electricians, plumbers, engineers and the like - fall under this umbrella. “These are the kinds of jobs where you’re dealing with a new situation all the time.” he adds.
In short, seeking roles in dynamic, shifting environments that include unpredictable tasks is a good way to avoid job loss to Al, at least, for a while.
32 What has been a historical concern regarding new machines
A. The need for increased human skills. B. The possibility of human losing jobs.
C. The fear of increased automation costs. D. The potential for machine malfunctions.
33 What can we know from the March report
A. AI is not capable of content generation. B. AI can imitate distinctly human qualities.
C. AI poses no threat to human employment. D. AI has no outside-the-box thinking abilities.
24. Which of the following statement will Martin Ford disagree with
A. All creative jobs are not safe from AI.
B. Graphic designers tend to be affected.
C. Problem-solving jobs will remain unaffected.
D. Jobs focusing on repetitive tasks will still have a place.
55. What is the author’s attitude towards the potential job loss caused by AI
A. Optimistic. B. Pessimistic. C. Indifferent. D. Uncertain.
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项；选项中有两项为多余选项。
Organizing your room can help you feel calmer and in control of your life. Going about your day will be much easier if you know exactly where everything is. You will not have to waste time searching for your favorite pairs of jeans. 36
Take all of your belongings out of their current locations. 37 , but if you really want to organize your room, you will have to start from the beginning. Though you may be surprised by the giant pile of mess you’ve created on your floor, desk or bed, don’t worry. You’ll find the right place for everything soon enough.
Organize your belongings. Before you begin to figure out where everything should go, you should get a number of boxes for different purposes. Boxes are best because you can just recycle them when you’re done organizing and won’t have to deal with more things. 38
Try to get rid of as many items as possible. This is an important step. Though you may want to throw everything in the Keep box, or have put every last extra item in the Store box, this won’t help you get organized. You need to do some searching to figure out what you really need in your room right there where you spend your time. 39 . The less things you have, the easier it will be to organize your bedroom.
40 Now that you’ve organized your room, you can begin to get rid of all the things you don’t need. Throw away the Rubbish box and give the Donate box to the charity organization. The sooner you get rid of or store the other boxes, the easier it will be to move on with your organization.
A. Remember that less really is more
B. Put all the boxes in the right place
C. Here is the first step for you to organize your room
D This could help you sort out different items in the room
E. This may seem painful and like you’re creating a bigger mess
F. Make a new plan to throw away these boxes as soon as possible
G. Stick to small pieces of paper with Keep, Store, Donate, and Rubbish
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Lasse Stolley, a 17-year-old German teen, has been living on trains for over a year and a half. After 41 his parents that he had finished his school 42 to allow him to leave their home, he was already packing. Though worried, his parent eventually 43 to his decision. Then he began a 44 train-hopping adventure.
For over a year and a half, Stolley has traveled all over Germany. During the day he 45 in a seat, working as a self-employed programmer, and slept on night trains at night. He has been 46 the whole Germany and has sold most of his 47 in the past year, packing what was left in a 48 . Minimalism and resisting the urge to acquire new things are 49 parts of his lifestyle.
Stolley’s laptop and noise-canceling headphones provide some 50 room on the train. The early months of his adventure were 51 , as he had to learn about how everything worked and sometimes had to reschedule 52 . Living on trains allows him to visit almost every part of Germany, from the sea in the north to the Alps for a 53 , as well as some famous and 54 cities like Berlin and Munich to take in their past. When not working on his laptop, Stolley 55 in first-class carriages and mostly have meals at Deutsche Bahn waiting rooms at train stations around the country.
41. A. informing B. convincing C. announcing D. serving
42. A. appointments B. performances C. inspections D. assignments
43. A. sighed B. submitted C. subscribed D. objected
44. A. unique B. lonely C. dangerous D. disappointing
45. A. sank B. rested C. settled D. suspended
46. A. understanding B. exploring C. checking D. remembering
47. A. books B. possession’s C. clothes D. games
48. A. room B. computer C. backpack D. station
49. A. typical B. decent C. extra D. essential
50. A. private B. public C. tolerant D. restricted
51. A. complicated B. adaptable C. available D. tough
52. A. planes B. jobs C. relations D. trains
53. A. hike B. swim C. break D. jog
54. A. huge B. modern C. historic D. busy
55. A. sets about B. hangs out C. shows off D. blocks out
第二节 (共 10 小题，每小题 1. 5 分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Mango sticky rice is one of Thailand’s most beloved summer ____________ (56) (dish). Slices of sweet, ripe mango ____________ (57). (set) next to a pile of glutinous rice that’s topped with a coconut-based cream sauce and a light sprinkling of yellow mung (绿豆) beans. If ____________ (58) (do) right, the dish is pure magic, the perfect balance of flavors and textures. And few have perfected that balance as well as 63- year-old Varee Jeensuwan, the undeniable queen of mango sticky rice in Bangkok. Her shop in Bangkok’s busy downtown, Mae Varee, ____________ (59) (function) well since 1981. “We focus ____________ (60) the quality of the raw materials, and even the salt used in the cream, we order it from Samut Sakorn,” she says, ____________ (61) (refer) to a coastal province south of Bangkok. Thailand’s nam dok mai (water of the flower) mangoes are ____________ (62) most popular variety for the dish, as they possess a sweet flavor and smooth texture. ____________ (63) mangoes play the starring role, the other ingredients are just as important, says Varee. In her shop, they use sticky rice grains ____________ (64) (special) selected from Thailand’s northernmost province, Chiang Rai. For those ____________ (65) just want to buy whole, uncut mangoes, Varee allows its suppliers to set up outside the shop and sell their products.
