丽水市2023-2024学年高二下学期6月期末教学质量监控
英语试题卷 2024.06
本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)。
第 I 卷
注意事项：
1.答第Ⅰ卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。不能答在本试卷上，否则无效。
第一部分：听力 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在答题卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How many offices does the man's company have
A. One. B. Six. C. Twelve.
2. What does the man do
A. A businessman. B. A student. C. A farmer.
3. Which of the following statements is NOT true
A. Mo Yan is a writer.
B. The man has never heard of Mo Yan before.
C. The woman hasn't read any of Mo Yan's works.
4. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Noise. B. Housework. C. Neighborhood.
5. What is the weather like now
A. Cloudy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
第二节 (共15 小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间来阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. Whose birthday party was it
A. The man's aunt's.
B. The man's grandfather's.
C. The man's grandmother's.
7. How did the man get to Nanjing
A. By air. B. By train. C. By ship.
听第7段材料，回答第8至 10题。
8. What's the probable relationship between the two speakers
A. Boss and clerk. B. Friends. C. Shop assistant and customer.
9. What does the woman do
A. She works in a hotel.
B. She is a flight attendant.
C. She works in a bookshop.
10. What can we learn about the woman
A. She is on vacation.
B. She is from Scotland.
C. She is familiar with this place.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. At the woman's house. B. At the man's house. C. At a TV shop.
12. What can we learn about the woman
A. TV is not important to her.
B. She doesn't often watch TV.
C. She likes watching TV very much.
13. What can we know from the conversation
A. The man has fixed many TV sets.
B. The man sells many kinds of TV sets.
C. The man advised the woman to buy a new TV set.
听9段材料，回答第14至第17题。
14. What does the woman want to find out
A. What's on. B. What's wrong. C. Recent news.
15. How long does the performance last
A. For 135 minutes. B. For 150 minutes. C. For 165 minutes.
16. What can we learn about the woman
A. She is poor.
B. She might be a stranger here.
C. She doesn't have any children under seven.
17. What can we learn from the conversation
A. The man is an actor in the musical.
B. Some tickets may be sold at half price.
C. The children under seven aren't allowed to enter the theater.
听 10段材料, 回答第18至20题。
18. When was Benjamin Franklin appointed as head of the postal service in America
A. In 1715. B. In 1575. C. In 1775.
19. What does the passage mainly talk about
A. The problems the USPS meets.
B. How to make a lot of money.
C. The method to arrange the retired people.
20. What can we learn from the passage
A. USPS is newly formed in America.
B. Only by making major change can the problem be solved.
C. USPS can pay any payment of health care for future retirees.
第二部分：阅读理解 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
These new acquisitions include works by some of the youngest living artists ever collected by the British Museum, presented alongside works by famous artists from Mary Delany and Edouard Manet, to Barbara Hepworth, Andy Warhol and Yinka Shonibare. The show will be touring venues around the UK from the October 2023 to July2024.
In this surprising and thought-provoking selection, emerging artists take the medium of drawing in new directions and use innovative approaches. A wide range of techniques and practices are represented, including drawings using make-up on face wipes by Sin Wai Kin and a drawing made with chalk collected from the White Cliffs of Dover by Josephine Baker.
Artists show how drawing, often considered a quiet or private medium, can be used to challenge social norms(规范), explore identity and protest injustice. Catherine Anyango Grünewald has described the time and labour invested in her monumental drawings as a “direct admiration” for their subjects, often the victims of institutional crimes. The painstaking de tail of Irish artist Miriam de Búrca's drawings of earth forces us to confront an uncomfortable history.
This tour has evolved from an exhibition at the British Museum, and each gallery will offer their unique take on the works.
Supported by the Dorset Foundation in memory of Harry M Weinrebe.