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分 15 分)
假定你是学校文学社社长李华，你邀请到了著名诗人 Smith 教授作主题为”探索诗歌之美”的专题讲座。请你在讲座前作简要发言，内容包括：
1. 表示欢迎；
2. 简要介绍；
3. 对听众的要求。
注意：
1. 词数80左右；
2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 读后续写 (满分25 分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Amy loved to draw, and her hands, always dirty from the pencil lead, moved on the paper, showing the pictures in her mind. She would sit for hours, lost in art. Trees on her pages seemed to swing in an unseen wind, and the faces she drew wore lifelike expressions. Her clothes were old and had many patches (补丁) , which were laughed at by her classmates. Their laughter was a clear contrast to the quiet dignity with which Amy carried herself. Amy’s family did not have much money, but they loved each other very much. Her mother worked hard at many jobs to take care of them after Amy’s father got sick and died.
One day, the school announced an art contest. The announcement, with the theme “Nature and Humanity, “ was met with a wave of children’s excitement, Amy in particular. The school would select the top three winners, and the head teacher would award them prizes. Children enthusiastically registered for the contest and, after thoughtful consideration, finished their own art pieces. The contest organizers gathered all submissions one week later and set up an exhibit showcasing every participant’s work in the school gym.
The school gym was filled with viewers as the walls displayed the efforts of the young artists. There were paintings of colorful landscapes where the sun burst through thick clouds. Some students had created portraits (肖像) of their heroes. In this sea of creativity, one painting stood out. In the painting, a community garden was drawn, a place where people from diverse backgrounds came together in a joint effort, their hands united in the act of planting seeds of hope and unity: Each figure was painted with such care and attention to detail that they seemed to step off the canvas, inviting the viewer to join them in their labor of love.
The exhibition would last a week, and all the students and teachers could vote for their favorite work.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150 左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1: Finally came the day when the winners were announced. _______________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: The children who had laughed at Amy started to see her in a new way. ___________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
武汉市部分重点中学2023-2024学年度下学期期末联考
高二 英语试卷 参考答案
第一部分 听力 (满分 30 分，每小题 1. 5 分)
1~5 CABAB 6~10 CACAB 11~15 ACABC 16~20 BACCB
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共 15 小题；每小题 2. 5 分，满分 37. 5 分)
21~25 BCBAB 26~30 CBBCB 31~35 ABDDA
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
36~40 CEGAB
第三部分 语言知识应用 (共两节，满分30 分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41~45 BDCAC 46~50 BBCDA 51~55 DDACB
第二节 (共 10 小题；每小题 1. 5分，满分15 分)
56. dishes 57. are set 58. done 59. has been functioning/has functioned
60. on 61. referring 62. the 63. Though/Although/ While
64. specially 65. who
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作 (满分15分)
Good morning, everyone! We are honored to have Professor Smith with us today. Let’s welcome our special guest with generous applause.
Today’s theme is “How to Write and Enjoy Poems”. Professor Smith is a renowned scholar with a deep understanding of English classic poets, particularly Shakespeare. He will provide us with a framework for writing and appreciating English poems, exploring various dimensions such as genre, rhyme, and meaning. The following lecture promises to be an enlightening journey into the heart of poetry. So, I kindly ask everyone to be attentive and to actively participate in the discussion. And most importantly, if you have any questions for Professor Smith, we will have a Q&A session after the lecture.
I hope you enjoy the lecture!
第二节 读后续写 (满分 25 分)
Paragraph 1: Finally came the day when the winners were announced. The day of the winners’ announcement was met with a mix of excitement and anxiety. Amy stood nervously, her patched dress becoming a sharp contrast to the vibrant paintings surrounding her. The head teacher’s voice echoed through the gym as he announced the third and second place winners, each recipient receiving a round of applause. The room fell silent for the grand announcement. “And the first prize goes to Amy for her captivating portrayal of “Nature and Humanity, ‘“ the head teacher announced. A wave of cheers washed over Amy as she stepped forward, tears of joy streaming down her face.
Paragraph 2: The children who had laughed at Amy started to see her in a new way. The tease that once followed Amy was replaced with admiration. Her classmates, who had laughed at her, now saw her as a beacon of talent and inspiration. Her painting, a simple garden where diversity thrived, became a symbol of unity and harmony. Amy’s triumph resonated with her peers, who began to appreciate the inherent gifts in every individual. The whispers of disdain were replaced with praises, and Amy’s name echoed with respect. Her success not only earned her praises but also a newfound status among her peers, who now looked at her with awe and inspiration.
听力录音材料
Text 1
M: How’s life treating you
W: Pretty busy. I’m training hard for the coming marathon in our city, and you M: Well, I’m busy with some reports during the day and dance classes at night.
Text2
W: How’s your job as a sound engineer Is it boring
M: Definitely not. It’s a rewarding career. I operate various devices and balance the levels of different sounds to create an engaging audio experience.
Text 3
W: Do you know any do’s and don’ts for laundry
M: Yeah, always check care labels, right
W: That’s right. Use cold water for colored clothes and hot water for white clothes. As for delicate fabrics, use the gentle cycle and don’t forget to empty out the pockets. Got it laundry expert
Text 4
W: Have you met the newcomer Do you know if he’s a salesman or an accountant
M: I have no idea. Let’s ask Sarah. She does the hiring and firing in our company. She should know who he is.
W: Okay.
Text 5
W: You didn’t drive to work today. Did your car break down
M: No, my license plate number is restricted today. I took the subway instead. It gave me a different feeling.
Text 6
M: Have you considered switching to an electronic lock since you often forget your key Electronic locks are more convenient, though they are more expensive.
W: I’m not keen on the idea. I worry about technical issues with electronic ones.
M: Electronic locks have advanced technology and we can even control them with our smartphones.
W: Traditional locks have been reliable for ages and I prefer the touch of a traditional key.
M: I understand your concerns. We can choose a leading brand and set up a strong password.
Text 7
M: Lisa, you have lived in your dormitory for nearly three years. How do you feel
W: My roommates are nice. We often watch late night movies. We once tried DIY projects together, which has been the most impressive thing for me.
M: Sounds like fun.
W: Yeah, dormitory life is like a crash course in real world skills. I’ve learned to stay calm, and handle things positively, instead of just complaining.
M: I hope I can adapt to dormitory life like you do. I want to become more independent and responsible.
Text 8
M: I’m planning to integrate knowledge about preserving cultural heritage into classes.
W: Great idea! How do you plan to do it in your literature class
M: Well, I could explore historical texts and discuss the cultural context in which they were written.
W: Interesting approach! In science class, I can talk about the scientific techniques used in preservation, like climate control and material analysis.
M: Wonderful! Now, how do we get students actively involved in preservation
W: We can organize field trips to local museums or heritage sites and encourage them to do volunteer work.
M: Exactly, involving them in projects like starting awareness campaigns or hosting literature competitions could make it more meaningful.
W: I agree! So what do you think is the significance of preserving cultural heritage
M: It connects us to our roots, develops a sense of identity, and teaches us about diversity.
W: Well said, preserving our past is not just a duty, but a way to enrich our future.
Text 9
W: I heard you are really into cycling, Henry. I’ve been thinking about giving it a try. Any tips for a beginner
M: Definitely! First, get a comfortable bike and start at your own pace. Begin with short rides and gradually increase the distance. Next, always wear a helmet for safety. Plus, don’t hesitate to explore different routes.
W: Good advice! Do you have a regular cycling route
M: Yes, most of the time I go cycling in the nearby park and sometimes I ride along the coast or in the mountains.
W: Nice! What’s the longest distance you’ve cycled 50 km
M: My best record is three times that distance.
W: Amazing! I admire your willpower! By the way, I’ve heard about group rides. Have you ever attended one
M: Group rides are fantastic. I like them. I enjoy meeting fellow cyclists and sharing my experiences with them. And there’s a great sense of community. They’re for fun, not for competition.
W: Cycling seems like a great way to stay fit and enjoy the outdoors.
M: It truly is. Give it a shot.
Text 10
For many book writers, artificial intelligence, AI, is a threat to their work and the very idea of creativity. More than 10, 000 writers supported an open letter about the issue from the author’s guild this summer. The letter urged AI companies not to use copyrighted works without permission or payment. At the same time, AI is a story that can be told and no longer exists only in science fiction. Helen Phillips is the writer of the book, Hum. It tells of a wife and mother who loses her job because of AI. Phillips said there is a hope in AI for gaining all knowledge, but there is a fear of being replaced by non-human intelligence. Ryan Doherty is a director at a Caledon books. It recently agreed to publish Fred Lunsker’s book, Psych, featuring an AI doctor. We’ve been seeing more and more about AI and book proposals, Doherty said. Other AI-related books include Do you remember being born It tells of a poet who agrees to work with an AI poetry company. There is also in our likeness. It tells about a government worker and a fact-checking program with the powers to change facts. Some writers are not just writing about AI, they are also openly working with it. Earlier this year, Stephen Marsh used AI to write the short book, Death of an Author. Simon Rich worked with the AI program, Code Da Vinci 002, to create I Am Code.