21. What can we learn from the first paragraph
A. The tour has a duration of one year and a half.
B. Visitors can enjoy the tour only in the British Museum.
C. Some works on exhibition were created by young artists.
D. Famous artists can teach visitors painting skills in person.
22. What do Sin Wai Kin and Josephine Baker have in common
A. They employ innovative methods. B. They represent famous artists.
C. They collect surprising drawings. D. They prefer a new but risky direction.
23. Who makes efforts to show respect to the subjects of works
A. Mary Delany. B. Harry M Weinrebe.
C. Barbara Hepworth. D. Catherine Anyango Grünewald.
B
Different people have different ambitions in life such as doctors. For as long as I can remember I always liked teaching people something. From my childhood, I taught whatever I learned in school. It started with helping some trying to tie their shoelaces or making my younger siblings remember alphabets through a sing-song rhythm. This profession will enable me to make my humble contribution to the building of my nation by instilling the spirit of nationalism and patriotism in my students. The sense of accomplishment I used to feel when the other person finally learned whatever it was that I had been teaching them was indescribable.
The main reason I always wanted to teach was that firstly I thought teaching comes naturally to me and secondly, I always had the utmost respect for my teacher, who knew my strengths and weakness more than I did. According to Plato, education is the turning of the inner eye towards the light. By adopting the profession of teaching, I can hope to perform this stupendous task.
I aspire to make a difference in others’ lives through education. I’m studying to be an elementary school teacher because I believe that children can achieve so much more if they learn early of their potential. My parents taught me as a child that schooling was vital to success in life. Truly, that lesson has been the most important in my path to college. I don't think I would have made it this far had I not taken my education seriously.
What started from teaching my siblings in their homework ended in me volunteering to teach underprivileged children and making me realize that in this world there could be never enough educators and there are people in this world who are always in need of learning. I want to teach others about the importance of education so they too can prosper. Everything I'm learning at university is important for my future career and, if I don't study it, I'm failing my future students. In view of the foregoing reasons, I am convinced that my preference to become a teacher is a step in the right direction. I will, therefore, spare no effort to achieve this ambition of my life.
24. The author mentioned the childhood experience to .
A. share the sense of accomplishment B. advocate nationalism and patriotism
C. explain the inborn passion for teaching D. introduce several ways to help others
25. What does the word “stupendous” underlined in paragraph 2 refer to
A. Impossible. B. Impressive. C. Indescribable. D. Imaginary.
26. What inspires the author to become an elementary school teacher
A. The significance of education. B. The power of students’ potential.
C. The life of the university. D. The successful career of parents.
27. What has the author learned from the voluntary work
A. Being a teacher is effortless.
B. Poor children fail to be educators.
C. Studying in university is not enough.
D. Education should be accessible to all.
C
Researchers from the GIGA—Center of Research Cyclotron at the University of Liège have discovered that the sleeping body reacts to the external world while sleeping, which explains how some sensory input might influence sleep quality.
Researchers from ULi ège worked with the University of Fribourg in Switzerland to study if the body genuinely disconnects from the outside world while sleeping. They focused on how the heartbeat changes when we hear different words while sleeping. They discovered that calming words reduced cardiac(心脏的) activity as a reflection of deeper sleep, in contrast to neutral phrases, which did not have the same effect. This result, reported in the Journal of Sleep Research, throws fresh light on brain-heart interactions during sleep.
A previous study analyzing brain data showed that relaxing words increased deep sleep duration and sleep quality, showing that we can positively influence sleep using meaningful words. By that time, the authors reasoned that the brain might still process sensory input in a way that made our bodies feel more relaxed after hearing soothing phrases while sleeping.
In this new study, the authors were able to measure cardiac activity to test this idea and discovered that the heart slows down only after the display of calming phrases. Markers of cardiac and brain activity were then compared to understand how much they contributed to the modulation(演变) of sleep by auditory information. Cardiac activity has been indeed proposed to contribute to the way we perceive the world directly, but such evidence has so far been obtained in wakefulness. With these results, the ULi ège researchers showed that it was also true in sleep, offering a new perspective on the essential role of bodily reactions beyond brain data for our understanding of sleep.