高二 英语试卷
本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 考试时间：2024年6月26日下午14: 00—16: 00
祝考试顺利
注意事项：
1. 答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2、选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3. 非选择题的作答：用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并上交。
第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共5 小题；每小题 1. 5 分，满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman busy doing
A. Taking dance classes. B. Finishing reports. C. Preparing for a long race.
2. What does the man think of his job
A. It’s enjoyable. B. It’s boring. C. It’s worrying.
3. What is the woman mainly doing
A. Sharing experience in checking price labels.
B. Giving tips on washing clothes properly.
C. Praising the man’s laundry service.
4. Who might Sarah be
A. An HR director. B. A saleswoman. C. An accountant.
5. How did the man go to work today
A. On foot. B. By subway. C. By car.
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第6、7 题。
6. Why is the woman unwilling to get electronic locks
A. They are too expensive.
B. She might forget the password.
C. They may have some technical problems.
7. What does the man suggest doing
A. Picking a top brand.
B. Carrying a spare traditional key.
C. Downloading a special mobile app.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8、9 题。
8. What has impressed Lisa most about her dormitory life
A. Having discussions on courses.
B. Watching late-night movies.
C. Taking part in DIY projects.
D. What has Lisa learned from her dormitory life
A. Calmness. B. Independence. C. Responsibility.
听第8段材料，回答第 10至12题。
10 What subject does the man teach
A. World history. B. Literature. C. Science.
11. How does the man help students engage in preservation
A. By holding some competitions.
B. By organizing field trips to museums.
C. By encouraging them to do volunteer work.
12. What does the woman think of preserving cultural heritage
A. It teaches people about diversity.
B. It connects people to their roots.
C. It positively influences the future.
听第9段材料，回答第 13至 16题。
13. What is the man’s first piece of advice for the woman
A. Setting off at her own speed. B. Wearing a helmet at all times. C. Exploring different routes.
14. Where does the man normally go cycling
A. Along the coast. B. In the nearby park. C. In the mountains.
15. What is the longest distance the man has cycled
A. 50 kilometers. B. 100 kilometers. C. 150 kilometers.
16. Why does the man enjoy group rides
A. They help break his cycling record.
B. They give him a sense of belonging.
C. They usually involve intense competition.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. What was mentioned in the open letter
A. The concern about AI affecting writing.
B. The impact of AI on science fiction films.
C. The benefits of AI in the field of writing.
18. What is the main topic of the book Hum
A. A fact-checking program. B. A poet working with AI. C. A story of Job loss due to AI.
19. Who is Ryan Doherty
A. A government worker. B. A doctor. C. A director.
2t. Which work was created with the help of AI
A. Sike. B. Death of an Author. C. In Our Likeness.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共20小题，每小题2. 5分，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题，每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Music is universal. Take a moment to think about what music you like as you read our beginners’ guide to the history of music.
Middle Ages
The Middle Ages, which ranges from the 6th century to the 16th century, featured medieval (中世纪的) music. During this time, there were two general types of music styles— the monophonic and the polyphonic. The main forms of music included Gregorian chanting and plainchant.
Classical Period
The music forms and styles of the Classical period, which ranges from 1750 to 1820, are characterized by simpler melodies and forms like the sonatas. During this time, the middle class had more access to music. So composers began to create music that was easier to understand. Most especially, Mozart wrote his first symphony and Beethoven was born during this period.
Romantic Period
Historiographers define the Romantic music period to be from 1800 to 1900. Music forms of the Romantic period used music to tell a story or express an idea. Various instruments including wind instruments were used. Instruments that were invented or improved during this time included the flute and the saxophone.
The 20h Century
Music during the 20th century brought about many innovations on how music was performed and appreciated. Artists were more willing to experiment with new music forms and used technology to improve their compositions. The 20 century music has various styles.
21. In which period were Mozart’s compositions created
A. Middle Ages. B. Classical period. C. Romantic period. D. The 20th century.
22 What can we know about music from the Romantic period
A. This period lasted over 100 years.
B. Musicians only used wind instruments.
C. Music was related to a story or an idea.
D. The music forms were harder to understand.
23. How did artists improve their music during the 20 century
A. By inventing new instruments.
B. By practicing new music styles.
C. By writing complex compositions.
D. By improving traditional music styles.
B
Texan 81-year-old good friends Ellie Hamby and Sandy Hazelip toured the world in 80 days, proving that adventure doesn’t have an age limit.
Their first stop was a location that challenges even many experienced travelers: the Antarctic. Getting to the southernmost continent first required crossing the Drake Passage. “For almost two days, we were rocking and rolling, slipping and sliding through the Drake Passage and we were holding onto dear life.” Hamby said. The voyage, however, faded from their mind as they set foot on the ground of the Antarctic, fascinated by the breathtaking beauty of penguins, icebergs and glaciers.
Since that first venture, the pair have visited 18 countries across all seven continents. They rode camels in Egypt, met elephants in Bali, danced in Nepal and observed the Northern Lights in Finland. And despite the challenges international travel presented, the good friends said they finished their trip without any argument. Though they’re both independent and stubborn, they respected each other’s feelings. And what they remember the most are the people that they encountered. “We got to know some of the most wonderful, kindest, friendliest people. We just have friends now all over the world that we love dearly.” Hamby said.