“Most of sleep research focuses on the brain and rarely investigates bodily activity,” says Dr. Schmidt. This study takes a more complete approach to the modulation of sleep functions by sensory information. By investigating cardiac reactions to noises, we may be able to research in the future the involvement of the body in the way sounds influence emotional processing of memories while sleeping.
28. What can we learn about the sleeping body from the first two paragraphs
A. It disconnects from the outside world. B. It reacts positively to calming words.
C. It makes no response to neutral words. D. It suffers the changes of the heartbeat.
29. What did the new study focus on
A. Unpleasant noise. B. The modulation of sleep.
C. Cardiac activity. D. The function of the brain.
30. Why were the markers compared
A. To understand the world directly.
B. To obtain information in wakefulness.
C. To study the impact of sensory input on sleep.
D. To test the accuracy of auditory information.
31. What is the author's attitude toward the new study
A. Unclear. B. Indifferent. C. Doubtful. D. Approving.
D
Ten years ago, Britain's first stretch of all-lane running (ALR)“smart” motorway was introduced, with more to follow. As a way to ease congestion(堵塞) without spending money on widening roads, ALR motorways function without a hard shoulder for drivers in difficulty. As they were rolled out, motorists were assured that the emergency lane would not be missed, as new technologies would be able to respond to breakdowns, and control traffic flow.
The public was understandably doubtful about how smart this idea was, and it turned out the public was right. Smart motorways without a hard shoulder have been found to be three times more dangerous than ones where drivers have that option. Behind the data lie terrible incidents, in which stationary(不动的) vehicles have been ploughed into from behind with serious consequences. Rightly, Rishi Sunak last year stopped plans for more ALR motorways, citing a lack of public confidence. But he should go further. The RAC this week called for a hard shoulder to be restored on all smart motorways. That advice should be listened to in Whitehall and acted upon. A 2021 House of Commons transport committee report made shockingly clear that before rolling the “no emergency lane” policy out, ministers driven by the desire to save money failed to do due diligence on the safety risks attached.
Since then, plans to retrofit(翻新) refuge areas along motorway routes have proceeded at a snail's pace. Of the 150 emergency areas due to be in place by next year, only a tiny proportion have been delivered. Even when all are up and running, the risk of a catastrophic breakdown in onrushing traffic will remain.
At a minimum, the government should move to a system of “dynamic” motorways, where emergency lanes are only opened to traffic at particularly busy periods. But the preferable solution would be to restore a permanent hard shoulder. This could be done while keeping the benefits of investment in technical innovations that allow traffic to be better monitored and flexibly regulated. Mr Sunak did the right thing in bringing a foolish experiment to an end. The next task is to correct the damage already done.
32. Why were ALR motorways introduced
A. To reduce serious traffic accidents. B. To relieve traffic jam at low costs.
C. To save money on road maintenance. D. To improve motorists' driving skills.
33. What can we infer from paragraph 2
A. Roads with a hard shoulder posed little threat.
B. Smart motorways failed to win public favor.
C. Ministers were driven by the greed for money.
D. Rishi Sunak was forced to stop smart motorways.
34. What does the author suggest the government do
A. Build more emergency areas. B. Invest in technical advances.
C. Calculate the potential damage. D. Keep a hard shoulder in place.
35. Which of the following is the best title for the text
A. Smart Motorways Are Not Clever Without a Hard Shoulder
B. Smart Motorways Witnessed Catastrophic Breakdowns
C. Smart Motorways Benefit From Technological Innovation
D. Smart Motorways Raised the Doubts of the General Public
第二节 (共5 小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分 12.5 分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A quick browse of the FitTok tag reveals our madness with maximum fitness—couples lifting one another overhead, mums sprinting from room to room with pushchairs, which can make the average gymgoer feel hopeless. 36 Try these achievable goals.