The two shared a crucial piece of advice for travelers worrying about the language barrier on their own adventure. “You know, people often ask us about it.” said Hamby. “We tell them there’s one universal language, and that’s the smile. We found it worked wonders because we were often aware that English was not always spoken and that that could cover all languages.”
They also encouraged other older people not to let age hold them back. Aside from some minor changes in plans-like deciding not to ride a motorbike in Bali because of concerns about falling-their age didn’t affect their journey abroad. They said they felt confident that if they were injured during their trip, their children would have been at peace knowing that they were doing what they wanted. And Hazelip described 81 as the perfect age to embark on a trip. “Getting older does give us a little bit of wisdom of making decisions.” she said.
24. What might the pair think of their trip to the Antarctic
A. Challenging but worthy. B. Expensive but exciting.
C. Interesting but fruitless. D. Unpleasant but impressive.
25. What is the highlight of the pair’s adventures for themselves
A. Learning about different cultures.
B. Meeting nice people along the way.
C. Experiencing many challenging activities.
D. Avoiding conflicts despite their stubborn nature.
26. What does the underlined word “that” in paragraph 4 refer to
A. English. B. The pair’s advice. C. The smile. D. The language barrier.
27. What can we infer about the pair from the last paragraph
A. They once fell off a motorbike in Bali.
B. Their family understood and supported them.
C. They regretted not exploring the world earlier.
D. Their wisdom saved them lots of time on the trip.
C
Swedish Midsommar, also known as Midsummer, is a beloved holiday in Sweden that marks the Summer Solstice, the longest day of the year. This usually takes place around mid-June in the Northern Hemisphere.
With Midsummer being the longest day of the year, it was often considered a magical night to the agricultural society within Sweden. Full of mystery and enchantment (魅力) it’s believed to be a time when plants gained healing powers and were used to predict the future. Today, it is more about celebrating the beginning of summer and the good times ahead.
Like all major holidays, Midsummer focuses on sharing food and drinks with loved ones. Traditional Swedish dishes you’ll find on a Midsummer table include herring in all forms served with chives and sour cream, boiled new potatoes with fresh dill, cured salmon, rustic breads, potato dumplings, meatballs, and a dessert involving strawberries.
Everyone has their own Midsummer traditions, but many stick to the more traditional options when it comes to celebrating. For a grand Midsummer lunch-party, no celebration would be complete without dancing with flowers in your hair, singing songs, while feasting on a delicious selection of Swedish dishes. Another form of celebrating Midsummer was the raising of a pole which was then danced around. This lovely tradition is still very much a part of Midsummer celebrations with the maypole decorated in garlands of leaves and fresh flowers.
At the heart of Swedish Midsummer lies the spirit of togetherness and human connection, Families, friends, and communities gather in joyful union, creating a shared experience that goes beyond individual boundaries. The dances around the maypole, the laughter, and the heartfelt conversations produce a sense of belonging and interdependence. Midsummer reminds us of the fundamental need for social bonds and the fulfillment gained from genuine human interaction. It serves as a reminder that in the complexities of modern life, the simplest connections can bring us deep joy and fulfillment.
28. What can we know about Swedish Midsummer
A. It marks the hottest day of the year. B. It celebrates the arrival of summer.
C. It is used to predict the near future. D. It is based on a mysterious old tale.
29. What is mainly discussed Midsummer in paragraph 4
A. Its dishes. B. Its origins. C. Its customs. D. Its influences.
30. What is the significance of celebrating Midsummer
A. Learning the value of teamwork. B. Appreciating the warmth of unity.
C. Keeping in touch with old friends. D. Passing on the traditional lifestyle.
83. In which part of a magazine may you read this passage
A. Culture. B. Wellbeing. C. Event. D. Fashion.
D
Since the start of the industrial revolution, there have been threats that new machines- from mechanized looms (织布机) to microchips would take human jobs.
A March report from Goldman Sachs estimated that AI capable of content generation could do a quarter of all the work currently done by humans. Across the European Union and the US, the report further notes, 300 million jobs could be lost to automation.
Thankfully, it’s not all bad news. The experts issue their warnings with a relief: there are still things AI isn’t capable of- tasks that involve distinctly human qualities, like emotional intelligence and outside-the-box thinking.
“I think there are generally three categories that will remain unaffected in the coming future.” says Martin Ford, a related author. “The first would be jobs that are genuinely creative: you’re not engaged in repetitive work or just rearranging things, but you’re genuinely coming up with new ideas and building something new.”
That doesn’t necessarily mean all jobs that are considered “creative” are safe. In fact, things like graphic design and visual art-related roles may be among the first to go. Basic algorithms can direct a robot to analyze millions of images, allowing AI to rapidly acquire a sense of beauty. “But there’s some security in other kinds of creativity, in science, and medicine and law people whose job is coming up with a new legal strategy or business strategy.” says Ford.
“The second category,” he continues, “is jobs that require complicated interpersonal relationships.” He points to nurses, business consultants and investigative journalists. “These are jobs where you need a very deep understanding of people. I think it’ll be a long time before AI has the ability to interact in the kinds of ways that really build relationships.” he says.