Find a diet that works
Trendy diets are often extreme, but that's not going to help you sustain a healthy lifestyle. “As a general standard your diet should consist of 20-30 per cent fat, 40-50 per cent carbs and25-30 per cent protein,” says Farren Morgan, a military fitness coach. 37
Run a 5k
You don't have to run the length of Africa. Training for your local ParkRun—a weekly group 5k—is a great place to start. Fran Bungay says,“ 38 Alternating a minute running with a minute walking is fine to begin with. Once you can run for 20 minutes, try to push for30.”
Remove back pain
“Spending all day at a desk can lead to tight hips, which may then lead to pain in the lower back and shoulders,” Clift says.“ 39 ”You can also try the knee twist. Lie on your back and bring your knees up to your chest, before slowly lowering them to the left and to the right while keeping your back flat on the floor.
Make the gym a habit
Studies have found that activity trackers can help people develop healthy routines over the long term, and that it always takes about 66 days to form a lasting habit. 40
A. Aim for three 20-minute training a week.
B. It doesn't have to be all or nothing, however.
C. Squats help to strengthen your back and core, and will burn calories.
D. Use the True Coach app to track your goals and receive personalized feedback.
E. Get this right, and drink certain amount of water a day, and your body should adapt quickly.
F. Yoga and Pilates can help, as well as taking regular breaks or investing in a standing desk.
G. Use the Class Pass app to book fitness classes without having to commit to a full membership.
第三部分：语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节：完形填空(共15 小题；每小题1分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
My mother, 85, once a legendary talker, stopped talking months ago. To 41 her silent days, my sister and I would turn on music program and TV series, but she ignored them and always stared at the wall, looking somehow 42 . And then, one day, a baseball game was broadcast. It seemed to have totally touched her. She turned away from the wall and then started to 43 :“Oh. ”“Good.” “Nice!”
As a Chicago native, she was once a devoted Dodgers 44 , mainly because of that barrier-breaking miracle named Jackie Robinson. But she didn't 45 love baseball. As she was a single mother of two, we couldn't 46 many games when I was young. But she managed to take us to see the old Washington Senators play, where workers 47 free baseball bats. To her 48 , my sister and I never developed the baseball interest, but she made other baseball friends. For years she was the only woman in Rotisserie League. She came in last every year. But winning wasn't the 49 . She just wanted to be part of the game. As with all other men in her team, she 50 to follow her heart more than her head.
Maybe I shouldn't have been surprised that game awakened her that afternoon. I turned off the TV and asked if I could get her anything more. “More 51 ,”she said. She meant me, but I realize now that she also meant the 52 . Over her difficult years, baseball was a more 53 partner than most anything else. I 54 her that night and promised I’d visit her the next day. But when I did, she slept peacefully forever.
Still, spending that last magical game with her was a 55 . Even better: This time, she won.
41. A. witness B. fill C. celebrate D. lengthen
42. A. vacant B. curious C. expectant D. hopeful
43. A. apologize B. complain C. highlight D. cheer
44. A. hero B. fan C. coach D. player
45. A. simply B. truly C. fully D. naturally
46. A. miss B. win C. afford D. control
47. A. broke off B. set aside C. took back D. gave away
48. A. disappointment B. satisfaction C. delight D. relief
49. A. question B. point C. excuse D. result
50. A. pretended B. feared C. tended D. declined
51. A. company B. trouble C. explanation D. rest
52. A. service B. TV C. game D. team
53. A. professional B. independent C. cautious D. faithful
54. A. warned B. kissed C. grasped D. disturbed
55. A. dream B. choice C. gift D. lesson
第Ⅱ卷
第二节 (共 10小题; 每小题1.5 分, 满分 15分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
Far from the ocean waves, Yang Siqi grew up in the mountains of Southwest China. Yet, 56 15-year-old athlete is set to make history as the nation's first female surfer 57 (participate) in the Olympic Games this summer.