“The third safe zone is jobs that really require lots of mobility and problem-solving ability in unpredictable environments.” says Ford. Many trade jobs-think electricians, plumbers, engineers and the like - fall under this umbrella. “These are the kinds of jobs where you’re dealing with a new situation all the time.” he adds.
In short, seeking roles in dynamic, shifting environments that include unpredictable tasks is a good way to avoid job loss to Al, at least, for a while.
32 What has been a historical concern regarding new machines
A. The need for increased human skills. B. The possibility of human losing jobs.
C. The fear of increased automation costs. D. The potential for machine malfunctions.
33 What can we know from the March report
A. AI is not capable of content generation. B. AI can imitate distinctly human qualities.
C. AI poses no threat to human employment. D. AI has no outside-the-box thinking abilities.
24. Which of the following statement will Martin Ford disagree with
A. All creative jobs are not safe from AI.
B. Graphic designers tend to be affected.
C. Problem-solving jobs will remain unaffected.
D. Jobs focusing on repetitive tasks will still have a place.
55. What is the author’s attitude towards the potential job loss caused by AI
A. Optimistic. B. Pessimistic. C. Indifferent. D. Uncertain.
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项；选项中有两项为多余选项。
Organizing your room can help you feel calmer and in control of your life. Going about your day will be much easier if you know exactly where everything is. You will not have to waste time searching for your favorite pairs of jeans. 36
Take all of your belongings out of their current locations. 37 , but if you really want to organize your room, you will have to start from the beginning. Though you may be surprised by the giant pile of mess you’ve created on your floor, desk or bed, don’t worry. You’ll find the right place for everything soon enough.
Organize your belongings. Before you begin to figure out where everything should go, you should get a number of boxes for different purposes. Boxes are best because you can just recycle them when you’re done organizing and won’t have to deal with more things. 38
Try to get rid of as many items as possible. This is an important step. Though you may want to throw everything in the Keep box, or have put every last extra item in the Store box, this won’t help you get organized. You need to do some searching to figure out what you really need in your room right there where you spend your time. 39 . The less things you have, the easier it will be to organize your bedroom.
40 Now that you’ve organized your room, you can begin to get rid of all the things you don’t need. Throw away the Rubbish box and give the Donate box to the charity organization. The sooner you get rid of or store the other boxes, the easier it will be to move on with your organization.
A. Remember that less really is more
B. Put all the boxes in the right place
C. Here is the first step for you to organize your room
D This could help you sort out different items in the room
E. This may seem painful and like you’re creating a bigger mess
F. Make a new plan to throw away these boxes as soon as possible
G. Stick to small pieces of paper with Keep, Store, Donate, and Rubbish
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Lasse Stolley, a 17-year-old German teen, has been living on trains for over a year and a half. After 41 his parents that he had finished his school 42 to allow him to leave their home, he was already packing. Though worried, his parent eventually 43 to his decision. Then he began a 44 train-hopping adventure.
For over a year and a half, Stolley has traveled all over Germany. During the day he 45 in a seat, working as a self-employed programmer, and slept on night trains at night. He has been 46 the whole Germany and has sold most of his 47 in the past year, packing what was left in a 48 . Minimalism and resisting the urge to acquire new things are 49 parts of his lifestyle.
Stolley’s laptop and noise-canceling headphones provide some 50 room on the train. The early months of his adventure were 51 , as he had to learn about how everything worked and sometimes had to reschedule 52 . Living on trains allows him to visit almost every part of Germany, from the sea in the north to the Alps for a 53 , as well as some famous and 54 cities like Berlin and Munich to take in their past. When not working on his laptop, Stolley 55 in first-class carriages and mostly have meals at Deutsche Bahn waiting rooms at train stations around the country.
41. A. informing B. convincing C. announcing D. serving
42. A. appointments B. performances C. inspections D. assignments
43. A. sighed B. submitted C. subscribed D. objected
44. A. unique B. lonely C. dangerous D. disappointing
45. A. sank B. rested C. settled D. suspended
46. A. understanding B. exploring C. checking D. remembering
47. A. books B. possession’s C. clothes D. games
48. A. room B. computer C. backpack D. station
49. A. typical B. decent C. extra D. essential
50. A. private B. public C. tolerant D. restricted
51. A. complicated B. adaptable C. available D. tough
52. A. planes B. jobs C. relations D. trains
53. A. hike B. swim C. break D. jog
54. A. huge B. modern C. historic D. busy
55. A. sets about B. hangs out C. shows off D. blocks out
第二节 (共 10 小题，每小题 1. 5 分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Mango sticky rice is one of Thailand’s most beloved summer ____________ (56) (dish). Slices of sweet, ripe mango ____________ (57). (set) next to a pile of glutinous rice that’s topped with a coconut-based cream sauce and a light sprinkling of yellow mung (绿豆) beans. If ____________ (58) (do) right, the dish is pure magic, the perfect balance of flavors and textures. And few have perfected that balance as well as 63- year-old Varee Jeensuwan, the undeniable queen of mango sticky rice in Bangkok. Her shop in Bangkok’s busy downtown, Mae Varee, ____________ (59) (function) well since 1981. “We focus ____________ (60) the quality of the raw materials, and even the salt used in the cream, we order it from Samut Sakorn,” she says, ____________ (61) (refer) to a coastal province south of Bangkok. Thailand’s nam dok mai (water of the flower) mangoes are ____________ (62) most popular variety for the dish, as they possess a sweet flavor and smooth texture. ____________ (63) mangoes play the starring role, the other ingredients are just as important, says Varee. In her shop, they use sticky rice grains ____________ (64) (special) selected from Thailand’s northernmost province, Chiang Rai. For those ____________ (65) just want to buy whole, uncut mangoes, Varee allows its suppliers to set up outside the shop and sell their products.