Born in Liangshan, Sichuan province, Yang 58 (initial) wanted to try taekwondo as her first sport, but her uncle sent her to learn sailing. It didn’t take long, however, 59 she fell in love with surfing.
Her transition from sailing to surfing marked the beginning of a 60 (promise) career. In 2019, she made her international debut (首次亮相), and then in 2023, she made an outstanding performance at the 2023 World Surfing Games (WSG), 61 she ranked 31st out of a field of over 130 surfers, failing to gain an Olympic ticket but earning praise from the International Surfing Association (ISA).“ 62 (compete) in her first WSG in September 2022, Yang made impressive improvements in surfing in just eight months,” read a piece 63 (publish) on the ISA website.
But for Yang, the only 64 (recognize) that counted was qualification for Paris. “I never gave up, ”she said. “I knew it was very difficult, but I had confidence in myself.” Her hard work 65 (pay) off. By earning the Olympic berth(泊位), she made history for China.
注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第四部分：写作 (共两节，满分40 分)
第一节：应用文写作 (共1小题，满分 15分)
假定你是李华，想邀请外教Mark参加你校举行的暑期户外拓展活动(outward bound)。请你给他写封邮件，内容包括：
1. 时间、地点;
2.活动安排;
3. 表达期待。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Dear Mark,
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节：读后续写(共1小题，满分25分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
Jennifer worked with her mother in their vegetable garden every day. The produce from their garden was sold at the farmer's market. This is how they made their living. Jennifer often pretended the plants she tended were beautiful tulips, like Mrs. Talia’s prize flowers. “Foolish girl!” her mother scolded. “Flowers can't be eaten! Tend to the vegetables. That's our living.”
Jennifer knew her mother was right. The only person in the village who made money selling flowers was Mrs. Talia. She grew tulips and sold them to local flower shops. Every year she won first prize at the Tulip Festival. Other contestants whispered that Mrs. Talia used magic to grow her tulips. How else could she win first prize twenty years in a row
Jennifer envied Mrs. Talia. If she could sell flowers like Mrs. Talia, she would be able to buy things for her mother. But tulips were expensive to start, and Jennifer could only dream about growing them.
One day, Jennifer visited Mrs. Talia to see her flowers. Mrs. Talia was inspecting her tulips when she arrived. The garden of flowers springing up thrilled Jennifer. Mrs. Talia shattered her daydream. “Spying on me again!”Mrs. Talia frowned. Jennifer took a deep breath and explained she came only to see her flowers, hoping to grow such beautiful tulips and win a prize at the festival like her.
“You! Win a prize growing flowers ”Mrs. Talia chuckled and told Jennifer the secret to growing prize tulips had been passed down to her from past generations of her family. Mrs. Talia patted her shoulder and said sticking to vegetables was a better choice for her. Mrs. Talia returned to her gardening, ignoring the sad look on Jennifer’s face. Then she pulled up what looked like a weed. “What's that ” Jennifer asked. Mrs. Talia said it was only a shabby plant and then threw it over the fence into the field beside the garden.
Jennifer smiled and had an idea. She bowed farewell to Mrs. Talia and went out of the garden gate. Jennifer looked down at the discarded plant on the village path and glanced back. Mrs. Talia was busy minding her prize tulips. Jennifer quickly bent over and picked up the plant before rushing home.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为 150 左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Jennifer wondered what she should do with her plant.
Jennifer got up on festival morning.
丽水市2023-2024学年高二下学期6月期末教学质量监控
英语参考答案 2024.06
一、听力(共20小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分30分)
1—5 BCBAC 6—10BACBA 11—15 CCAAC 16—20BBCAB
二、阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共 15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
21—23 CAD 24—27CBAD 28—31 BCCD 32—35 BBDA
第二节 (共5 小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
36—40 BEAFD
三、语言运用(共两节，满分 30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分 15分)
41—45 BADBA 46—50 CDABC 51—55ACDBC
第二节 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分 15分)
56. the 57. to participate 58. initially 59. before 60. promising
61. where 62. Having competed 63. published 64. recognition 65. paid
四、写作 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作 (满分 15分)
参考范文：
Dear Mark,
I hope this email finds you well. I am writing to extend a warm invitation for you to join our school's summer Outward Bound program, an event that promises to be both invigorating and enlightening.
The program is scheduled to take place in the beautiful city of Lishui, renowned for its natural splendor, from July 20th to August 2nd. Our activities are designed to foster teamwork and personal growth. You can expect to participate in hiking expeditions, river rafting, and overnight camping, all while enjoying the breathtaking scenery. We'll also engage in workshops that focus on leadership skills and environmental stewardship.
Your presence would absolutely be invaluable. We all look forward to your joining us and creating lasting memories together.
Yours,
Li Hua
评分原则：
1.上文仅供参考，学生可用不同的语言表达形式来表述要点。
2.本题总分为 15 分，按以下 5 个档次给分。评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
第一档： (1——3 分)只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确；
第二档： (4—6 分)能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第三档： (7—9 分)能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但能基本达意；
第四档： (10—12 分)能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达基本清楚；
第五档： (13—15 分)能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚。
评分时还应注意：
(1)词数少于 60 的,酌情扣分。
(2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
第二节 读后续写 (满分25分)
参考范文：
Jennifer wondered what she should do with her plant. It suddenly occurred to her there was a quiet spot behind the cottage, a perfect place to grow for her little plant. Delighted at the thought of owning her own secret garden, she transplanted the tired flower carefully, exactly as Mrs. Talia did. Jennifer shared her secret with no one. She weeded and watered the recovering plant, whispering her dream of flower-growing glory to the little plant. Time spent with the little plant made Jennifer’s long days tending vegetables bearable. Finally, her tireless efforts paid off. Each time Jennifer visited her little plant, it looked greener and taller, giving her an increasing hope that she might win a prize at the festival.
Jennifer got up on festival morning. Her heart pounding with anticipation, she went to greet her vibrant, exotic flower. With a mix of pride and nervousness, she carried it to the festival, where it stood out among the rows of tulips. The villagers were captivated by its beauty, and the judges were astounded. As the prizes were announced, Jennifer’s flower won the hearts of all .Mrs. Talia’s mouth dropped open at the result and came to ask what her secret of planting flowers was. She mentioned it was being able to do something she enjoyed and trying her best. It turned out her mother was also at the festival. Shocked and proud, her mother said in a whisper “Proud of you and your dream.” A surge of warmth ran through her, offering her the energy to carry on.
评分原则：
1.本题总分为25 分，按以下5个档次给分。评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
第一档： (1—5 分) 与段落开头衔接较差，产出内容太少，全文内容不连贯；
第二档： (6—10 分)与所给短文有一定的关系，与段落开头有一定程度的衔接，写出了一些有关内容，较少使用语句间连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性；
第三档： (11—15 分)与所给短文关系较为密切，与段落开头有一定程度的衔接，写出了若干有关内容，应用简单的语句间连接成分，全文内容连贯；
第四档： (16——20 分)与所给短文融洽度较高，与段落开头衔接较为合理，内容比较丰富，比较有效地使用了语句间连接成分，所续写短文结构紧凑；
第五档： (21——25 分)与所给短文融洽度高，与段落开头衔接合理，内容丰富，有效地使用了语句间连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
2.评分时还应注意：
(1) 词数少于 120的, 酌情扣分。
(2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英，美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3)书写较差以至影响交际的，酌情扣分。
附件1：听力录音原文
Text 1
W: Have you done placing your order for new printers
M: Yes. We need six public printers and one in each office, for a total of twelve.
Text 2
W: Do you always want to be a farmer
M: No. I studied economics at school, and I wanted to be a businessman. But when my father passed away, he left me his farm. I want to honor his memory.
Text 3
W: Have you heard of Mo Yan
M: Of course. Although I haven't read his books before, I know some of them. Now everyone knows he won the Nobel Prize.