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分 15 分)
假定你是学校文学社社长李华，你邀请到了著名诗人 Smith 教授作主题为”探索诗歌之美”的专题讲座。请你在讲座前作简要发言，内容包括：
1. 表示欢迎；
2. 简要介绍；
3. 对听众的要求。
注意：
1. 词数80左右；
2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 读后续写 (满分25 分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Amy loved to draw, and her hands, always dirty from the pencil lead, moved on the paper, showing the pictures in her mind. She would sit for hours, lost in art. Trees on her pages seemed to swing in an unseen wind, and the faces she drew wore lifelike expressions. Her clothes were old and had many patches (补丁) , which were laughed at by her classmates. Their laughter was a clear contrast to the quiet dignity with which Amy carried herself. Amy’s family did not have much money, but they loved each other very much. Her mother worked hard at many jobs to take care of them after Amy’s father got sick and died.
One day, the school announced an art contest. The announcement, with the theme “Nature and Humanity, “ was met with a wave of children’s excitement, Amy in particular. The school would select the top three winners, and the head teacher would award them prizes. Children enthusiastically registered for the contest and, after thoughtful consideration, finished their own art pieces. The contest organizers gathered all submissions one week later and set up an exhibit showcasing every participant’s work in the school gym.
The school gym was filled with viewers as the walls displayed the efforts of the young artists. There were paintings of colorful landscapes where the sun burst through thick clouds. Some students had created portraits (肖像) of their heroes. In this sea of creativity, one painting stood out. In the painting, a community garden was drawn, a place where people from diverse backgrounds came together in a joint effort, their hands united in the act of planting seeds of hope and unity: Each figure was painted with such care and attention to detail that they seemed to step off the canvas, inviting the viewer to join them in their labor of love.
The exhibition would last a week, and all the students and teachers could vote for their favorite work.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150 左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1: Finally came the day when the winners were announced. _______________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: The children who had laughed at Amy started to see her in a new way. ___________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
武汉市部分重点中学2023-2024学年度下学期期末联考
高二 英语试卷 参考答案
第一部分 听力 (满分 30 分，每小题 1. 5 分)
1~5 CABAB 6~10 CACAB 11~15 ACABC 16~20 BACCB
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共 15 小题；每小题 2. 5 分，满分 37. 5 分)
21~25 BCBAB 26~30 CBBCB 31~35 ABDDA
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
36~40 CEGAB
第三部分 语言知识应用 (共两节，满分30 分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41~45 BDCAC 46~50 BBCDA 51~55 DDACB
第二节 (共 10 小题；每小题 1. 5分，满分15 分)
56. dishes 57. are set 58. done 59. has been functioning/has functioned
60. on 61. referring 62. the 63. Though/Although/ While
64. specially 65. who
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作 (满分15分)
Good morning, everyone! We are honored to have Professor Smith with us today. Let’s welcome our special guest with generous applause.
Today’s theme is “How to Write and Enjoy Poems”. Professor Smith is a renowned scholar with a deep understanding of English classic poets, particularly Shakespeare. He will provide us with a framework for writing and appreciating English poems, exploring various dimensions such as genre, rhyme, and meaning. The following lecture promises to be an enlightening journey into the heart of poetry. So, I kindly ask everyone to be attentive and to actively participate in the discussion. And most importantly, if you have any questions for Professor Smith, we will have a Q&A session after the lecture.
I hope you enjoy the lecture!
第二节 读后续写 (满分 25 分)
Paragraph 1: Finally came the day when the winners were announced. The day of the winners’ announcement was met with a mix of excitement and anxiety. Amy stood nervously, her patched dress becoming a sharp contrast to the vibrant paintings surrounding her. The head teacher’s voice echoed through the gym as he announced the third and second place winners, each recipient receiving a round of applause. The room fell silent for the grand announcement. “And the first prize goes to Amy for her captivating portrayal of “Nature and Humanity, ‘“ the head teacher announced. A wave of cheers washed over Amy as she stepped forward, tears of joy streaming down her face.