W:I have never heard of him before. All of a sudden, he is famous all over the world.
Text 4
M: What's that noise It sounds as if it's coming from the next door. The Nelsons aren't back yet, are they
W: I don't think so. It must be the window cleaner working upstairs.
Text 5
M: God, I'm wondering if it's going to be fine this afternoon.
W: What's the matter
M: The football match! It's due at 2:00, but the rain...
W: Don't you see the wind is beginning to blow I'm sure it'll be fi ne by then.
Text 6
W: Where did you go last Sunday
M: Nanjing.
W: For what
M: To celebrate my grandfather's 80th birthday.
W:I guess he must be very happy for your coming.
M:Of course. My parents, aunts, other relatives and also his close friends, all were there.
W: Oh, what a huge party!
M: Yes, about 60 people attended.
W: You have a really big family. How did you get there By train
M: No, we flew there. You know, time was very limited.
Text 7
W: Excuse me, can you do me a favor, please
M: It's my pleasure, what can I do for you
W: I'm from England and I'm trying to make a travel plan for today.
M: What brought you here
W: I'm a flight attendant and I'm here on vacation. I'm staying in the Holiday Inn Lido Hotel not far from here.
M: Oh, it's not very far. And as far as I know, it is a fancy place.
W: Yes, it is. Do you know where I can get a town map
M: We sell them, right here.
W: Great, do you have any for foreigners I mean English version
M: Yes, we do. As many as you want. What about this one
W: That's exactly what I'm looking for. I'll take it.
Text8
W: Steve, my TV set doesn't work. I can't get a clear picture. Can you help me fix it
M:Oh, sure. I've fixed millions of TV sets.
W: Good. I don't know what to do without a TV.
M: Don't worry. I'll have it done by tomorrow. In fact, quite a few sets of this type have problems.
W: Really
M: Yeah. I prefer a different brand. Look at this model here. This is the only kind I sell.
W: Wow! That's a great picture. Are there any problems with this set
M: So far, I've only worked on a handful of them. This TV is really good. It would give you no trouble at all.
W: Maybe I'll get one soon.
Text 9
M: Hello, can I help you with something
W: Yes. You see, I'm spending a few days in the city and I'd like to know what's on these days.
M: Well, there's a musical, Elephant Fountain, at the Baoli Theater. They all say it's very good.
W: When's it on exactly
M: Every night except Sunday. Hold on, let me get some specific information. Yes, the show will run until the beginning of July. It begins at 8 o’clock, ending at 10:45. There’s an afternoon performance starting at 2:00 on Wednesday and Saturday, too.
W: And how much are the tickets
M: Tickets are 80 yuan, 100 yuan and 150 yuan.
W: That's a bit expensive.
M: Well, you might get a ticket at a reduced price. It says here. “Some tickets may be sold at half price half an hour before the performance starts.”
W: Mm, I'll think about that. Oh, by the way, is there an age limit for children
M: Generally, not under seven. But this musical is about three children and an elephant. So children are welcome except babies. Besides, food and drinks are not allowed.
Text 10
The United States Postal Service, or USPS, has a long history in America. Benjamin Franklin was appointed as the first head of the postal service, in 1775. However, the Postal Service says its income has not kept up with growing costs nowadays. The service says most of its recent losses result from making payments to its health care program for retired people. About a billion dollars of the loss is payments for injured workers. The news from April to June was not all bad. Improvements in the economy added a 9% increase in income from shipping and delivery. Because it is less costly to send letters and packages in the mail than to use private companies. To improve its financial health, the agency has proposed cutting service on Saturdays. It also wants Congress to cancel a requirement that the postal service makes advance payments to the health care program for retired workers. On August 1st, USPS failed to make a required payment of 5.5 billion dollars for health care benefits for future retirees. It is the first time the postal service has ever failed to make such a payment. And, without major changes, it will continue to lose billions of dollars a year.