Paragraph 2: The children who had laughed at Amy started to see her in a new way. The tease that once followed Amy was replaced with admiration. Her classmates, who had laughed at her, now saw her as a beacon of talent and inspiration. Her painting, a simple garden where diversity thrived, became a symbol of unity and harmony. Amy’s triumph resonated with her peers, who began to appreciate the inherent gifts in every individual. The whispers of disdain were replaced with praises, and Amy’s name echoed with respect. Her success not only earned her praises but also a newfound status among her peers, who now looked at her with awe and inspiration.
听力录音材料
Text 1
M: How’s life treating you
W: Pretty busy. I’m training hard for the coming marathon in our city, and you M: Well, I’m busy with some reports during the day and dance classes at night.
Text2
W: How’s your job as a sound engineer Is it boring
M: Definitely not. It’s a rewarding career. I operate various devices and balance the levels of different sounds to create an engaging audio experience.
Text 3
W: Do you know any do’s and don’ts for laundry
M: Yeah, always check care labels, right
W: That’s right. Use cold water for colored clothes and hot water for white clothes. As for delicate fabrics, use the gentle cycle and don’t forget to empty out the pockets. Got it laundry expert
Text 4
W: Have you met the newcomer Do you know if he’s a salesman or an accountant
M: I have no idea. Let’s ask Sarah. She does the hiring and firing in our company. She should know who he is.
W: Okay.
Text 5
W: You didn’t drive to work today. Did your car break down
M: No, my license plate number is restricted today. I took the subway instead. It gave me a different feeling.
Text 6
M: Have you considered switching to an electronic lock since you often forget your key Electronic locks are more convenient, though they are more expensive.
W: I’m not keen on the idea. I worry about technical issues with electronic ones.
M: Electronic locks have advanced technology and we can even control them with our smartphones.
W: Traditional locks have been reliable for ages and I prefer the touch of a traditional key.
M: I understand your concerns. We can choose a leading brand and set up a strong password.
Text 7
M: Lisa, you have lived in your dormitory for nearly three years. How do you feel
W: My roommates are nice. We often watch late night movies. We once tried DIY projects together, which has been the most impressive thing for me.
M: Sounds like fun.
W: Yeah, dormitory life is like a crash course in real world skills. I’ve learned to stay calm, and handle things positively, instead of just complaining.
M: I hope I can adapt to dormitory life like you do. I want to become more independent and responsible.
Text 8
M: I’m planning to integrate knowledge about preserving cultural heritage into classes.
W: Great idea! How do you plan to do it in your literature class
M: Well, I could explore historical texts and discuss the cultural context in which they were written.
W: Interesting approach! In science class, I can talk about the scientific techniques used in preservation, like climate control and material analysis.
M: Wonderful! Now, how do we get students actively involved in preservation
W: We can organize field trips to local museums or heritage sites and encourage them to do volunteer work.
M: Exactly, involving them in projects like starting awareness campaigns or hosting literature competitions could make it more meaningful.
W: I agree! So what do you think is the significance of preserving cultural heritage
M: It connects us to our roots, develops a sense of identity, and teaches us about diversity.
W: Well said, preserving our past is not just a duty, but a way to enrich our future.
Text 9
W: I heard you are really into cycling, Henry. I’ve been thinking about giving it a try. Any tips for a beginner
M: Definitely! First, get a comfortable bike and start at your own pace. Begin with short rides and gradually increase the distance. Next, always wear a helmet for safety. Plus, don’t hesitate to explore different routes.
W: Good advice! Do you have a regular cycling route
M: Yes, most of the time I go cycling in the nearby park and sometimes I ride along the coast or in the mountains.
W: Nice! What’s the longest distance you’ve cycled 50 km
M: My best record is three times that distance.
W: Amazing! I admire your willpower! By the way, I’ve heard about group rides. Have you ever attended one
M: Group rides are fantastic. I like them. I enjoy meeting fellow cyclists and sharing my experiences with them. And there’s a great sense of community. They’re for fun, not for competition.
W: Cycling seems like a great way to stay fit and enjoy the outdoors.
M: It truly is. Give it a shot.
Text 10
For many book writers, artificial intelligence, AI, is a threat to their work and the very idea of creativity. More than 10, 000 writers supported an open letter about the issue from the author’s guild this summer. The letter urged AI companies not to use copyrighted works without permission or payment. At the same time, AI is a story that can be told and no longer exists only in science fiction. Helen Phillips is the writer of the book, Hum. It tells of a wife and mother who loses her job because of AI. Phillips said there is a hope in AI for gaining all knowledge, but there is a fear of being replaced by non-human intelligence. Ryan Doherty is a director at a Caledon books. It recently agreed to publish Fred Lunsker’s book, Psych, featuring an AI doctor. We’ve been seeing more and more about AI and book proposals, Doherty said. Other AI-related books include Do you remember being born It tells of a poet who agrees to work with an AI poetry company. There is also in our likeness. It tells about a government worker and a fact-checking program with the powers to change facts. Some writers are not just writing about AI, they are also openly working with it. Earlier this year, Stephen Marsh used AI to write the short book, Death of an Author. Simon Rich worked with the AI program, Code Da Vinci 002, to create I Am Code.
同课章节目录